Unit 2: Cost Estimation and Life Cycle Models - Practice Quiz

INT411 — Software Project Management 60 Questions
0 Correct 0 Wrong 60 Left
0/60

1 What is software project management?

Meaning Easy
A. Planning and controlling software projects
B. Designing only user interfaces
C. Writing only the source code
D. Purchasing computer hardware

2 What is the main purpose of resource allocation in a software project?

Managing allocation of resources Easy
A. To assign resources to project tasks
B. To eliminate project documentation
C. To remove all project risks
D. To avoid monitoring project work

3 Which of the following is a human resource in a software project?

Managing allocation of resources Easy
A. A testing server
B. A project budget
C. A software developer
D. A delivery schedule

4 In project management, what does creating a programme usually involve?

Creating programme Easy
A. Replacing every project manager
B. Writing a single code module
C. Removing all project schedules
D. Grouping related projects together

5 What is an individual project?

Individual projects Easy
A. A permanent business department
B. A temporary effort with defined objectives
C. A routine activity without an end
D. A collection of unrelated companies

6 What is the primary focus of program management?

Program management Easy
A. Purchasing office equipment
B. Coordinating several related projects
C. Maintaining one software function
D. Managing one employee's daily work

7 Which two factors are commonly considered when evaluating a project risk?

Risk evaluation Easy
A. Salary and job title
B. Version and file size
C. Color and shape
D. Probability and impact

8 What does cost benefit analysis compare?

Cost benefit analysis Easy
A. Project costs with expected benefits
B. Meeting times with room numbers
C. Source files with test files
D. Employee names with job titles

9 A project costs $40,000 and is expected to provide benefits worth $55,000. What is its net benefit?

Cost benefit analysis Easy
A. $95,000
B. $10,000
C. $40,000
D. $15,000

10 Which factor is commonly examined when evaluating an individual project?

Evaluation of individual projects Easy
A. Expected value to the organization
B. Location of staff parking
C. Number of office windows
D. Color of employee uniforms

11 What is the purpose of Multi-Criteria Decision Analysis (MCDA)?

Multi-Criteria Decision Analysis (MCDA) Easy
A. To select choices by cost alone
B. To automate software deployment
C. To compare choices using several criteria
D. To remove all project constraints

12 What does AI-based predictive cost estimation commonly use?

AI-Enhanced Cost Estimation: Predictive cost estimation and resource prediction Easy
A. Historical project data
B. Office seating plans
C. Employee holiday photos
D. Random color selections

13 What can AI-based resource prediction help a project manager estimate?

AI-Enhanced Cost Estimation: Predictive cost estimation and resource prediction Easy
A. The password used by each developer
B. The weather during every meeting
C. The resources needed for future tasks
D. The logo needed for every project

14 What does a project approach describe?

Project approach Easy
A. How the project will be carried out
B. When office furniture will be replaced
C. Where employees will take breaks
D. Which company logo will be used

15 What does a software life cycle model provide?

Introduction to Life Cycle Models Easy
A. A design for computer hardware
B. A list of employee contact details
C. A schedule for office maintenance
D. A structure for software development stages

16 What is a key feature of the V-Process Model?

V-Process Model Easy
A. Deployment happens before development
B. Each development stage has a testing stage
C. Requirements are never documented
D. Testing occurs without any planning

17 In the V-Process Model, acceptance testing is mainly associated with which earlier activity?

V-Process Model Easy
A. Requirements analysis
B. Database backup
C. Server monitoring
D. Source code formatting

18 How is software commonly developed in the Agile Model?

Agile Model Easy
A. In short, repeated iterations
B. Without testing activities
C. Without customer feedback
D. In one unchanging phase

19 What is a central goal of DevOps?

Devops Easy
A. Preventing software from being updated
B. Separating development from operations completely
C. Replacing software testing with documentation
D. Improving collaboration between development and operations

20 What does CI commonly stand for in a CI/CD pipeline?

CI/CD Pipeline Easy
A. Central Inspection
B. Continuous Integration
C. Controlled Installation
D. Complete Implementation

21 A software project is estimated to require 1,200 person-hours. If four developers work full-time for 30 working days at 8 hours per day, which conclusion is most appropriate?

Meaning Medium
A. The available capacity is 960 person-hours
B. The available capacity is 1,200 person-hours
C. The project will require exactly four calendar months regardless of working hours, holidays, dependencies, and staff availability
D. The available capacity is 1,440 person-hours

22 Two project activities require the same specialist during the same week. Activity A is on the critical path, while Activity B has five days of float. What should the project manager do first?

Managing allocation of resources Medium
A. Assign the specialist to the activity requested by the senior developer
B. Assign the specialist to Activity A
C. Delay both activities until a new specialist joins
D. Assign the specialist to Activity B

23 A programme manager is coordinating three related projects that share a common customer-data platform. Which activity best represents programme-level planning?

Creating programme Medium
A. Writing unit tests for one project module
B. Approving a developer's individual leave request
C. Assigning daily tasks to one programmer
D. Coordinating dependencies among the projects

24 A project team is developing a payroll application with a fixed deadline and clearly defined requirements. Which management focus is most appropriate for the individual project?

Individual projects Medium
A. Replacing project objectives with department-level objectives
B. Optimizing benefits across unrelated projects
C. Controlling scope, schedule, cost, and quality
D. Managing the organization-wide investment portfolio

25 A programme contains projects for mobile banking, fraud detection, and customer analytics. The projects are individually successful, but they use incompatible customer identifiers. What should the programme manager prioritize?

Program management Medium
A. Allowing each project to define identifiers independently because project teams own their designs
B. Closing the fraud detection project immediately
C. Increasing the budget of the mobile project
D. Establishing shared integration standards

26 A risk has a 30% probability of causing a $40,000 loss. Another risk has a 10% probability of causing a $90,000 loss. Based only on expected monetary value, which risk has the higher exposure?

Risk evaluation Medium
A. Both risks, at $40,000
B. The second risk, at $9,000
C. Neither risk, because probability cannot be used in financial evaluation
D. The first risk, at $12,000

27 A proposed system costs $80,000 and is expected to produce benefits worth $110,000 over its evaluation period. Ignoring discounting and operating costs, what is the net benefit?

Cost benefit analysis Medium
A. $30,000
B. $80,000
C. $110,000
D. $190,000

28 A project is under budget and ahead of schedule, but its delivered system does not satisfy a mandatory regulatory requirement. How should the project be evaluated?

Evaluation of individual projects Medium
A. As successful because regulatory requirements can always be addressed after closure
B. As unsuccessful because a critical quality constraint failed
C. As successful because cost performance is favorable
D. As successful because schedule performance is favorable

29 Three vendors are evaluated using weighted criteria: cost 40%, reliability 35%, and support 25%. Vendor X scores 8, 7, and 6 respectively on a 10-point scale. What is Vendor X's weighted score?

Multi-Criteria Decision Analysis (MCDA) Medium
A. 7.15
B. 8.00
C. 6.85
D. 7.50

30 In an MCDA model, security is assigned a weight of 50%, cost 30%, and usability 20%. What does the security weight indicate?

Multi-Criteria Decision Analysis (MCDA) Medium
A. Security has the greatest influence on the final ranking
B. Security is evaluated only after cost and usability
C. Security must receive the highest raw score
D. Security is excluded when the alternatives have equal prices

31 An AI cost-estimation model was trained mostly on small web applications, but it is used to estimate a safety-critical embedded system. What is the main concern?

AI-Enhanced Cost Estimation: Predictive cost estimation and resource prediction Medium
A. The prediction will always exceed the actual cost because embedded systems use fewer developers
B. The prediction cannot use historical data when the project is safety-critical
C. The prediction is guaranteed to be accurate because AI removes estimation bias
D. The prediction may be unreliable because the new project differs from the training data

32 A predictive model estimates that a project will require 10 developers for six months. Historical data shows that similar projects usually experience a 20% staffing shortfall. What is the most reasonable management response?

AI-Enhanced Cost Estimation: Predictive cost estimation and resource prediction Medium
A. Reduce the team to eight developers to control cost
B. Commit to ten developers without validating assumptions
C. Ignore historical data because the model is automated
D. Review the model and plan a staffing buffer

33 A client expects requirements to change frequently and wants working software demonstrated every two weeks. Which project approach is most suitable?

Project approach Medium
A. A documentation-first approach with no early releases
B. An iterative and incremental approach
C. A strictly sequential approach
D. A fixed-scope approach that prohibits customer feedback

34 A life cycle model is mainly selected to determine how a project will manage which combination of activities?

Introduction to Life Cycle Models Medium
A. Employee promotions, annual reviews, holidays, and training
B. Marketing campaigns, sales targets, branding, and advertising
C. Office seating, payroll, recruitment, and procurement
D. Planning, development, testing, and delivery

35 A project has stable requirements, strict approval gates, and extensive compliance documentation. Which life cycle characteristic is most valuable?

Introduction to Life Cycle Models Medium
A. Testing only after the product is deployed to users
B. Defined phases with formal reviews
C. Continuous scope changes without approval
D. Unplanned releases based on developer preference

36 In the V-Process Model, which testing activity is most closely associated with system requirements?

V-Process Model Medium
A. System testing
B. Code refactoring
C. Unit testing
D. Component compilation

37 A team begins coding before completing the required interface specifications in a V-Process project. What is the likely consequence?

V-Process Model Medium
A. Integration testing becomes unnecessary
B. Late interface changes may increase rework
C. Requirements automatically become more stable
D. The project gains complete flexibility without additional cost

38 During a sprint, a stakeholder requests a new feature that is not part of the sprint goal. What is the most appropriate response?

Agile Model Medium
A. Insert it immediately and remove testing activities
B. Reject all future requests from the stakeholder
C. Add it to the product backlog for prioritization
D. Replace the sprint goal without consulting the product owner

39 A development team frequently delivers code that fails in the operations environment. Which DevOps practice would most directly address this problem?

Devops Medium
A. Increasing documentation while keeping deployments manual
B. Allowing developers to deploy without monitoring or rollback procedures
C. Shared responsibility and automated deployment checks
D. Separating development and operations completely

40 A continuous integration pipeline reports a failed automated test after a developer pushes code. What should normally happen next?

CI/CD Pipeline Medium
A. Wait until the end of the release cycle before reviewing the failure
B. Deploy the build because the failure may be temporary
C. Disable the failed test to keep the pipeline green
D. Investigate and fix the failure before merging further changes

41 A project has a fixed deadline, uncertain requirements, and several interdependent deliverables. Which statement best captures the management problem represented by software project management?

Meaning Hard
A. Estimating coding effort independently of organizational constraints
B. Tracking programming tasks against a calendar
C. Balancing scope, time, cost, quality, resources, and uncertainty
D. Assigning developers to modules after requirements are approved

42 Two activities require the same specialist during the same week. Activity A has 3 days of float and lies on the critical path after Activity B, which has no float but can be completed by another qualified engineer at 20% higher cost. What is the most defensible allocation decision?

Managing allocation of resources Hard
A. Delay both activities until the specialist becomes available
B. Assign the specialist to A because it is on the critical path
C. Assign the specialist to B and use the alternate engineer for A
D. Assign the specialist to A and extend the project deadline

43 An organization wants to deliver a platform consisting of four related projects whose benefits depend on shared architecture and coordinated releases. What is the strongest reason to establish a programme rather than manage the projects independently?

Creating programme Hard
A. A programme coordinates dependencies and realizes combined benefits
B. A programme eliminates the need for project-level plans
C. A programme guarantees that every project uses identical methods
D. A programme transfers all project risks to the programme manager

44 A project is delivering a regulatory reporting component that has a clear scope, a single sponsor, and acceptance criteria independent of three other initiatives. Which governance choice is most appropriate?

Individual projects Hard
A. Manage it as an individual project with its own business case
B. Defer its planning until the other initiatives have finished
C. Treat it as operational work because regulations are recurring
D. Combine it into a programme solely because it shares developers

45 A programme's projects are individually on schedule, but their interfaces are producing duplicated functionality and delaying organizational adoption. Which action best addresses the programme-level failure?

Program management Hard
A. Rebaseline only the project with the latest milestone
B. Allow each project to optimize its own deliverables
C. Increase each project team's velocity target
D. Reassess the integrated roadmap, dependencies, and benefits

46 A risk has a 30% probability of causing a $120,000 loss. A mitigation costing $20,000 reduces the probability to 10%. Assuming the mitigation has no other effect, what is the expected monetary value of the mitigation decision?

Risk evaluation Hard
A. A net expected benefit of $24,000
B. A net expected benefit of $16,000
C. A net expected cost of $4,000
D. A net expected benefit of $36,000

47 A proposed system requires an initial investment of $180,000 and produces cash benefits of $90,000, $100,000, and $110,000 over the next three years. At a discount rate of 10%, which conclusion is closest to the project's financial attractiveness?

Cost benefit analysis Hard
A. The NPV is approximately negative $38,000
B. The NPV is approximately positive $120,000
C. The NPV is approximately positive $61,000
D. The NPV is exactly zero because total benefits equal $300,000

48 A project has a positive NPV but requires a scarce security architect whose allocation would delay another project with a higher strategic score. Which evaluation is most complete?

Evaluation of individual projects Hard
A. Reject it because strategic scores cannot be compared with money
B. Evaluate financial value together with opportunity cost and strategy
C. Approve it because positive NPV always dominates other criteria
D. Approve it if its estimated completion date remains unchanged

49 Three alternatives have normalized scores for cost, risk, and strategic fit. Their weights are 0.4, 0.3, and 0.3 respectively. Alternative X scores , Y scores , and Z scores . Which alternative has the highest weighted score?

Multi-Criteria Decision Analysis (MCDA) Hard
A. Alternative Y with a score of 0.75
B. Alternatives X and Y tie at 0.75
C. Alternative X with a score of 0.74
D. Alternative Z with a score of 0.70

50 A machine-learning cost model performs well on historical projects but underestimates a new project using an unfamiliar architecture. Which control most directly addresses this failure mode?

AI-Enhanced Cost Estimation: Predictive cost estimation and resource prediction Hard
A. Replace all expert estimates with the model's point prediction
B. Increase the model's training epochs without changing data
C. Use an applicability check and prediction interval for new architectures
D. Remove recent projects because they may contain estimation noise

51 Requirements are expected to change after users see working increments, while regulatory verification must be evidenced before release. Which project approach best balances these conditions?

Project approach Hard
A. Iterative delivery with planned compliance and verification gates
B. Ad hoc development followed by one final compliance review
C. Pure Scrum with no formal verification artifacts
D. Pure waterfall with no iteration after requirements baseline

52 A team selects a life cycle model primarily because the project has stable requirements, low technical uncertainty, and contractual acceptance milestones. Which rationale is strongest?

Introduction to Life Cycle Models Hard
A. The model should be selected according to team preference alone
B. The model should minimize stakeholder feedback
C. The model should match uncertainty, changeability, and control needs
D. The model should always maximize iteration frequency

53 In a V-Process Model project, system integration testing reveals that a performance requirement cannot be met because of an architectural decision made earlier. What is the most appropriate corrective response?

V-Process Model Hard
A. Trace the failure to the linked design and requirement artifacts
B. Move directly to acceptance testing with a documented exception
C. Patch the user interface and continue testing
D. Skip remaining tests because integration testing exposed the issue

54 A product owner repeatedly adds urgent work during a sprint, causing committed items to remain incomplete. Which intervention best preserves agility without allowing uncontrolled scope expansion?

Agile Model Hard
A. Allow developers to choose which committed items to abandon
B. Use backlog ordering and negotiate scope with a stable sprint goal
C. Accept all urgent work and increase the sprint length
D. Reject every change until the entire product is released

55 A team has automated deployment but still experiences frequent production incidents because operations receive changes without observability or rollback readiness. Which DevOps improvement is most relevant?

Devops Hard
A. Separate development and operations more strictly
B. Deploy less frequently while retaining the same handoff process
C. Increase the number of deployment approvals
D. Add shared ownership, monitoring, and automated rollback practices

56 A pipeline runs unit tests and deploys every commit directly to production. A defect can pass unit tests but fail during database migration. Which pipeline change most effectively reduces release risk?

CI/CD Pipeline Hard
A. Require developers to approve their own production releases
B. Add integration tests and a reversible deployment stage before production
C. Remove database migrations from version control
D. Run unit tests after production deployment

57 A resource-loaded schedule shows 140% utilization for a database specialist over two weeks. The tasks are technically parallel but share the same person. Which adjustment is most valid?

Managing allocation of resources Hard
A. Reduce the recorded effort without changing the activities
B. Split the specialist into two virtual resources
C. Keep the schedule because task dependencies are unchanged
D. Level the schedule by sequencing work or adding qualified capacity

58 A risk register ranks a low-probability catastrophic failure below several frequent minor defects using only probability. What is the key evaluation error?

Risk evaluation Hard
A. Failing to combine probability with impact and exposure
B. Recording risks before assigning mitigation actions
C. Ignoring the risk owner's job title
D. Using qualitative analysis before quantitative analysis

59 A project produces a large measurable saving but also creates an unpriced increase in regulatory exposure. Which change would most improve its cost-benefit analysis?

Cost benefit analysis Hard
A. Exclude the regulatory effect because it is not a cash flow
B. Use sensitivity or scenario analysis for the uncertain regulatory cost
C. Select the project solely from its undiscounted payback period
D. Count the saving twice to offset the unknown consequence

60 An AI model predicts 12 developers for a project, but its training data contains mostly small projects and no comparable distributed systems. What is the best management response?

AI-Enhanced Cost Estimation: Predictive cost estimation and resource prediction Hard
A. Increase the prediction automatically by 50% for safety
B. Use the estimate with calibrated uncertainty and expert review
C. Treat 12 developers as a contractual commitment
D. Discard all historical data and estimate only from intuition