Unit 2: Improving Skills - Practice Quiz

PSY293 — Psychology Of High Performance 60 Questions
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1 What does the term time management most directly refer to?

managing time Easy
A. The act of working as many hours as possible each day
B. The process of organizing and planning how to divide time between activities
C. The scientific study of clocks and measurement instruments
D. A method for recording historical events chronologically

2 In the Eisenhower Matrix, tasks are prioritized based on which two dimensions?

managing time Easy
A. Urgency and importance
B. Difficulty and enjoyment
C. Cost and duration
D. Popularity and novelty

3 What is the main purpose of creating a to-do list?

managing time Easy
A. To measure the temperature of a workspace
B. To increase the total number of meetings
C. To permanently delete tasks from memory
D. To keep track of tasks that need to be completed

4 The Pomodoro Technique involves working in focused intervals typically separated by:

managing time Easy
A. Short breaks
B. Long naps
C. Team meetings
D. Full days off

5 What does it mean to procrastinate?

managing time Easy
A. To finish tasks ahead of schedule with careful planning and no distractions
B. To multitask on several projects
C. To delay or postpone tasks unnecessarily
D. To delegate all work to others

6 What is the primary goal of a win-win negotiation?

negotiating Easy
A. Only the more powerful party benefits
B. Both parties gain a satisfactory outcome
C. The negotiation ends without any agreement
D. One party takes everything

7 In negotiation, what does the acronym BATNA stand for?

negotiating Easy
A. Bargaining Around The Negotiation Area
B. Basic Agreement To Negotiate Actively
C. Best Alternative To a Negotiated Agreement
D. Balanced Approach To New Arrangements

8 Which behavior best supports successful negotiation?

negotiating Easy
A. Ignoring the other party completely
B. Refusing to share any information at all
C. Actively listening to the other party's needs
D. Interrupting whenever possible

9 What is a compromise in a negotiation?

negotiating Easy
A. A situation where nobody speaks
B. An agreement where each side gives up something
C. A refusal to reach any deal
D. A demand that only one side must meet

10 Why is preparation important before a negotiation?

negotiating Easy
A. It makes the negotiation last longer
B. It guarantees the other side will lose
C. It helps you understand your goals and possible options
D. It removes the need to communicate

11 What is generally the best first step when dealing with a difficult person?

dealing with difficult people Easy
A. Immediately raise your voice
B. Stay calm and listen to their concerns
C. Walk away without any explanation
D. Insult them to gain control

12 What does empathy mean in the context of handling difficult people?

dealing with difficult people Easy
A. Pretending they do not exist
B. Agreeing with everything they say
C. Avoiding all contact with them
D. Understanding another person's feelings and perspective

13 Which of these is an example of an assertive response?

dealing with difficult people Easy
A. Calmly expressing your needs while respecting others
B. Blaming the other person for everything
C. Staying silent and hoping the problem disappears
D. Yelling until you get your way

14 What is active listening when dealing with difficult behavior?

dealing with difficult people Easy
A. Repeating your own point loudly
B. Fully focusing on the speaker and confirming understanding
C. Checking your phone during the conversation
D. Planning your reply while they talk

15 Why is it useful to focus on the problem rather than the person during conflict?

dealing with difficult people Easy
A. It ends the conversation immediately
B. It keeps the discussion constructive and less personal
C. It guarantees they will lose the argument
D. It makes the other person feel attacked

16 What is the main purpose of knowing your audience before a presentation?

presenting Easy
A. To make the presentation as long as possible
B. To memorize the room's dimensions
C. To tailor your content to their needs and interests
D. To avoid using any visual aids

17 Which of the following is a good use of visual aids in a presentation?

presenting Easy
A. Replacing the need to speak at all
B. Filling slides with as much text as possible
C. Reading every word on the slide aloud
D. Supporting and clarifying your key points

18 What is the recommended structure of a typical presentation?

presenting Easy
A. Random points in no particular order
B. Introduction, body, and conclusion
C. Only a long body with no ending
D. Conclusion, introduction, and questions

19 Which technique helps reduce nervousness before presenting?

presenting Easy
A. Avoiding all preparation to stay spontaneous
B. Speaking as fast as possible to finish quickly
C. Practicing the presentation beforehand
D. Never looking at the material again

20 Why is eye contact important during a presentation?

presenting Easy
A. It signals that you are unprepared
B. It helps engage the audience and build connection
C. It replaces the need for any spoken content
D. It distracts the audience from the topic

21 A manager lists tasks as urgent-important, important-not urgent, urgent-not important, and neither. According to the Eisenhower Matrix, which quadrant should be scheduled rather than done immediately or delegated?

managing time Medium
A. Urgent and important
B. Important but not urgent
C. Neither urgent nor important
D. Urgent but not important

22 An employee spends the first hour of each day answering low-value emails before starting a critical report. Which principle best explains why tackling the report first would improve output?

managing time Medium
A. The Pareto Principle applied to priorities
B. Diminishing marginal utility
C. Parkinson's Law
D. The sunk cost fallacy

23 A student notices that a task expands to fill however much time is allotted. Assigning tighter deadlines increases focus. This observation is best described by:

managing time Medium
A. The Zeigarnik effect
B. Parkinson's Law
C. The Pomodoro technique
D. Decision fatigue

24 Using the Pomodoro technique, a person works in 25-minute intervals with 5-minute breaks. After completing four intervals, they should take a longer break. What is the primary psychological benefit of these structured breaks?

managing time Medium
A. Removing all interruptions permanently
B. Eliminating the need for prioritization
C. Reducing mental fatigue and sustaining attention
D. Increasing total hours worked per day

25 A team leader keeps switching between three projects, losing time each switch. What term describes this productivity loss, and what is the best remedy?

managing time Medium
A. Time blocking; add more projects
B. Flow state; increase multitasking
C. Context-switching cost; batch similar tasks together
D. Procrastination; delay all tasks

26 During a salary negotiation, a candidate knows the lowest offer they will accept before walking away. In negotiation theory, this threshold is called their:

negotiating Medium
A. Reservation point
B. Anchor
C. ZOPA
D. BATNA

27 Two parties have overlapping acceptable ranges: the buyer will pay up to $500 and the seller will accept as low as $400. The range from $400 to $500 is known as the:

negotiating Medium
A. BATNA overlap
B. ZOPA (Zone of Possible Agreement)
C. Reservation gap
D. Anchoring range

28 A negotiator opens with an ambitious but justifiable price, which pulls the final agreement in their favor. This tactic exploits which cognitive bias?

negotiating Medium
A. Confirmation bias
B. Hindsight bias
C. Anchoring bias
D. Availability bias

29 In principled negotiation (Getting to Yes), which approach is recommended to reach durable agreements?

negotiating Medium
A. Treat the other side as an adversary
B. Focus on interests rather than positions
C. Insist firmly on your stated position
D. Withhold all information until the end

30 A supplier has several other buyers ready to purchase, giving them a strong fallback if talks fail. This strong alternative strengthens their negotiating power and is called their:

negotiating Medium
A. ZOPA
B. Reservation point
C. BATNA
D. Concession

31 During a tense negotiation, one party expands the deal by adding an issue the other side values highly but they value little, then trades it away. This value-creating tactic is known as:

negotiating Medium
A. Anchoring
B. Stonewalling
C. Logrolling
D. Lowballing

32 A colleague repeatedly makes sarcastic remarks in meetings instead of voicing concerns directly. This behavior is best classified as:

dealing with difficult people Medium
A. Passive-aggressive
B. Assertive
C. Accommodating
D. Collaborative

33 When confronting a coworker about missed deadlines, which framing is most likely to reduce defensiveness?

dealing with difficult people Medium
A. Raising it publicly in a meeting
B. Using "you always" accusations
C. Using "I" statements about impact
D. Ignoring it to avoid conflict

34 A team member becomes verbally aggressive during a disagreement. Which response best applies emotional regulation to de-escalate the situation?

dealing with difficult people Medium
A. Match their volume to show you won't back down
B. Immediately end the conversation and leave
C. Point out that they are being irrational
D. Stay calm, lower your tone, and acknowledge their feelings

35 An employee constantly disagrees and blocks decisions in group settings. Applying active listening first is useful primarily because it:

dealing with difficult people Medium
A. Guarantees they will change their opinion
B. Makes the person feel heard, reducing resistance
C. Avoids ever addressing the real issue
D. Shows that you agree with them fully

36 According to the DESC model for handling difficult conversations, what does the "D" stand for?

dealing with difficult people Medium
A. Dismiss the other viewpoint
B. Demand an immediate apology
C. Describe the behavior objectively
D. Delay the discussion indefinitely

37 A manager faces a chronic complainer who never proposes solutions. Which strategy most effectively redirects the interaction?

dealing with difficult people Medium
A. Avoid all future contact with them
B. Agree with every complaint they raise
C. Ask them to suggest a specific solution
D. Complain back about your own problems

38 A speaker structures a talk as "Tell them what you'll say, say it, then tell them what you said." This classic technique improves audience retention primarily through:

presenting Medium
A. Reading directly from a script
B. Repetition and clear signposting
C. Increasing the number of slides
D. Speaking as fast as possible

39 A presenter feels intense anxiety before speaking. Which technique is a research-supported way to reduce this physiological arousal in the moment?

presenting Medium
A. Slow, deep diaphragmatic breathing
B. Focusing on every possible failure
C. Drinking several cups of coffee
D. Avoiding any preparation beforehand

40 A designer fills each slide with dense paragraphs of text. Applying the principle of cognitive load, the better approach is to:

presenting Medium
A. Use as many fonts and colors as possible
B. Add more text so nothing is forgotten
C. Use minimal text and rely on speech for detail
D. Read every word on the slide aloud

41 A manager consistently completes urgent-but-unimportant tasks while important-but-non-urgent work (like strategic planning) is perpetually delayed. According to the Eisenhower Matrix, what is the most accurate diagnosis of this pattern's root cause?

managing time Hard
A. The manager has eliminated Quadrant IV activities too aggressively
B. The manager is over-investing in Quadrant II at the expense of delegation
C. The manager is correctly prioritizing because urgency should always precede importance
D. The manager is trapped in Quadrant III reactivity, mistaking urgency signals for genuine priority

42 A knowledge worker applies the Pareto Principle and finds that 20% of tasks yield 80% of value. After optimizing to focus only on those tasks, output value plateaus rather than continuing to rise. What is the most sound interpretation?

managing time Hard
A. The 80/20 distribution reapplies recursively, so the highest-value tasks now form a new subset requiring further prioritization
B. The worker should now shift all effort to the previously ignored 80% of tasks
C. Value plateaus prove that time management yields no marginal returns
D. The Pareto Principle has been disproven for this worker's context

43 Parkinson's Law states work expands to fill available time. A team lead shortens a project deadline to force efficiency, but quality drops sharply and rework erases the time saved. What does this reveal about naive application of Parkinson's Law?

managing time Hard
A. Deadline compression ignores the irreducible minimum time a task requires for acceptable quality
B. Quality and time are entirely unrelated variables
C. The team lead should have extended the deadline instead
D. Parkinson's Law only applies to individuals, never teams

44 A student uses timeboxing but repeatedly overruns each box, then abandons the schedule entirely by midday. Which underlying planning error is most likely responsible?

managing time Hard
A. The student allocated too much buffer time between boxes
B. The boxes were too long, reducing focus
C. The planning fallacy led to systematically underestimated task durations, so no buffer absorbed overruns
D. Timeboxing is inherently incompatible with student work

45 Two employees have identical task lists. One batches similar tasks (e.g., all emails together); the other interleaves task types throughout the day. The batcher reports higher throughput. What cognitive mechanism best explains the difference?

managing time Hard
A. Interleaving is always superior for retention and speed
B. Batching increases dopamine from task variety
C. Reduced context-switching cost, since batching minimizes the attention residue carried between dissimilar tasks
D. The batcher simply had easier tasks

46 In a negotiation, Party A has a strong BATNA but reveals it too early and in aggressive terms. The deal collapses despite objectively favorable terms for both. What negotiation dynamic best explains the failure?

negotiating Hard
A. A strong BATNA should always be concealed until signing
B. Prematurely brandishing a strong BATNA can trigger reactance and damage the relationship, overriding rational assessment of terms
C. The terms were not truly favorable to both parties
D. Party A's BATNA was actually weak

47 A buyer opens with an extreme but not absurd anchor. The seller, aware of anchoring bias, wants to neutralize it. Which counter-move most effectively resets the negotiation range?

negotiating Hard
A. Accepting the anchor as the new reference point and negotiating upward
B. Declining to counter the anchor and re-anchoring with a justified figure tied to objective criteria
C. Immediately splitting the difference with the buyer's anchor
D. Matching the buyer's extremity with an equally extreme opposite anchor regardless of justification

48 During an integrative negotiation, both parties claim the same fixed resource, appearing to be at an impasse. A skilled negotiator uncovers that each values different underlying interests. What technique most directly converts this into a win-win?

negotiating Hard
A. Logrolling: trading concessions on issues each side values differently to expand total value
B. Splitting the resource exactly in half
C. Positional bargaining to force a compromise on the disputed resource
D. Invoking a higher authority to allocate the resource

49 A negotiator sets an ambitious target price but never defines a reservation point. Mid-negotiation, under time pressure, they accept a deal worse than their walk-away alternative would have been. What structural flaw caused this?

negotiating Hard
A. Ambitious targets always lead to poor outcomes
B. The target price was set too high
C. Absence of a pre-committed reservation point removed the objective threshold protecting against pressure-driven concessions
D. The negotiator should never have felt time pressure

50 In cross-cultural negotiation, a negotiator from a low-context culture interprets a high-context counterpart's indirect 'we will consider it' as tentative agreement, and proceeds accordingly. The deal later falls apart. What is the core error?

negotiating Hard
A. Low-context communication is objectively superior
B. Misreading a high-context polite refusal as assent by applying low-context literal interpretation
C. The high-context party negotiated in bad faith
D. Indirect communication always signals genuine agreement

51 A colleague habitually uses passive-aggressive comments in meetings. A team member responds by publicly confronting the hostility directly each time, yet the behavior escalates. Why might direct public confrontation be counterproductive here?

dealing with difficult people Hard
A. The team member should mirror the passive-aggression back
B. Public confrontation threatens the passive-aggressor's need to avoid open conflict, reinforcing covert retaliation
C. Passive-aggressive behavior always disappears when ignored entirely
D. Confrontation is always the optimal response to hostility

52 When dealing with a chronically hostile individual, an expert advises separating the person from the problem. In practice, what does this most precisely require?

dealing with difficult people Hard
A. Removing the difficult person from the team permanently
B. Ignoring the person's emotions entirely to focus only on facts
C. Prioritizing the relationship over ever resolving the substantive issue
D. Addressing the substantive issue while acknowledging emotions, without attacking or defending identities

53 A team member repeatedly plays the 'victim' to deflect accountability. A leader who over-empathizes finds the pattern intensifies. What best explains why excessive empathy backfires with chronic victim-stance behavior?

dealing with difficult people Hard
A. Empathy is never appropriate with difficult people
B. The leader should express anger instead of empathy
C. The team member is incapable of accountability by nature
D. Over-empathizing inadvertently reinforces the behavior by rewarding it with attention and lowered expectations

54 During a heated conflict, one party's amygdala-driven 'fight or flight' response is triggered, impairing reasoning. Which intervention is most grounded in the neuroscience of emotional regulation for de-escalation?

dealing with difficult people Hard
A. Allowing a brief pause and using labeling of emotions to re-engage the prefrontal cortex
B. Demanding the person calm down instantly
C. Immediately presenting logical counter-arguments to override the emotion
D. Raising one's own voice to match the intensity

55 A manager distinguishes between a 'difficult person' and a 'person having a difficult moment.' Why is this distinction critical for choosing a response strategy?

dealing with difficult people Hard
A. Persistent difficult people should always be given more empathy than situational cases
B. It has no practical effect; both require identical firm discipline
C. It determines whether to address a situational trigger or a persistent behavioral pattern, which require different interventions
D. Difficult moments should always be escalated to HR immediately

56 A presenter front-loads a slide deck with dense data, then delivers key recommendations only at the very end. Audience recall of the recommendation is poor. Which combination of cognitive principles best explains this?

presenting Hard
A. The recency effect guarantees strong recall of the final recommendation
B. Cognitive overload from early density plus weakened primacy positioning of the key message
C. Data density always improves persuasion regardless of placement
D. Audiences remember middle content best, so the ending is irrelevant

57 A presenter reads bullet-point-laden slides aloud verbatim. Audience comprehension drops compared to a version with minimal slides and spoken narration. Which principle from multimedia learning theory explains this?

presenting Hard
A. Audiences process spoken and identical written words in fully separate channels without cost
B. More words on slides always aid retention
C. The modality effect requires all information to be presented as on-screen text
D. The redundancy effect: identical simultaneous text and speech overloads the same processing channel

58 A speaker faces a hostile audience skeptical of their conclusion. Which structuring strategy is most likely to reduce resistance and improve persuasion?

presenting Hard
A. Presenting only supporting evidence and ignoring opposing views
B. Using a two-sided message that acknowledges counterarguments before refuting them
C. Avoiding the audience's objections until the Q&A session
D. Opening immediately with the most controversial claim

59 A presenter with strong content receives feedback that they seem untrustworthy despite accurate information. Analysis of Mehrabian's findings on communication suggests the likely cause. What is the most defensible interpretation?

presenting Hard
A. Nonverbal cues are irrelevant to how competence is judged
B. Mehrabian proved that content is always only 7% of any message
C. When verbal and nonverbal cues conflict on feelings/attitudes, audiences weight tone and body language heavily, undermining perceived sincerity
D. Accurate content alone guarantees perceived trustworthiness

60 A presenter uses a compelling narrative structure but includes a statistic that contradicts the story's emotional arc. Audiences remember the story but misreport the statistic. What does this illustrate about narrative persuasion?

presenting Hard
A. Narrative transportation can override discrete factual data, so contradicting facts get reshaped to fit the story
B. Emotional stories have no effect on factual recall
C. Contradictory data strengthens the narrative's credibility
D. Statistics always dominate narratives in memory