Correct Answer: The degree to which software meets requirements
Explanation:
Software quality is the degree to which a software product satisfies stated requirements and user expectations.
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2Which factor is most closely related to software quality?
Defining Software Quality
Easy
A.Increasing office space
B.Meeting user needs
C.Reducing team meetings
D.Choosing a company logo
Correct Answer: Meeting user needs
Explanation:
High-quality software should satisfy user needs and perform its intended functions correctly.
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3ISO 9126 is a standard related to which area?
Software Quality: ISO9126
Easy
A.Software quality
B.Hardware manufacturing
C.Database pricing
D.Computer networking
Correct Answer: Software quality
Explanation:
ISO 9126 provides a model for evaluating important software quality characteristics.
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4Which of the following is a quality characteristic in the ISO 9126 model?
Software Quality: ISO9126
Easy
A.Accounting
B.Recruitment
C.Advertising
D.Functionality
Correct Answer: Functionality
Explanation:
Functionality is one of the main software quality characteristics identified by ISO 9126.
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5What is the main purpose of the ISO/IEC 25010 quality model?
ISO/IEC 25010 Quality Model
Easy
A.To evaluate software quality
B.To select programming languages
C.To design computer buildings
D.To calculate employee salaries
Correct Answer: To evaluate software quality
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 25010 defines a quality model used to evaluate software and system quality.
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6Which ISO/IEC 25010 characteristic describes how easily software can be changed?
ISO/IEC 25010 Quality Model
Easy
A.Compatibility
B.Maintainability
C.Portability
D.Usability
Correct Answer: Maintainability
Explanation:
Maintainability describes how easily software can be modified, corrected, or improved.
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7Which quality characteristic concerns how easily users can learn and operate software?
ISO/IEC 25010 Quality Model
Easy
A.Performance efficiency
B.Usability
C.Reliability
D.Security
Correct Answer: Usability
Explanation:
Usability concerns the ease with which users can learn, understand, and operate software.
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8Product quality focuses mainly on which of the following?
Product versus process quality
Easy
A.The quality of the final software
B.The structure of the office
C.The age of the project team
D.The number of project meetings
Correct Answer: The quality of the final software
Explanation:
Product quality evaluates the characteristics and performance of the completed software product.
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9Process quality is concerned with what?
Product versus process quality
Easy
A.How software is developed
B.The computer brand used
C.The software logo design
D.The customer billing address
Correct Answer: How software is developed
Explanation:
Process quality focuses on the methods, activities, and procedures used to develop software.
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10Which activity is an example of improving process quality?
Product versus process quality
Easy
A.Using a defined testing procedure
B.Buying larger office desks
C.Changing the application icon
D.Adding more product advertisements
Correct Answer: Using a defined testing procedure
Explanation:
A defined testing procedure improves the development process by making quality activities consistent.
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11Why are external standards used in software projects?
Management of external standards
Easy
A.To replace all project employees
B.To provide recognized guidelines
C.To increase software colors
D.To remove the need for testing
Correct Answer: To provide recognized guidelines
Explanation:
External standards provide accepted guidelines and practices for managing and evaluating software quality.
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12Who should ensure that relevant external standards are followed in a project?
Management of external standards
Easy
A.Only the equipment supplier
B.Only the software users
C.Only the office receptionist
D.The project management team
Correct Answer: The project management team
Explanation:
The project management team is responsible for identifying relevant standards and ensuring that the project follows them.
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13Which is a common problem in student software projects?
Problems with student projects
Easy
A.Unclear project requirements
B.Excessive product maturity
C.Unlimited project resources
D.Permanent customer availability
Correct Answer: Unclear project requirements
Explanation:
Student projects often face unclear requirements, which can cause confusion and changes during development.
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14Limited time in a student project can commonly lead to what problem?
Problems with student projects
Easy
A.Faster requirement approval
B.Unlimited documentation
C.Automatic quality improvement
D.Incomplete testing
Correct Answer: Incomplete testing
Explanation:
When time is limited, students may reduce testing activities, increasing the chance of undetected defects.
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15Which item is normally included in a software project plan?
Content of project plan
Easy
A.Employee birthday list
B.Office decoration plan
C.Personal shopping list
D.Project schedule
Correct Answer: Project schedule
Explanation:
A project plan commonly includes a schedule showing activities, time frames, and milestones.
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16What does a project plan usually identify about a project?
Content of project plan
Easy
A.Favorite food of the team
B.Tasks and responsibilities
C.Personal hobbies of users
D.Color of every computer
Correct Answer: Tasks and responsibilities
Explanation:
A project plan identifies important tasks and assigns responsibilities to project team members.
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17What is an important early step when incorporating a new company?
Steps to be taken to incorporate a new Company
Easy
A.Cancelling all business activities
B.Choosing and reserving a company name
C.Closing the company bank account
D.Publishing the final annual report
Correct Answer: Choosing and reserving a company name
Explanation:
Selecting and reserving a suitable company name is an important early step in company incorporation.
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18Which document is commonly required to verify the identity of a company director?
Documents Required
Easy
A.Travel brochure
B.Movie ticket
C.Restaurant menu
D.Identity proof
Correct Answer: Identity proof
Explanation:
Identity proof is commonly required to verify the identity of directors during company registration.
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19What is the purpose of registering for an MSME certificate?
Steps to register for MSME certificate
Easy
A.To recognize a micro, small, or medium enterprise
B.To obtain a personal driving license
C.To register a university course
D.To create a social media account
Correct Answer: To recognize a micro, small, or medium enterprise
Explanation:
An MSME certificate officially identifies a business as a micro, small, or medium enterprise.
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20Which information is generally needed during MSME registration?
Steps to register for MSME certificate
Easy
A.Business and owner details
B.Personal travel history
C.Favorite sports team
D.Home entertainment list
Correct Answer: Business and owner details
Explanation:
MSME registration generally requires details about the business and its owner or authorized applicant.
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21A payroll application produces correct salary calculations but is difficult to modify whenever tax rules change. Which conclusion best reflects the definition of software quality?
Defining Software Quality
Medium
A.The software has quality because users cannot see its internal design
B.The software lacks quality because maintainability is also important
C.The software lacks quality only if its execution speed is unacceptable
D.The software has quality because its current calculations are correct
Correct Answer: The software lacks quality because maintainability is also important
Explanation:
Software quality includes both satisfaction of current requirements and attributes such as maintainability that support continued use and change.
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22A development team claims that its product is high quality because it has no known defects. Users, however, cannot complete common tasks without extensive training. Which quality perspective has the team overlooked?
Defining Software Quality
Medium
A.Fitness for use by the intended users
B.Compliance with the selected version-control policy
C.Conformance to the programming language specification
D.Accuracy of the original project cost estimate
Correct Answer: Fitness for use by the intended users
Explanation:
Absence of known defects is not sufficient. Quality also depends on whether the software is usable and satisfies user needs in its intended context.
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23An application performs correctly on Windows, but significant redevelopment is required before it can run on Linux. Which ISO 9126 quality characteristic should receive the most attention?
Software Quality: ISO9126
Medium
A.Portability
B.Efficiency
C.Reliability
D.Usability
Correct Answer: Portability
Explanation:
Portability concerns the effort required to transfer software from one environment or platform to another.
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24A banking system gives correct results under normal conditions but frequently crashes after several hours of continuous operation. Which ISO 9126 characteristic is primarily affected?
Software Quality: ISO9126
Medium
A.Maintainability
B.Reliability
C.Portability
D.Functionality
Correct Answer: Reliability
Explanation:
Reliability measures the ability of software to maintain its specified level of performance over time and under stated conditions.
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25Two modules exchange data correctly, but the new module causes resource conflicts when deployed alongside another application. Which ISO/IEC 25010 characteristic is most relevant?
ISO/IEC 25010 Quality Model
Medium
A.Compatibility
B.Portability
C.Reliability
D.Maintainability
Correct Answer: Compatibility
Explanation:
Compatibility includes coexistence and interoperability. Resource conflicts with another application indicate a coexistence problem.
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26A healthcare system must prevent unauthorized users from viewing patient records and must record who changes each record. Which ISO/IEC 25010 characteristic should be prioritized?
ISO/IEC 25010 Quality Model
Medium
A.Functional suitability
B.Performance efficiency
C.Security
D.Portability
Correct Answer: Security
Explanation:
Confidentiality, access control, accountability, and protection against unauthorized modification are sub-concerns of security.
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27A team follows mandatory code reviews, testing procedures, and configuration-management practices, yet the released application still has poor response time. Which statement is most accurate?
Product versus process quality
Medium
A.Product quality can be assessed only through process documentation
B.High process quality automatically proves high product quality
C.Response time is a process attribute rather than a product attribute
D.The process may be controlled while the product remains deficient
Correct Answer: The process may be controlled while the product remains deficient
Explanation:
Good processes increase the likelihood of a good product, but they do not guarantee that every product quality requirement will be achieved.
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28Which pair of measurements correctly distinguishes product quality from process quality?
Product versus process quality
Medium
A.Training hours for product; code complexity for process
B.Defect density for product; review compliance rate for process
C.Review compliance rate for product; response time for process
D.Sprint duration for product; failure rate for process
Correct Answer: Defect density for product; review compliance rate for process
Explanation:
Defect density measures an attribute of the software product, while review compliance measures whether the development process is being followed.
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29A customer contract refers to an external security standard that is updated during development. What is the most appropriate management action?
Management of external standards
Medium
A.Assess applicability, contractual impact, and required changes
B.Adopt the new version immediately without impact analysis
C.Ignore all updates until the warranty period has ended
D.Replace the standard with the team's internal coding guide
Correct Answer: Assess applicability, contractual impact, and required changes
Explanation:
External standards should be monitored and changes should undergo applicability, risk, cost, and contractual impact analysis before adoption.
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30A student team postpones integration until the final week because each member is developing a separate module. Which action would best reduce the resulting project risk?
Problems with student projects
Medium
A.Integrate modules regularly through a shared repository
B.Increase the number of features assigned to each member
C.Allow each member to use an unrelated technology stack
D.Prepare the final presentation before testing the modules
Correct Answer: Integrate modules regularly through a shared repository
Explanation:
Frequent integration exposes interface and compatibility problems early, leaving time to correct them before final submission.
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31A student project has an impressive interface but no documented requirements, test evidence, or version history. Which underlying problem is most evident?
Problems with student projects
Medium
A.Unnecessary use of incremental software delivery
B.Insufficient emphasis on process and documentation
C.Overestimation of the available computing hardware
D.Excessive dependence on formal project controls
Correct Answer: Insufficient emphasis on process and documentation
Explanation:
Student projects often focus on the final demonstration while neglecting requirements, testing records, configuration management, and other process evidence.
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32A project manager wants the plan to specify who approves requirements, who performs testing, and who is informed of releases. Which section should contain this information?
Content of project plan
Medium
A.Technical architecture
B.Roles and responsibilities
C.Cost baseline
D.Product acceptance criteria
Correct Answer: Roles and responsibilities
Explanation:
The roles and responsibilities section defines accountability, authority, participation, and communication duties for project activities.
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33A project has uncertain access to a third-party payment service that could delay system testing. How should this issue be represented in the project plan?
Content of project plan
Medium
A.As a coding standard with a mandatory naming convention
B.As a risk with probability, impact, owner, and response
C.As a quality metric based only on source-code size
D.As a completed milestone with an assigned acceptance criterion
Correct Answer: As a risk with probability, impact, owner, and response
Explanation:
An uncertain event that may affect objectives should be recorded in the risk plan with assessment, ownership, and a planned response.
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34The proposed directors of an Indian company have obtained Digital Signature Certificates. What is the next appropriate incorporation activity through the MCA system?
Steps to be taken to incorporate a new Company
Medium
A.Issue share certificates before submitting incorporation forms
B.Begin commercial operations without legal registration
C.Reserve the proposed name through the SPICe+ process
D.Apply for an MSME certificate instead of incorporation
Correct Answer: Reserve the proposed name through the SPICe+ process
Explanation:
After arranging digital signatures, promoters generally proceed with name reservation and incorporation details through the MCA SPICe+ process.
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35After incorporation forms and required attachments have been submitted to the Registrar of Companies, which event establishes the company's legal existence?
Steps to be taken to incorporate a new Company
Medium
A.Completion of the first annual financial audit
B.Registration of every employee under payroll
C.Approval of the first internal project plan
D.Issuance of the Certificate of Incorporation
Correct Answer: Issuance of the Certificate of Incorporation
Explanation:
The Certificate of Incorporation issued by the Registrar confirms that the company has been legally incorporated.
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36Promoters plan to use rented premises as the registered office of a new company. Which document set most directly supports the registered-office declaration?
Documents Required
Medium
A.Sales forecast, marketing brochure, and customer survey
B.Recent utility bill, rent agreement, and owner consent
C.Source-code archive, test plan, and user documentation
D.Employee resumes, salary records, and attendance register
Correct Answer: Recent utility bill, rent agreement, and owner consent
Explanation:
For rented premises, address evidence commonly includes a recent utility bill, the rental agreement, and a no-objection or consent document from the owner.
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37A newly incorporated Indian software company wants official MSME recognition. Which procedure is appropriate?
Steps to register for MSME certificate
Medium
A.Submit a self-declaration on the Udyam portal using required identity details
B.Wait until the company completes five years of commercial operation
C.Purchase an MSME licence from an authorized private software vendor
D.Apply to the Registrar of Companies for a second incorporation certificate
Correct Answer: Submit a self-declaration on the Udyam portal using required identity details
Explanation:
MSME recognition is obtained through Udyam Registration using Aadhaar and relevant PAN or GST details, as applicable, through an online self-declaration process.
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38A team wants to prove that the test report approved for a release has not been modified. Which blockchain-based approach is most suitable?
Blockchain for Software Quality Management: Ensuring Traceability and Transparency in Software Development
Medium
A.Keep the report only on one developer's local computer
B.Delete earlier report versions after receiving final approval
C.Store a cryptographic hash of the report with approval metadata
D.Store every test video directly in each blockchain transaction
Correct Answer: Store a cryptographic hash of the report with approval metadata
Explanation:
A blockchain-recorded hash provides tamper evidence, while approval metadata supports traceability without placing the entire report on-chain.
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39A blockchain ledger records that a developer submitted a quality approval, but the approval was based on incorrect test data. What limitation does this demonstrate?
Blockchain for Software Quality Management: Ensuring Traceability and Transparency in Software Development
Medium
A.Blockchain cannot guarantee that entered data is truthful
C.Blockchain cannot verify whether a stored hash has changed
D.Blockchain cannot retain a chronological transaction history
Correct Answer: Blockchain cannot guarantee that entered data is truthful
Explanation:
Blockchain protects recorded information from undetected alteration, but it does not ensure that the original input was accurate or honest.
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40A company wants releases to proceed only when required reviews, security scans, and test approvals have been recorded. How can blockchain support this policy?
Blockchain for Software Quality Management: Ensuring Traceability and Transparency in Software Development
Medium
A.A block timestamp can generate missing test evidence
B.A smart contract can enforce the defined release conditions
C.A public key can automatically remove every software defect
D.A mining node can replace all human quality decisions
Correct Answer: A smart contract can enforce the defined release conditions
Explanation:
A smart contract can check whether required approvals and evidence are recorded before allowing a release workflow to continue.
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41A payroll system exactly matches its approved specification, but the specification omitted a legally required tax rule. Which assessment best characterizes the system's quality?
Defining Software Quality
Hard
A.It has high quality because conformance to an approved specification is sufficient.
B.It lacks quality because fitness for stakeholder needs includes applicable legal requirements.
C.It has high product quality but low process quality because testing found no coding defects.
D.It lacks quality only if users report dissatisfaction after release, since unstated requirements cannot be considered during quality assessment.
Correct Answer: It lacks quality because fitness for stakeholder needs includes applicable legal requirements.
Explanation:
Software quality includes fitness for stated and implied needs. Conformance to an incomplete specification does not satisfy a mandatory legal requirement.
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42A team computes a weighted quality score , where security receives the smallest weight. A release scores highly overall but has a known authentication bypass. What is the strongest criticism of this decision model?
Defining Software Quality
Hard
A.Compensatory scoring can hide failure of a non-negotiable security constraint.
B.Weighted quality models cannot contain more than three characteristics.
C.Functional suitability must always receive the smallest numerical weight.
D.The arithmetic mean should replace the weighted model because it gives every characteristic exactly the same business importance regardless of context.
Correct Answer: Compensatory scoring can hide failure of a non-negotiable security constraint.
Explanation:
A high score in one characteristic should not compensate for violation of a mandatory security threshold. Critical qualities should be modeled as constraints or release gates.
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43Under ISO 9126, a database service crashes after a hardware fault but restores its data and resumes operation from a checkpoint within the required time. Which reliability subcharacteristic is most directly demonstrated?
Software Quality: ISO9126
Hard
A.Compliance, because the restoration procedure follows an externally documented recovery standard covering the complete operating environment.
B.Recoverability, because operation and affected data were restored after failure.
C.Maturity, because the number of latent software faults is reduced.
D.Fault tolerance, because service continued without interruption during the fault.
Correct Answer: Recoverability, because operation and affected data were restored after failure.
Explanation:
ISO 9126 recoverability concerns re-establishing performance and recovering affected data after failure. Fault tolerance instead concerns maintaining performance despite faults.
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44A vendor claims that its new component can replace a legacy component in the same environment without changing dependent applications. Which ISO 9126 portability subcharacteristic should be tested most directly?
Software Quality: ISO9126
Hard
A.Replaceability, by verifying substitution for the legacy component.
B.Adaptability, by measuring adjustment across different operating environments.
C.Installability, by measuring the effort needed to deploy the new component.
D.Co-existence, by running both components concurrently under every expected workload and measuring their combined resource consumption.
Correct Answer: Replaceability, by verifying substitution for the legacy component.
Explanation:
Replaceability measures whether one software product can substitute for another for the same purpose in the same environment.
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45A digitally signed approval record allows an independent auditor to prove that a particular manager approved a release, even though the manager later denies doing so. Which ISO/IEC 25010 security subcharacteristic is primarily involved?
ISO/IEC 25010 Quality Model
Hard
A.Integrity, because the system prevents every unauthorized modification, deletion, disclosure, replay, and substitution of the approval record.
B.Accountability, because actions can be uniquely traced to an entity.
C.Authenticity, because the identity of an entity is established.
D.Non-repudiation, because the recorded action cannot credibly be denied.
Correct Answer: Non-repudiation, because the recorded action cannot credibly be denied.
Explanation:
Non-repudiation provides evidence that an action occurred so that its originator cannot later deny it. Authenticity and accountability support this evidence but are not the primary property described.
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46Two applications share a constrained server without degrading each other's response times, but they cannot exchange customer records. Which conclusion follows under ISO/IEC 25010?
ISO/IEC 25010 Quality Model
Hard
A.Portability is demonstrated because both applications execute on the same server without requiring any modification to their binaries or configuration.
B.Co-existence is demonstrated, while interoperability is not demonstrated.
C.Compatibility is fully demonstrated because both applications remain operational.
D.Interoperability is demonstrated, while co-existence is not demonstrated.
Correct Answer: Co-existence is demonstrated, while interoperability is not demonstrated.
Explanation:
Co-existence concerns efficient resource sharing without harmful impact. Interoperability requires systems to exchange information and use the information exchanged.
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47An organization migrates its quality framework from ISO 9126 to ISO/IEC 25010. Which mapping decision is most defensible?
ISO/IEC 25010 Quality Model
Hard
A.Treat security and compatibility as top-level product quality characteristics.
B.Remove quality-in-use evaluation because ISO/IEC 25010 evaluates only internal source-code attributes and excludes outcomes experienced by real users.
C.Merge maintainability and portability into a single compatibility characteristic.
D.Retain security only as a subcharacteristic of functionality.
Correct Answer: Treat security and compatibility as top-level product quality characteristics.
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 25010 defines eight product quality characteristics, with security and compatibility promoted to top-level characteristics compared with ISO 9126.
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48A supplier follows a certified development process and produces complete review records, yet production testing reveals frequent data corruption. What is the correct management conclusion?
Product versus process quality
Hard
A.The product evidence overrides the assumption that process quality guarantees product quality.
B.The corruption is a usability issue and therefore outside process assessment.
C.Process certification proves the product is acceptable despite the failures.
D.The process should remain the sole acceptance basis because direct product testing is inherently subjective and cannot support a contractual rejection.
Correct Answer: The product evidence overrides the assumption that process quality guarantees product quality.
Explanation:
A capable process can increase confidence but cannot guarantee a conforming product. Direct evidence of product failure must be addressed independently.
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49After introducing mandatory peer reviews, a team observes that escaped defects fell by 30%. Which evidence would best support the claim that the process change caused the improvement?
Product versus process quality
Hard
A.A statement from the review coordinator that developers preferred the revised process.
B.A single release with fewer defects than the immediately preceding release.
C.A comparison controlling for product size, complexity, team experience, and test effort.
D.A comparison of total defects without normalizing for scope, even though the later release was substantially smaller and reused most of its implementation.
Correct Answer: A comparison controlling for product size, complexity, team experience, and test effort.
Explanation:
Causal assessment requires controlling plausible confounders. A raw before-and-after comparison cannot isolate the effect of peer reviews.
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50A referenced external security standard is revised halfway through a fixed-price project. The contract does not state whether later revisions apply. What should the project manager do first?
Management of external standards
Hard
A.Adopt the revision immediately because newer standards automatically supersede contracts.
B.Ask developers to implement every revised control before informing the customer, thereby preserving compliance even if the new controls alter scope, cost, architecture, and delivery dates.
C.Determine the applicable version and assess the revision through formal change control.
D.Ignore the revision because standards can never change after project initiation.
Correct Answer: Determine the applicable version and assess the revision through formal change control.
Explanation:
The manager should establish the binding version, analyze compliance and project impact, and process any change through contractual and configuration controls.
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51A project is subject to a contract, an industry standard, and an internal coding standard that prescribe conflicting retention practices. Which mechanism provides the strongest basis for controlled resolution?
Management of external standards
Hard
A.An informal preference for the newest document regardless of legal authority.
B.A checklist that lists all clauses but deliberately omits ownership, precedence, evidence, exceptions, and links to project requirements to keep maintenance effort low.
D.A developer vote selecting whichever requirement is easiest to implement.
Correct Answer: A compliance matrix recording sources, applicability, conflicts, owners, and approved resolutions.
Explanation:
A compliance matrix makes obligations traceable and exposes conflicts for authorized resolution according to legal, contractual, and organizational precedence.
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52A student team selects an unfamiliar framework, depends on a free external API, and schedules all integration work for the final week. Which planning response best addresses the combined risk?
Problems with student projects
Hard
A.Freeze requirements immediately and assume the external API will remain stable.
B.Build an early integration spike, validate API limits, and define a fallback.
C.Increase the final presentation time so implementation problems can be explained.
D.Assign all framework and API work to the strongest student while the remaining members postpone testing and documentation until integration is complete.
Correct Answer: Build an early integration spike, validate API limits, and define a fallback.
Explanation:
An early spike reduces technical uncertainty, while validating external constraints and preparing a fallback addresses dependency risk before the final integration period.
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53A six-person student project estimates capacity as person-weeks because the semester has ten weeks. Why is this estimate especially unreliable?
Problems with student projects
Hard
A.It assumes that every task can be divided equally among all students and that adding people always reduces elapsed time in direct proportion, even for sequential or tightly coupled work.
B.Person-weeks can be used only for projects longer than one year.
C.It should multiply the result by six again to represent parallel development.
D.It assumes full availability and ignores coordination, learning, and academic workload.
Correct Answer: It assumes full availability and ignores coordination, learning, and academic workload.
Explanation:
Nominal calendar capacity overstates effective effort when students have other commitments, need to learn technologies, and incur communication and coordination overhead.
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54A project plan contains a work breakdown structure and delivery dates but no mapping from activities to people, dependencies, or risks. Which defect is most serious?
Content of project plan
Hard
A.The plan cannot replace the organization's quality management system.
B.The plan cannot demonstrate that the schedule is feasible under resource and dependency constraints.
C.The plan cannot calculate source-code complexity before implementation begins.
D.The plan cannot guarantee that every planned activity will finish exactly on its baseline date regardless of staff absence, supplier delay, requirement change, or technical uncertainty.
Correct Answer: The plan cannot demonstrate that the schedule is feasible under resource and dependency constraints.
Explanation:
Dates alone are not a defensible schedule. Activities must be related to dependencies, resources, assumptions, and risks to establish feasibility.
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55A project repeatedly disputes whether completed features are acceptable. Which addition to the project plan would most directly prevent this problem?
Content of project plan
Hard
A.A detailed organization chart containing every reporting relationship in the company, including departments that neither contribute to nor approve the project.
B.A larger contingency reserve with no defined release conditions.
C.Measurable acceptance criteria, verification methods, and approval responsibilities.
D.A list of programming languages preferred by individual developers.
Correct Answer: Measurable acceptance criteria, verification methods, and approval responsibilities.
Explanation:
Acceptance criteria define what completion means, verification methods specify how it is shown, and approval responsibilities identify who can accept the result.
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56For an Indian company using the integrated MCA incorporation process and reserving its name separately, which sequence is most appropriate?
Steps to be taken to incorporate a new Company
Hard
A.Register under Udyam, obtain the certificate of incorporation, reserve the company name, then appoint the first directors.
B.Apply for GST registration, commence trading under the proposed name, collect customer payments for several months, and file SPICe+ only after commercial viability is established.
C.Open the company's operational bank account, issue shares, reserve the name, then submit incorporation documents to the Registrar of Companies.
D.Obtain digital signatures, submit SPICe+ Part A, file Part B with linked forms, then receive the certificate of incorporation.
Correct Answer: Obtain digital signatures, submit SPICe+ Part A, file Part B with linked forms, then receive the certificate of incorporation.
Explanation:
Digital signatures are needed for electronic filing. Name reservation can be completed through Part A, followed by Part B and linked forms; incorporation occurs when the Registrar issues the certificate.
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57The proposed registered office of a new Indian company is owned by a director's relative, and the utility bill is in that relative's name. Which document set most directly supports the registered-office filing?
Documents Required
Hard
A.A recent utility bill, proof of occupancy, and the owner's no-objection certificate.
B.A self-declaration from every subscriber stating that the premises will eventually be purchased by the company after incorporation, without evidence from the current owner.
C.Only the director's identity proof because related-party ownership is presumed valid.
D.Only the proposed memorandum because it establishes ownership of the office.
Correct Answer: A recent utility bill, proof of occupancy, and the owner's no-objection certificate.
Explanation:
The filing must establish the office address and the company's authority to use premises it does not own. A recent utility bill, occupancy evidence, and owner consent address those requirements.
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58An Indian enterprise performs both software development and IT consulting through the same legal entity. Which approach is appropriate when applying for Udyam registration?
Steps to register for MSME certificate
Hard
A.File a separate Udyam registration for every service activity and customer category.
B.Upload audited financial statements before Aadhaar validation can begin.
C.Pay an authorized private intermediary because an application submitted directly through the official portal cannot generate a legally recognized registration certificate.
D.File one Udyam registration and include all applicable activities under that enterprise.
Correct Answer: File one Udyam registration and include all applicable activities under that enterprise.
Explanation:
One enterprise should have one Udyam registration, under which multiple manufacturing or service activities may be included. Registration uses the official portal and is based on self-declared, validated information.
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59A company wants auditors to verify that a deployed binary came from an approved source commit and passed required tests, while keeping source code and test data confidential. Which blockchain design best meets both goals?
Blockchain for Software Quality Management: Ensuring Traceability and Transparency in Software Development
Hard
A.Let each developer overwrite the blockchain record after deployment so that obsolete commits, failed tests, rejected approvals, and superseded binaries no longer appear in the audit history.
B.Store signed hashes and provenance events on-chain while retaining protected artifacts off-chain.
C.Record only the release version number on-chain without artifact hashes or signer identities.
D.Store the complete repository and all raw test data on a public permissionless chain.
Correct Answer: Store signed hashes and provenance events on-chain while retaining protected artifacts off-chain.
Explanation:
Signed hashes and provenance events provide tamper-evident traceability without publicly exposing confidential artifacts. Auditors can hash authorized off-chain artifacts and compare the results with on-chain records.
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60A tester accidentally submits an incorrect defect severity to an append-only quality ledger. Which correction method best preserves auditability?
Blockchain for Software Quality Management: Ensuring Traceability and Transparency in Software Development
Hard
A.Delete the original block and recompute every later block without recording the change.
B.Create an unrelated replacement defect with no link to the incorrect record, then instruct auditors to ignore the original whenever they encounter it.
C.Append a signed correction that references the original record and retains both entries.
D.Modify the original transaction in place after obtaining the tester's verbal approval.
Correct Answer: Append a signed correction that references the original record and retains both entries.
Explanation:
An append-only correction preserves the original event, records who corrected it, and maintains a traceable relationship between the erroneous and corrected values.
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