Unit 5: Groups - Practice Quiz

PSY293 — Psychology Of High Performance 60 Questions
0 Correct 0 Wrong 60 Left
0/60

1 Which of the following best defines a group in psychology?

understanding groups Easy
A. A large crowd of strangers with no common purpose
B. Two or more individuals who interact and are interdependent to achieve particular objectives
C. A single individual working alone toward a personal goal
D. A random collection of people who happen to share the same physical space

2 A group that is officially defined by an organization's structure with assigned tasks is called a:

understanding groups Easy
A. Reference group
B. Formal group
C. Interest group
D. Friendship group

3 Which type of group forms naturally in response to the need for social contact rather than by organizational design?

understanding groups Easy
A. Task group
B. Command group
C. Functional group
D. Informal group

4 A reference group is one that an individual:

understanding groups Easy
A. Is formally assigned to by management
B. Uses as a standard for evaluating themselves and their behaviour
C. Belongs to but never interacts with
D. Joins only for financial reward

5 Which of the following is an example of a command group?

understanding groups Easy
A. A manager and the employees who report directly to them
B. A set of friends who meet after work
C. People who support the same sports team
D. Strangers waiting at a bus stop

6 In group behaviour, a role refers to:

foundations of group behaviour Easy
A. The physical location where the group meets
B. The number of members present in a group
C. A set of expected behaviour patterns attributed to someone occupying a position
D. A written contract signed by all members

7 Acceptable standards of behaviour shared by a group's members are known as:

foundations of group behaviour Easy
A. Statuses
B. Ranks
C. Norms
D. Roles

8 Status in a group is best described as:

foundations of group behaviour Easy
A. The total number of tasks completed by a group
B. The time a group has existed
C. A socially defined position or rank given to groups or members
D. The physical size of the group

9 The number of people a group contains is referred to as its:

foundations of group behaviour Easy
A. Role
B. Status
C. Size
D. Norm

10 Social loafing refers to the tendency for individuals to:

foundations of group behaviour Easy
A. Take on a leadership role automatically
B. Refuse to join any group activity
C. Work harder in a group than when alone
D. Exert less effort when working collectively than when working alone

11 Cohesiveness in a group refers to the degree to which members:

foundations of group behaviour Easy
A. Are assigned formal job titles
B. Compete against one another for rewards
C. Ignore the group's stated goals
D. Are attracted to each other and motivated to stay in the group

12 According to Tuckman's model, the correct order of the first three stages of group development is:

group formation Easy
A. Performing, Forming, Storming
B. Norming, Forming, Storming
C. Storming, Forming, Norming
D. Forming, Storming, Norming

13 In Tuckman's model, which stage is characterized by intragroup conflict as members resist the group's constraints?

group formation Easy
A. Forming
B. Norming
C. Adjourning
D. Storming

14 The stage where the group is fully functional and members work toward achieving goals is called:

group formation Easy
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Forming
D. Performing

15 The final stage in Tuckman's model, applying to temporary groups that wrap up their activities, is:

group formation Easy
A. Adjourning
B. Forming
C. Performing
D. Norming

16 During the forming stage of a group, members typically experience:

group formation Easy
A. Peak task performance and efficiency
B. The dissolution of the group
C. Uncertainty about the group's purpose, structure, and leadership
D. Full agreement on all group norms

17 The term group dynamics refers to:

group dynamics Easy
A. The physical size of a meeting room
B. The number of formal groups in an organization
C. The processes and interactions that occur within a group
D. The salary structure of a group's members

18 Groupthink is best described as a situation where:

group dynamics Easy
A. The desire for harmony leads members to make poor decisions
B. Members openly challenge every idea presented
C. The group always produces the most creative solution
D. Each member works completely independently

19 Social facilitation refers to the tendency for performance to change when:

group dynamics Easy
A. A group has no assigned leader
B. Individuals are in the presence of others
C. A group is completely disbanded
D. A task is done in total isolation

20 The tendency for group discussion to strengthen members' pre-existing views is known as:

group dynamics Easy
A. Role ambiguity
B. Group cohesion
C. Social loafing
D. Group polarization

21 A newly hired employee joins a project team where members share tasks, interact regularly, and see themselves as 'us.' Which defining characteristic of a group does this best illustrate?

understanding groups Medium
A. A temporary gathering with no common goal
B. A large number of people in one physical location
C. Interdependence and shared identity among members
D. A statistical category based on shared traits

22 Passengers waiting at a bus stop who do not interact are best classified as which of the following rather than a true group?

understanding groups Medium
A. A reference group
B. A primary group
C. A cohesive team
D. An aggregate

23 An athlete admires a national Olympic team and adopts their training habits and values despite never being a member. That team functions as which type of group for the athlete?

understanding groups Medium
A. A membership group
B. A reference group
C. An in-group
D. A secondary group

24 A close-knit family and a large corporation differ mainly in that the family is a primary group. What best distinguishes primary from secondary groups?

understanding groups Medium
A. Primary groups lack any emotional connection among members
B. Primary groups are formed only for specific tasks
C. Primary groups involve intimate, enduring, face-to-face relationships
D. Primary groups always have more members than secondary groups

25 A basketball player fully understands the defensive scheme but hesitates to state it because teammates seem confused. This reflects the distinction between which two concepts in group behaviour?

foundations of group behaviour Medium
A. Status and size
B. Norms and cohesion
C. Role perception and role expectation
D. Conformity and compliance

26 In Solomon Asch's line-judgment studies, many participants gave clearly wrong answers to match the group. This demonstrates which foundation of group behaviour?

foundations of group behaviour Medium
A. Social loafing
B. Groupthink
C. Role ambiguity
D. Normative conformity

27 A team captain is expected to be both a strict enforcer of rules by the coach and a supportive friend by teammates. This situation is an example of:

foundations of group behaviour Medium
A. Deindividuation
B. Inter-role conflict
C. Social facilitation
D. Group polarization

28 A rookie earns respect and influence in a team based on skill and contributions rather than a formal title. This informally acquired standing is best termed:

foundations of group behaviour Medium
A. Formal authority
B. Achieved status
C. Ascribed status
D. Role identity

29 Group norms most strongly influence individual behaviour when:

foundations of group behaviour Medium
A. The group has no shared expectations
B. The behaviour occurs privately and anonymously
C. The behaviour is public and the group is important to the person
D. The person has no relationship with the group

30 During which stage of Tuckman's model do members openly disagree over roles, leadership, and how tasks should be done?

group formation Medium
A. Storming
B. Performing
C. Forming
D. Norming

31 A project team has resolved its conflicts, agreed on norms, and now works smoothly toward its goals with high autonomy. Which Tuckman stage best describes this?

group formation Medium
A. Forming
B. Performing
C. Storming
D. Adjourning

32 According to social exchange theory, a person is most likely to join and remain in a group when:

group formation Medium
A. The group is the largest available option
B. Perceived rewards outweigh perceived costs
C. Membership is assigned rather than chosen
D. There are no norms to follow

33 A short-term committee formed to plan a single event completes its work and disbands. Which Tuckman stage captures this ending phase?

group formation Medium
A. Storming
B. Adjourning
C. Performing
D. Norming

34 Two employees who sit near each other and see each other daily gradually become close friends. Which principle of group formation does this best illustrate?

group formation Medium
A. Reciprocity of status
B. Proximity
C. Complementarity
D. Role differentiation

35 In a tug-of-war, individuals pull less hard as team size increases because their effort is harder to identify. This effect is known as:

group dynamics Medium
A. Social facilitation
B. Group polarization
C. Deindividuation
D. Social loafing

36 A cohesive advisory group makes a poor decision because members suppressed doubts to preserve harmony and unanimity. This phenomenon is called:

group dynamics Medium
A. Normative status
B. Social facilitation
C. Groupthink
D. Role conflict

37 After a group discussion, members who initially leaned toward a risky option end up endorsing an even riskier choice. This shift best illustrates:

group dynamics Medium
A. Group polarization
B. Deindividuation
C. Compliance
D. Social loafing

38 A skilled sprinter runs faster during a race with spectators than when practicing alone. This performance boost on a well-learned task reflects:

group dynamics Medium
A. Role ambiguity
B. Social loafing
C. Group polarization
D. Social facilitation

39 A coach wants to reduce social loafing on a relay team. Which strategy is most likely to work?

group dynamics Medium
A. Remove all performance feedback
B. Make each member's individual contribution identifiable
C. Assign identical tasks to everyone anonymously
D. Increase the size of the team substantially

40 Highly cohesive teams generally show higher performance, but cohesion can harm outcomes when:

group dynamics Medium
A. Group norms favour low productivity
B. Members trust one another
C. The group shares a clear common goal
D. Communication among members is frequent

41 A project team of five engineers meets daily, shares interdependent tasks, and identifies collectively as "the deployment squad," while a set of 200 employees who happen to use the same cafeteria do not. According to the psychological criteria distinguishing a group from a mere aggregate, which single factor is most decisive in classifying the squad as a true group but the cafeteria users as not?

understanding groups Hard
A. The absolute number of individuals present at any moment
B. The physical proximity of members during their activities
C. Mutual interdependence combined with shared identity and interaction
D. The frequency with which members occupy the same space

42 A researcher argues that a large online forum with 50,000 members is not a single psychological group but a collective containing many nested groups. Which conceptual distinction best supports this argument?

understanding groups Hard
A. Online membership is always fictional because members never physically meet
B. Any set larger than 20 people is by definition never a group under any theory
C. Psychological groups require the possibility of mutual awareness and influence, which is bounded by cognitive and interactional limits
D. Groups can only exist if all members share the same formal job title

43 In role theory, a newly promoted supervisor experiences stress because her former peers still expect friendship-based leniency while upper management expects strict enforcement of quotas. This situation is most precisely classified as:

foundations of group behaviour Hard
A. Role ambiguity due to undefined job responsibilities
B. Intra-role conflict from a single sender's mixed signals
C. Inter-role conflict arising from incompatible expectations across simultaneously held roles
D. Role overload from too many total tasks assigned

44 A manager observes that a team's productivity norm is set well below its actual capability, and high performers deliberately slow down to match it. Applying the Hawthorne studies' findings on group norms, which mechanism best explains the high performers' behaviour?

foundations of group behaviour Hard
A. Formal management incentives explicitly rewarding lower output
B. Informal social pressure enforcing a restrictive output norm to protect the group
C. Absence of any shared standard leading to random performance
D. Genuine physical fatigue that reduces individual maximum capacity

45 Status incongruence occurs when an individual's standing on one status dimension conflicts with another. Which scenario is the clearest example of status incongruence generating group tension?

foundations of group behaviour Hard
A. A young, low-tenure employee is given formal authority over older, long-tenured colleagues
B. All team members hold identical rank and equal pay
C. A senior manager receives a routine annual salary increase
D. A new hire is assigned standard entry-level duties matching their experience

46 A group forms, immediately experiences intense disagreement over leadership and direction, then settles into cooperative work. Using Tuckman's model, a critic notes that the group skipped a stage. Which stage was most likely compressed or bypassed, and why is this theoretically significant?

group formation Hard
A. Adjourning was skipped, meaning the group can never disband
B. Norming was compressed, meaning shared expectations were assumed rather than explicitly negotiated
C. Performing occurred first, reversing all stages entirely
D. Forming was skipped, meaning members never actually joined the group

47 According to social exchange theory applied to group formation, an individual will remain in a group only if which condition holds, even when absolute rewards are high?

group formation Hard
A. The individual has known the members for many years
B. The group has the largest possible number of members
C. Outcomes exceed the comparison level for alternatives (CLalt) available elsewhere
D. Rewards exceed zero in absolute terms regardless of alternatives

48 Two teams are formed: Team A around a shared superordinate goal requiring interdependence, Team B around mere assignment of members with independent tasks. Sherif's Robbers Cave findings predict that cohesion and cooperation will be strongest in which team, and through what mechanism?

group formation Hard
A. Both equally, because task structure has no effect on cohesion
B. Team B, because independent tasks eliminate all sources of conflict
C. Team B, because lack of shared goals increases individual motivation
D. Team A, because superordinate goals requiring interdependence build cooperation and reduce friction

49 In a brainstorming task, a nominal group (individuals working alone, ideas pooled later) consistently outperforms an equal-sized interacting group. Which combination of process losses best explains the interacting group's inferior output?

group dynamics Hard
A. Group polarization causing riskier but more numerous ideas
B. Production blocking and evaluation apprehension jointly suppressing idea generation
C. Social facilitation and increased arousal boosting only the nominal group
D. Deindividuation raising the interacting group's total output

50 A cohesive executive team makes a disastrous decision after suppressing dissent, sharing an illusion of invulnerability, and pressuring doubters to conform. To most effectively counter this groupthink dynamic in future decisions, which structural intervention is theoretically strongest?

group dynamics Hard
A. Increasing group cohesion so members trust each other more fully
B. Assigning a rotating devil's advocate and inviting outside experts to critique
C. Having the leader state their preferred option first to provide direction
D. Reducing the time available for deliberation to force quick consensus

51 In a group discussion, initially moderate members shift toward a more extreme collective position after deliberation. If the shift occurs primarily because members hear novel arguments favouring their initial leaning, this reflects which explanatory mechanism of group polarization?

group dynamics Hard
A. Social comparison, driven by the desire to appear more extreme than peers
B. Persuasive arguments theory, driven by exposure to new supporting information
C. Deindividuation, driven by loss of self-awareness in the crowd
D. Social loafing, driven by reduced individual effort

52 A group of eight people is pulling a rope; measured total force is markedly less than the sum of each member's individual maximum. Careful measurement shows the loss is due partly to reduced motivation and partly to poor coordination. Which pair of concepts most precisely captures these two components?

group dynamics Hard
A. Social loafing (motivation loss) and coordination loss (poor synchronization)
B. Group polarization and groupthink
C. Social facilitation and evaluation apprehension
D. Deindividuation and diffusion of responsibility

53 If four workers each exert 100 units alone, but a coordination inefficiency causes total group output to be modeled as where is group size, what is the approximate per-person output at ?

group dynamics Hard
A. Approximately 100 units
B. Approximately 65 units
C. Approximately 81 units
D. Approximately 120 units

54 A well-practiced expert dancer performs flawlessly before a large audience, while a novice makes many more errors than when alone. Which theoretical account best integrates both outcomes under a single principle?

foundations of group behaviour Hard
A. Social loafing: both performers reduce effort when observed
B. Zajonc's drive theory: arousal from others enhances dominant responses, which are correct for experts but incorrect for novices
C. Groupthink: the audience pressures both toward conformity
D. Deindividuation: anonymity in a crowd frees both performers from norms

55 A consultant claims a department is a "team" while another calls it merely a "working group." Which distinguishing feature most accurately separates a genuine team from a working group in organizational psychology?

understanding groups Hard
A. A working group always has more members than a team
B. A working group is defined solely by having a shared physical office
C. A team has collective accountability and positive synergy exceeding the sum of individual inputs
D. A team never has an appointed formal leader

56 During group formation, members exhibit strong initial attraction based on perceived similarity, but longitudinal data show the strongest lasting bonds form around complementary skills instead. Which principle reconciles this apparent contradiction between attraction and durable cohesion?

group formation Hard
A. Similarity drives initial attraction, but interdependence via complementarity sustains long-term cohesion
B. Similarity and complementarity are identical concepts with no real difference
C. Complementarity prevents any initial attraction from forming at all
D. Only physical proximity determines both attraction and cohesion

57 A cohesive sales team shows very high cohesion but low alignment with organizational goals, and its performance is poor. Research on the cohesion–performance relationship suggests the key moderating variable being violated here is:

group dynamics Hard
A. The absolute size of the team, since only large teams perform well
B. The physical distance between members, since remote teams always fail
C. The tenure of the manager, since only new managers create cohesion
D. The direction of group norms, since cohesion boosts performance only when norms favour high performance

58 In Asch-type conformity research, a single dissenting confederate who breaks unanimity dramatically reduces a naive participant's conformity even when that dissenter gives a different wrong answer. What does this finding most strongly imply about the mechanism of normative influence?

foundations of group behaviour Hard
A. Group size is the sole determinant of conformity pressure
B. Conformity depends only on the objective difficulty of the task
C. Dissent reduces conformity only when the dissenter is objectively correct
D. The mere breaking of group unanimity, not the correctness of the dissent, liberates independent judgment

59 An individual in a large, anonymous, emotionally charged crowd behaves aggressively in ways they never would alone. Which combination of processes best accounts for this shift according to deindividuation theory?

group dynamics Hard
A. Increased evaluation apprehension heightening self-monitoring
B. Reduced self-awareness and diffused responsibility lowering internal restraints
C. Coordination loss reducing the crowd's total effort
D. Persuasive arguments producing a rational attitude shift

60 A theorist distinguishes reference groups from membership groups, noting a junior analyst who belongs to the finance team but models her attitudes on senior partners she does not belong to. Which statement about this distinction is most accurate?

understanding groups Hard
A. A membership group has no influence on attitudes or values
B. Membership and reference groups are always the same set of people
C. A reference group shapes standards and self-evaluation even without formal membership
D. A reference group requires formal membership to influence behaviour