Unit 4: Activity Planning and Risk Management - Practice Quiz

INT411 — Software Project Management 60 Questions
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1 What is the main purpose of defining project objectives?

Objectives Easy
A. To replace the project schedule
B. To eliminate all project constraints
C. To assign salaries to team members
D. To state the desired project outcomes

2 What does a project schedule primarily show?

Project Schedule Easy
A. The personal preferences of stakeholders
B. The timing and sequence of activities
C. The programming languages used
D. The legal structure of the organization

3 Which activity is part of managing a project task?

Managing the task Easy
A. Changing objectives every day
B. Removing all task deadlines
C. Tracking progress against estimates
D. Ignoring incomplete work

4 Why should a project manager regularly review the project plan?

Managing the Plan Easy
A. To keep the plan aligned with progress
B. To avoid communicating with the team
C. To make every activity independent
D. To guarantee that no risk will occur

5 In a network planning model, what do links between activities usually represent?

Network Planning Model Easy
A. Task dependencies
B. Customer payments
C. Employee salaries
D. Software licenses

6 What does the time dimension add to an activity plan?

Time Dimension Easy
A. Detailed instructions for replacing every original project objective
B. Durations and timing information
C. A list of programming errors
D. A record of staff qualifications

7 What is the critical path in a project network?

Identifying Critical Path Easy
A. The longest-duration dependent path
B. The path chosen by the customer
C. The path with the fewest activities
D. The path with the lowest cost

8 What should normally happen before a proposed project change is approved?

Managing Change Easy
A. All milestones should be deleted
B. Its cost should always be ignored
C. The project team should be replaced
D. Its impact should be assessed

9 When is it appropriate to readjust project milestones?

Readjusting Goals and Milestones Easy
A. When the manager wants to remove all progress measures from the project
B. Whenever documentation becomes inconvenient
C. Whenever a team member arrives late
D. When approved changes affect the timeline

10 What is a project risk?

Introduction to Risk Easy
A. A completed project activity
B. A routine meeting with stakeholders
C. An uncertain event affecting objectives
D. A guaranteed financial loss

11 Which of the following is an example of a technical risk?

Categories of Risk Easy
A. A developer taking annual leave
B. A new technology failing to perform
C. A detailed company policy covering recruitment, promotion, and retirement
D. A customer delaying an invoice payment

12 Which risk response aims to reduce the probability or impact of a threat?

Dealing with Risk Easy
A. Transfer
B. Exploitation
C. Mitigation
D. Acceptance

13 What is the main output of risk identification?

Risk Identification Easy
A. A guarantee that the project will finish without uncertainty
B. A fixed organizational budget
C. A list of identified risks
D. A completed software product

14 Which two factors are commonly considered when assessing a risk?

Risk Assessment Easy
A. Office size and location
B. Color and shape
C. Salary and job title
D. Probability and impact

15 What is a contingency plan?

Risk Planning Easy
A. A plan used if a risk occurs
B. A plan for removing every deadline
C. A plan that permanently prevents any project condition from changing
D. A plan for avoiding all documentation

16 Why are risks monitored throughout a project?

Risk Management Easy
A. To detect changes in risk status
B. To ensure that every task receives exactly the same amount of time
C. To keep the project scope secret
D. To prevent stakeholders from reporting issues

17 Which event is most likely to create schedule risk?

Evaluating Risk to the Schedule Easy
A. A completed task costing less than expected
B. A non-project department changing the color of its internal forms
C. A critical activity taking longer than planned
D. A meeting ending at its planned time

18 In PERT, which three estimates are used to calculate expected activity time?

Applying the PERT Technique Easy
A. Planned, approved, and completed
B. Optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic
C. Low, medium, and high cost
D. Early, normal, and late

19 What does Risk Adjusted Portfolio Performance (RAPP) consider when evaluating a portfolio?

Risk Adjusted Portfolio Performance (RAPP) Easy
A. Only the number of projects
B. Every project manager's preferred reporting format and meeting schedule
C. Return in relation to risk
D. Return without considering risk

20 What is a basic purpose of diversification in a project portfolio?

Portfolio Optimisation and Diversification 2.0 Easy
A. To spread exposure across different projects
B. To remove the need for project selection
C. To place all resources in one project
D. To make all projects use identical technology

21 A software project has the objective "Improve system performance." Which revised objective is most suitable for activity planning?

Objectives Medium
A. Make the API significantly faster before the next major release
B. Reduce average API response time from 800 ms to 400 ms by release date
C. Improve API performance whenever development resources are available
D. Replace the current API with a more modern implementation

22 A project schedule shows that testing must begin on 10 June, but coding is now expected to finish on 14 June. What should the project manager do first?

Project Schedule Medium
A. Ask testers to begin all testing before the code is available
B. Update the schedule dependencies and assess the effect on later activities
C. Keep the original schedule unchanged until the next status meeting
D. Extend every remaining activity by the same number of days

23 A developer reports that a five-day task is 80% complete after four days, but the remaining work depends on an unresolved technical issue. What is the best management response?

Managing the task Medium
A. Mark the task complete because most planned effort has been consumed
B. Review the blocker, estimate the remaining effort, and assign corrective action
C. Transfer the entire task immediately to another available developer
D. Record the task as 80% complete and assume it will finish on time

24 During execution, actual effort is consistently 15% higher than planned effort. Which action best supports effective management of the plan?

Managing the Plan Medium
A. Replace the baseline with actual values after every reporting period
B. Ignore the variance until the final project phase begins
C. Reduce reported effort so that it matches the original estimates
D. Compare actuals with the baseline and reforecast remaining work

25 In a project network, tasks B and C can start only after task A finishes. Task D can start only after both B and C finish. Which dependency structure represents this situation?

Network Planning Model Medium
A. A and D run together before B and C can start
B. A leads to B, B leads to C, and C leads to D
C. A splits into B and C, which merge before D
D. B and C split into A, which then leads to D

26 A task has an earliest start of day 6 and an earliest finish of day 10. If project days are counted using finish minus start duration, what is the task duration?

Time Dimension Medium
A. 6 days
B. 4 days
C. 5 days
D. 16 days

27 A network has three paths with durations of 18, 23, and 20 days. Assuming no scheduling constraints other than the network dependencies, which statement is correct?

Identifying Critical Path Medium
A. The 18-day path is critical because it has the least work
B. The 23-day path is critical because it determines project duration
C. All paths are critical because they belong to the same project
D. The 20-day path is critical because it is closest to the average

28 A customer requests an additional reporting feature halfway through development. What should happen before the feature is added to the project baseline?

Managing Change Medium
A. The development team should implement it during available spare time
B. Its impact should be analysed and approval obtained through change control
C. The project manager should add it without changing cost or schedule
D. The customer should exchange it informally for an unfinished test activity

29 A mandatory regulatory update makes the original release date impossible, even after reasonable schedule compression. What is the most appropriate response?

Readjusting Goals and Milestones Medium
A. Ask the team to work indefinitely without changing project assumptions
B. Retain the milestone and remove regulatory work from progress reports
C. Declare the original goal achieved when development reaches code complete
D. Renegotiate the release milestone using documented impact information

30 Which situation is a project risk rather than an issue?

Introduction to Risk Medium
A. The database licence was not delivered on its agreed date
B. A key supplier may deliver the database licence two weeks late
C. The approved budget has already been exceeded by ten percent
D. The test server failed yesterday and remains unavailable

31 A project depends on a new framework that the development team has never used. How should this risk primarily be categorized?

Categories of Risk Medium
A. Commercial risk
B. Political risk
C. Environmental risk
D. Technical risk

32 A project avoids possible incompatibility by replacing an experimental component with a proven supported component. Which risk response is being used?

Dealing with Risk Medium
A. Acceptance
B. Transfer
C. Escalation
D. Avoidance

33 A project manager wants to identify risks involving interfaces between development, security, operations, and an external supplier. Which technique is most appropriate?

Risk Identification Medium
A. Budget comparison using figures from the previous accounting period
B. Private review performed only by the project manager
C. Schedule compression performed before consulting the delivery teams
D. Facilitated workshop with representatives from all involved groups

34 Risk A has a 30% probability of causing a $40,000 loss. Risk B has a 60% probability of causing a $15,000 loss. Based only on expected monetary value, which risk has greater exposure?

Risk Assessment Medium
A. Risk A, with an exposure of $9,000
B. Risk A, with an exposure of $12,000
C. Risk B, with an exposure of $12,000
D. Risk B, with an exposure of $24,000

35 A risk plan states that a backup supplier will be contracted if the primary supplier misses the prototype delivery date. What does the missed delivery date represent?

Risk Planning Medium
A. A benefit produced by risk acceptance
B. A trigger for the contingency response
C. A probability score for the threat
D. A residual risk after project closure

36 A high-priority risk was mitigated, but a smaller chance of failure remains. How should the project manager handle the remaining exposure?

Risk Management Medium
A. Move it into the schedule without assigning an owner
B. Delete it because the original response has been completed
C. Treat it as an issue regardless of whether it occurs
D. Record it as residual risk and continue monitoring it

37 A non-critical task has 3 days of total float and may be delayed by 5 days. If no corrective action is taken, what is the likely schedule effect?

Evaluating Risk to the Schedule Medium
A. The project completion may slip by 2 days
B. The task can slip by 5 days without any effect
C. The project completion must slip by 3 days
D. The critical path becomes 5 days shorter

38 A task has an optimistic estimate of 4 days, a most likely estimate of 7 days, and a pessimistic estimate of 16 days. Using PERT, what is its expected duration?

Applying the PERT Technique Medium
A. 8 days
B. 7 days
C. 9 days
D. 10 days

39 Project X and Project Y both have an expected return of 12%, but X has substantially lower uncertainty and downside exposure. Under a risk-adjusted portfolio performance approach, which decision is most reasonable?

Risk Adjusted Portfolio Performance (RAPP) Medium
A. Prefer Project Y because higher risk always produces greater value
B. Prefer Project X because it offers the same return with lower risk
C. Treat both projects as identical because their expected returns match
D. Reject both projects because risk-adjusted analysis ignores expected return

40 A software portfolio contains five projects that all depend on the same external cloud platform. Which change would most improve diversification?

Portfolio Optimisation and Diversification 2.0 Medium
A. Increase funding equally across all five existing projects
B. Schedule all five projects to release during the same month
C. Add another project using the same platform and delivery team
D. Add a valuable project with low dependence on that cloud platform

41 A project has three stated objectives: deliver by 30 June, keep expenditure below $800,000, and reduce production defects by 40%. Midway through execution, forecasts show that at most two objectives can be fully achieved. Which action best preserves rational project control?

Objectives Hard
A. Treat the budget as fixed because financial objectives always outrank quality
B. Continue pursuing all objectives and defer trade-offs until final acceptance
C. Replace the objectives with activity-level targets owned by the project team
D. Ask the sponsor to rank the objectives and approve measurable tolerance limits

42 A schedule contains activities A (4 days) and B (6 days), both starting immediately; C (3 days) follows A; D (5 days) follows A; E (4 days) follows both B and C; and F (2 days) follows both D and E. What are the project duration and critical path?

Project Schedule Hard
A. 15 days; A-C-D-F
B. 12 days; B-E-F
C. 11 days; A-D-F
D. 13 days; A-C-E-F

43 At a status date, a task package has planned value , earned value , and actual cost , all in thousands. Which diagnosis is correct?

Managing the task Hard
A. It is ahead of schedule and over budget, with and
B. It is behind schedule and over budget, with and
C. It is behind schedule and under budget, with and
D. It is on schedule and over budget, with and

44 A six-month project is replanned monthly. In month three, several future work packages are decomposed in greater detail, but the approved scope and completion date remain unchanged. How should the plan be managed?

Managing the Plan Hard
A. Detail the near-term work through rolling-wave planning without resetting the baseline
B. Freeze all future work packages because decomposition invalidates performance measures
C. Record the decomposition as schedule variance against the original summary activities
D. Replace the baseline because every increase in planning detail constitutes a change

45 Testing may start two days after coding starts, but deployment may start only after both coding and testing finish. Which precedence model represents these constraints most accurately?

Network Planning Model Hard
A. Coding-to-testing Start-to-Start with a 2-day lag; both activities Finish-to-Start into deployment
B. Coding-to-testing Finish-to-Finish with a 2-day lead; both activities Start-to-Start into deployment
C. Coding-to-testing Finish-to-Start with a 2-day lag; testing Start-to-Start into deployment
D. Coding-to-testing Start-to-Finish with a 2-day lag; coding Finish-to-Finish into deployment

46 A critical activity has normal duration 10 days at $20,000 and crash duration 6 days at $32,000. Another critical activity has normal duration 8 days at $18,000 and crash duration 6 days at $26,000. Assuming linear crash costs and unchanged criticality, what is the minimum direct cost of shortening the project by 5 days?

Time Dimension Hard
A. $38,000
B. $35,000
C. $36,000
D. $37,000

47 Two paths in a network have deterministic durations of 24 and 22 days. An activity on the 22-day path is delayed by 3 days, while an activity on the 24-day path is shortened by 1 day. Assuming no other interactions, what is the new critical-path situation?

Identifying Critical Path Hard
A. The former 22-day path becomes critical at 25 days
B. The former 24-day path remains critical at 23 days
C. Both paths become critical at 24 days
D. Neither path is critical because their floats changed

48 A customer requests a feature that would add business value but consume all schedule reserve. The team can technically implement it without exceeding the current target date. What should the project manager do first?

Managing Change Hard
A. Implement the feature because the published completion date remains achievable
B. Ask the team to absorb the work without changing scope documentation
C. Reject the feature because schedule reserve cannot be used for requested changes
D. Submit the request for integrated impact analysis and formal change approval

49 A mandatory regulation advances the compliance deadline by four weeks. Delivering every planned feature by that date is infeasible, but a compliant core product is feasible. Which adjustment is most defensible?

Readjusting Goals and Milestones Hard
A. Move the compliance milestone while keeping the original goals unchanged for reporting consistency
B. Make compliance the fixed milestone and defer lower-value features through approved reprioritization
C. Retain the original feature scope and classify the regulatory date as an optional milestone
D. Compress every activity equally so that no stakeholder's feature appears deprioritized

50 A supplier has already missed a contractual delivery date, and the resulting integration delay may cause a release-date breach. How should these conditions be classified?

Introduction to Risk Hard
A. Both conditions are risks because neither has been fully resolved
B. The missed delivery is a risk; the possible release breach is an issue
C. Both conditions are issues because they involve the same causal chain
D. The missed delivery is an issue; the possible release breach is a risk

51 A project uses a mature framework, but a proposed data-protection law may require redesign, and the only privacy architect may resign. Which classification best distinguishes these two risks?

Categories of Risk Hard
A. Internal technical risk and external market risk
B. External supplier risk and internal quality risk
C. Internal governance risk and external financial risk
D. External regulatory risk and internal resource risk

52 A project depends on an unstable third-party API. The team purchases a guaranteed service tier and also builds a local queue that allows 24 hours of disconnected operation. Which response strategies are being combined?

Dealing with Risk Hard
A. Accept and escalate
B. Transfer and mitigate
C. Exploit and transfer
D. Avoid and accept

53 Which risk-register statement most clearly follows the cause-event-effect structure needed for actionable identification?

Risk Identification Hard
A. A four-week delay caused by technical problems might affect project completion
B. The legacy API requires mitigation, contingency reserve, and senior management attention
C. Because the legacy API is undocumented, integration may fail, causing a four-week delay
D. Integration is high risk and should be monitored closely throughout development

54 Risk A has a 20% probability of a $100,000 loss. Risk B has a 50% probability of a $30,000 loss. They are mutually exclusive: if A occurs, B cannot occur. What is their combined expected monetary loss?

Risk Assessment Hard
A. $20,000
B. $26,000
C. $35,000
D. $32,000

55 A database migration risk has a named owner and a mitigation action. If rehearsal throughput falls below 8,000 records per minute, the project will switch to a staged migration using reserved infrastructure. What does the throughput threshold represent?

Risk Planning Hard
A. A tolerance that automatically changes the project baseline
B. A residual risk created by the mitigation response
C. A trigger for executing the contingency response
D. A workaround developed after the risk has materialized

56 Encryption is introduced to mitigate data-exposure risk, but it creates a new possibility that transaction latency will exceed the service target. How should the latency risk be managed?

Risk Management Hard
A. Record it as residual exposure under the original data-exposure risk only
B. Exclude it because risks created by approved controls are accepted automatically
C. Convert it directly into an issue because the encryption decision has been made
D. Record it as a secondary risk and assign assessment and response actions

57 A Monte Carlo schedule analysis produces completion dates with August, September, and September. A contractual date of 2 September is proposed. Which interpretation is valid?

Evaluating Risk to the Schedule Hard
A. The project will finish between 18 August and 2 September with certainty
B. The expected completion date must be exactly halfway between the percentiles
C. The model estimates a 20% chance of completing by 2 September
D. The model estimates an 80% chance of completing by 2 September

58 A critical activity has optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates of 4, 7, and 16 days. Using PERT, what are its expected duration and variance?

Applying the PERT Technique Hard
A. 9 days and 2 days squared
B. 8 days and 2 days squared
C. 9 days and 4 days squared
D. 8 days and 4 days squared

59 A project portfolio is evaluated using , where is expected benefit, is cost, is expected loss, and is capital at risk. Portfolio X has million, while Y has million. Which portfolio has the better RAPP?

Risk Adjusted Portfolio Performance (RAPP) Hard
A. Portfolio X, because its RAPP is versus
B. Portfolio Y, because its RAPP is versus
C. Portfolio X, because its RAPP is versus
D. Portfolio Y, because its RAPP is versus

60 Two equally funded projects each have return variance . With equal portfolio weights, which choice produces the lowest portfolio variance?

Portfolio Optimisation and Diversification 2.0 Hard
A. Choose projects with covariance , giving variance
B. Choose projects with covariance , giving variance
C. Choose projects with covariance , giving variance
D. Choose projects with covariance , giving variance