Unit 3: Becoming more effective - Practice Quiz

PSY293 — Psychology Of High Performance 60 Questions
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1 What does the acronym SQ3R stand for in effective reading?

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A. Select, Quiz, Read, Reflect, Report
B. Scan, Query, Read, Repeat, Rest
C. Survey, Question, Read, Recite, Review
D. Study, Question, Recall, Recite, Rewrite

2 A mnemonic is best described as a technique used to:

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A. Reduce test anxiety
B. Increase reading speed
C. Aid memory and recall
D. Improve handwriting

3 The type of memory that holds information for only a short time and has limited capacity is called:

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A. Sensory memory
B. Short-term memory
C. Procedural memory
D. Long-term memory

4 Grouping individual items into larger, meaningful units to remember them more easily is known as:

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A. Scanning
B. Chunking
C. Rehearsing
D. Skimming

5 Skimming a text primarily means:

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A. Searching for one specific detail
B. Reading quickly to get the main idea
C. Reading every word carefully
D. Memorizing the whole passage

6 Reviewing material at increasing intervals over time to strengthen memory is called:

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A. Spaced repetition
B. Free recall
C. Passive reading
D. Cramming

7 Brainstorming is a technique mainly used to:

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A. Rank solutions by cost
B. Memorize facts efficiently
C. Generate many ideas quickly
D. Evaluate ideas critically

8 Thinking that generates many varied and original solutions to a problem is called:

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A. Linear thinking
B. Convergent thinking
C. Divergent thinking
D. Critical thinking

9 Which of the following is a common barrier to creativity?

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A. Open-mindedness
B. Curiosity
C. Willingness to experiment
D. Fear of failure

10 A mind map is a tool that helps people:

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A. Calculate statistical averages
B. Schedule daily tasks precisely
C. Test long-term memory recall
D. Visually organize ideas around a central concept

11 Looking at a problem from a new or unusual angle is often called:

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A. Thinking outside the box
B. Sticking to routine
C. Playing it safe
D. Following the rules

12 During the idea-generation stage of brainstorming, participants are encouraged to:

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A. Limit the number of ideas
B. Reject weak ideas immediately
C. Withhold criticism of ideas
D. Choose the single best option

13 Self-confidence is best defined as:

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A. Fear of new challenges
B. Avoidance of difficult tasks
C. Belief in one's own abilities
D. Dependence on others' opinions

14 The belief in your ability to succeed at a specific task is known as:

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A. Self-pity
B. Self-esteem
C. Self-efficacy
D. Self-doubt

15 Positive self-talk is a strategy that involves:

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A. Encouraging yourself with supportive statements
B. Criticizing yourself after mistakes
C. Ignoring your goals entirely
D. Comparing yourself to others

16 Which of the following is most likely to build confidence over time?

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A. Focusing only on failures
B. Achieving small successes
C. Avoiding all challenges
D. Setting impossible goals

17 Body language that tends to convey confidence includes:

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A. Slouching and looking down
B. Crossing arms defensively
C. Avoiding all eye contact
D. Standing tall with good posture

18 A decision is best described as:

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A. A feeling of uncertainty
B. A permanent unchangeable fact
C. A choice between two or more options
D. A random guess with no thought

19 A pros and cons list helps decision making by:

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A. Guaranteeing the correct outcome
B. Hiding possible risks
C. Removing the need to choose
D. Weighing advantages against disadvantages

20 Making a quick decision based on gut feeling rather than detailed analysis is known as an:

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A. Random decision
B. Intuitive decision
C. Analytical decision
D. Delegated decision

21 A student uses the SQ3R method while studying a textbook chapter. After surveying and questioning, which activity best represents the first "R" stage?

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A. Reviewing the whole chapter one final time before the exam
B. Reading the text actively to find answers to the questions posed
C. Reciting the summary aloud from memory without the book
D. Rewriting the chapter into a condensed set of flashcards

22 A learner reviews material after 1 day, 3 days, and then 1 week rather than cramming the night before. Which memory principle is being applied?

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A. Spaced repetition
B. Rote rehearsal
C. The primacy effect
D. Massed practice

23 To memorise the order of planets, a student invents the sentence "My Very Educated Mother Just Served Us Noodles." This technique is best described as a:

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A. Chunking strategy
B. Mnemonic device
C. Semantic network
D. Method of loci

24 A reader skims headings, bold terms, and the first sentence of each paragraph to grasp the gist quickly before deciding what to study in depth. This reading strategy is called:

reading and remembering Medium
A. Sub-vocalising
B. Scanning
C. Close reading
D. Skimming

25 Grouping a 10-digit phone number into segments like 987-654-3210 improves recall by:

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A. Slowing the natural rate of forgetting curves
B. Increasing the total capacity of long-term memory
C. Preventing interference from the primacy effect
D. Reducing the number of items held in working memory

26 During a group session, participants are told to generate as many wild ideas as possible with no criticism allowed. Which creative technique is being used?

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A. Brainstorming
B. Convergent thinking
C. SWOT analysis
D. Root-cause analysis

27 A designer asks, "How many uses can I think of for a paperclip?" This question is primarily testing:

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A. Convergent thinking
B. Logical deduction
C. Divergent thinking
D. Working memory span

28 After struggling with a problem, a person stops working and goes for a walk; the solution then appears "out of nowhere." Which stage of the creative process does this illustrate?

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A. Incubation
B. Illumination
C. Preparation
D. Verification

29 A team keeps designing a bottle-opener as only a handheld tool, unable to imagine a wall-mounted or keychain version. This mental block is best labelled as:

being creative Medium
A. The framing effect
B. Confirmation bias
C. Anchoring
D. Functional fixedness

30 Which condition most reliably supports creative output according to research on motivation?

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A. Intrinsic interest in the task itself
B. Frequent surveillance by a supervisor
C. Competition for a single cash prize
D. A tight external deadline with penalties

31 A student believes, "I can succeed at this presentation because I have prepared and rehearsed well." In Bandura's terms this belief is called:

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A. Self-esteem
B. Self-efficacy
C. Locus of control
D. Self-serving bias

32 According to Bandura, which source of self-efficacy is generally the most powerful?

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A. Verbal persuasion from others
B. Mastery experiences (past successes)
C. Interpreting physiological arousal
D. Vicarious experience (watching others)

33 A speaker reframes pre-performance nerves as "excitement that will energise me" rather than "anxiety that will ruin me." This confidence strategy relies on:

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A. Reinterpreting physiological arousal
B. Seeking constant reassurance
C. Avoiding the situation entirely
D. Lowering the goal difficulty

34 A confident but realistic performer sets goals that are challenging yet attainable. This best reflects the idea that healthy confidence should be:

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A. As high as possible regardless of skill
B. Based mainly on others' praise
C. Grounded in accurate self-assessment
D. Fixed and unchanging over time

35 A performer who fears failure so much that they never attempt challenging tasks is likely displaying:

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A. A strong internal locus of control
B. Overconfidence bias
C. Low self-efficacy
D. High intrinsic motivation

36 A manager buys a familiar brand quickly because it "feels right," relying on a rule of thumb instead of full analysis. This decision approach is called:

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A. Cost-benefit optimisation
B. Heuristic (intuitive) decision-making
C. Delphi consensus
D. Rational analytic decision-making

37 An investor keeps a failing stock only because they have already lost a lot on it, not because it is likely to recover. This is an example of the:

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A. Availability heuristic
B. Anchoring bias
C. Framing effect
D. Sunk cost fallacy

38 Told a surgery has a "90% survival rate," patients choose it more often than when told it has a "10% mortality rate," though the odds are identical. This illustrates the:

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A. Confirmation bias
B. Sunk cost fallacy
C. Framing effect
D. Hindsight bias

39 A decision-maker settles for the first "good enough" option that meets minimum criteria rather than searching for the very best. Herbert Simon called this:

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A. Satisficing
B. Optimising
C. Maximising
D. Anchoring

40 A person estimates plane crashes as very likely because vivid crash reports are easy to recall from the news. Which cognitive bias is at work?

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A. Sunk cost fallacy
B. Availability heuristic
C. Anchoring bias
D. Self-serving bias

41 A student uses the SQ3R method (Survey, Question, Read, Recite, Review) but reports poor retention despite spending hours on the 'Read' stage. Analysis of their notes shows verbatim highlighting and no self-generated questions. Which underlying principle best explains why their approach fails to build durable memory?

reading and remembering Hard
A. The 'Survey' stage was skipped, which is the sole cause of encoding failure
B. Highlighting is inherently ineffective because visual cues cannot be stored in long-term memory
C. Passive re-exposure produces fluency that is mistaken for learning, whereas retrieval and elaboration drive durable encoding
D. Reading time is the only meaningful predictor of retention, so more hours should have worked

42 Two study schedules cover identical material over 6 hours. Schedule A: one 6-hour block. Schedule B: six 1-hour sessions across six days with self-testing. On a delayed test two weeks later, Schedule B outperforms A. Which combination of effects best accounts for this?

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A. Cognitive load reduction combined with the mere-exposure effect
B. Spacing effect combined with the testing (retrieval practice) effect
C. The serial position effect combined with maintenance rehearsal
D. Massed practice combined with the primacy effect

43 A learner memorises a 20-item shopping list by imagining each item placed at a location along a familiar walk home. This technique exploits which memory mechanism, and what is its primary vulnerability?

reading and remembering Hard
A. Maintenance rehearsal; it decays rapidly unless items are repeated aloud
B. Chunking; it fails whenever items exceed the span of short-term memory
C. Semantic encoding; it collapses if the items share no categorical meaning
D. Method of loci; it relies on a well-known spatial route, so an unfamiliar or ambiguous route degrades recall

44 During revision, a student can recall facts perfectly in their bedroom where they studied, but underperforms in the exam hall. Which principle best explains this, and what strategy directly counteracts it?

reading and remembering Hard
A. Proactive interference; study newer material first to prevent old memories blocking new ones
B. Context-dependent memory; vary study locations and simulate exam conditions to reduce cue-dependency
C. Levels of processing; study only shallowly so context has less influence
D. The von Restorff effect; make all facts equally distinctive to avoid selective recall

45 A reader wants to grasp the argument structure of a dense academic paper quickly. Which combination of reading strategies best balances speed with comprehension of the author's reasoning?

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A. Read every word linearly at a fixed slow pace to avoid missing detail
B. Sub-vocalise each sentence twice to maximise auditory encoding
C. Skim the abstract, headings, and topic sentences first, then read critically for evidence-claim links
D. Read only the conclusion, since it contains all necessary information

46 A design team consistently produces conventional solutions. A consultant argues they are stuck due to functional fixedness. Which intervention most directly targets this specific barrier?

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A. Reframe objects and problems by their abstract properties rather than their typical uses
B. Restrict brainstorming to domain experts who know the standard uses
C. Reward only the first idea proposed to encourage decisiveness
D. Increase time pressure so the team generates ideas faster

47 Guilford distinguished divergent and convergent thinking. A test asks 'List all possible uses for a brick' and scores originality, fluency, and flexibility. A candidate lists 40 uses, but 38 involve building. How would their divergent-thinking profile most accurately be described?

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A. High flexibility but low fluency, since few distinct categories were used
B. High originality but low fluency, since the ideas were unusual
C. High fluency but low flexibility, since most responses cluster in one conceptual category
D. Balanced across all three dimensions, since 40 ideas is a large number

48 Research on incubation suggests stepping away from a problem can boost creative insight. Which explanation is best supported by evidence for why incubation helps?

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A. It eliminates the need for any prior knowledge of the problem domain
B. It allows misleading, over-activated approaches to fade, reducing fixation on unproductive paths
C. It increases conscious rumination, which strengthens the original strategy
D. It transfers the problem entirely to short-term memory for faster processing

49 A manager introduces group brainstorming expecting more ideas than individuals working alone. Studies of production blocking and evaluation apprehension predict what outcome, and what redesign mitigates it?

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A. Group size has no effect; retain the current format unchanged
B. Larger groups eliminate apprehension entirely; simply add more members
C. Groups often underperform pooled individuals; use 'brainwriting' where members generate ideas silently before sharing
D. Groups always outperform individuals; keep discussion fully verbal and simultaneous

50 The concept of 'creative constraints' claims limits can enhance rather than hinder creativity. Which scenario best illustrates the mechanism by which constraints boost creative output?

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A. A tight budget forces novel repurposing of available materials, narrowing the search space productively
B. Unlimited resources guarantee more original outcomes by removing all boundaries
C. Adding constraints reduces motivation, which lowers creative performance
D. Removing a deadline lets ideas mature indefinitely, always improving quality

51 Bandura's self-efficacy theory identifies four sources. A coach wants to raise an athlete's efficacy most durably. Ranking the sources by typical strength, which is most powerful and why?

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A. Vicarious experience, because watching others is the fastest way to learn
B. Physiological arousal, because bodily states are the most objective feedback
C. Verbal persuasion, because encouragement from others is easiest to deliver repeatedly
D. Mastery experiences, because personal success provides the most authentic and resilient evidence of capability

52 A performer scores high on trait confidence yet 'chokes' in a high-stakes final. The explicit monitoring theory of choking explains this how?

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A. Distraction from irrelevant thoughts freed up resources, improving execution
B. The skill was never truly automatised, so pressure had no effect
C. Anxiety redirects conscious attention to well-learned automatic skills, disrupting their fluent execution
D. High confidence lowers arousal below the level needed to perform at all

53 Distinguish self-efficacy from self-esteem in a case: a student believes they can pass any exam (task belief) but feels worthless as a person. Which statement correctly maps these constructs?

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A. The scenario is impossible, because self-efficacy and self-esteem always move together
B. This is low self-efficacy, because feeling worthless prevents task confidence
C. High self-efficacy for exams coexists with low self-esteem, since the two are distinct constructs
D. This shows high self-esteem, since exam confidence defines self-worth

54 The Yerkes–Dodson law relates arousal to performance. For a complex, novel cognitive task versus a simple, well-learned one, how do the optimal arousal points compare?

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A. Optimal arousal is higher for the complex task and lower for the simple task
B. Optimal arousal is identical for both, since the law applies uniformly
C. Optimal arousal is lower for the complex task and higher for the simple task
D. Arousal has no effect on complex tasks, only on simple ones

55 A therapist notes a client's confidence collapses after minor setbacks. Their self-talk is 'I always fail at everything, forever.' Using attribution theory, which attributional style is this, and what shift builds resilience?

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A. Internal, unstable, controllable attributions; shift toward stable, global explanations
B. External, unstable, specific attributions; shift toward internal and global explanations
C. Internal, stable, global attributions for failure; shift toward specific, unstable, controllable explanations
D. External, stable, global attributions; shift toward internal, uncontrollable explanations

56 A recruiter judges a candidate as likely to succeed because they resemble the recruiter's stereotype of a 'top performer,' ignoring base rates of success. Which heuristic and error is operating?

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A. Affect heuristic, causing risk underestimation
B. Availability heuristic, causing recency bias
C. Representativeness heuristic, causing base-rate neglect
D. Anchoring heuristic, causing insufficient adjustment

57 Two treatments are described identically in outcome but framed as '90% survival' versus '10% mortality.' Decision-makers prefer the first. This demonstrates which principle from prospect theory?

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A. The sunk-cost fallacy, where past investment drives future choice
B. The certainty effect, where guaranteed outcomes are always undervalued
C. The endowment effect, where owned items are overvalued
D. Framing effects arising from loss aversion, where losses loom larger than equivalent gains

58 A manager keeps funding a failing project because '£2 million has already been spent.' A rational analysis says future costs exceed future benefits. Which bias is this, and what is the correct decision rule?

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A. Loss aversion; continue funding to avoid realising any loss
B. Sunk-cost fallacy; decide only on future marginal costs and benefits, ignoring unrecoverable past spending
C. Confirmation bias; seek data proving the project will succeed
D. Optimism bias; assume outcomes will improve without new evidence

59 A cohesive team suppresses dissent, self-censors doubts, and reaches a unanimous but disastrous decision. Janis called this groupthink. Which structural safeguard most directly counters its core mechanism?

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A. Increase group cohesion so members trust one another more
B. Have the leader state their preferred option first to guide the group
C. Restrict the group to like-minded members to speed consensus
D. Assign a 'devil's advocate' and invite independent outside critique before committing

60 Comparing decision models, when is a fast recognition-primed decision (RPD) likely to outperform a slow, exhaustive rational-analytic model?

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A. When unlimited time allows every option to be fully quantified
B. When a novice faces an entirely unprecedented problem with no prior cues
C. When an expert faces a familiar, time-pressured situation with reliable pattern cues
D. When the environment is random and past patterns give no valid feedback