Unit 5: Obfuscation and Malware Forensics - Practice Quiz

INT251 — Malware Analysis And Cyber Defence 60 Questions
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1 Which encoding scheme commonly represents binary data using letters, digits, and symbols such as + and /?

Simple encoding Easy
A. RSA
B. SHA-256
C. AES
D. Base64

2 What is a key difference between encoding and encryption?

Simple encoding Easy
A. Encoding requires a secret key
B. Encryption only compresses data
C. Encryption always produces text
D. Encoding changes data format

3 Why might malware encrypt its configuration data?

Malware encryption Easy
A. To hide readable settings
B. To improve network speed
C. To increase screen resolution
D. To repair system files

4 What is custom encoding in malware?

Custom encoding Easy
A. A hardware-based encryption feature
B. A standard disk partition format
C. A developer-defined data transformation
D. A Windows user authentication method

5 What is the main goal of malware unpacking?

Malware unpacking Easy
A. Block every network connection
B. Delete all operating system logs
C. Create a new user account
D. Recover the hidden program code

6 When is packed malware often unpacked automatically?

Malware unpacking Easy
A. When it runs in memory
B. When a user changes wallpaper
C. When the monitor turns off
D. When the disk is formatted

7 What should an analyst normally do after obtaining a memory image?

Memory forensics steps Easy
A. Convert the image into source code
B. Preserve and analyze the image
C. Install updates into the image
D. Rename all running processes

8 What does memory acquisition collect from a running computer?

Memory acquisition Easy
A. Only BIOS configuration values
B. Contents of volatile RAM
C. Printed paper documents
D. Only deleted disk sectors

9 Why should RAM usually be acquired before shutting down a suspected system?

Memory acquisition Easy
A. Shutdown creates network traffic
B. RAM contents are volatile
C. Shutdown expands RAM capacity
D. RAM contents are always encrypted

10 What is Volatility primarily used for?

Volatility overview Easy
A. Compiling mobile applications
B. Analyzing memory images
C. Designing network cables
D. Editing digital photographs

11 What does enumerating processes reveal?

Enumerating processes Easy
A. Rules configured on routers
B. Files stored in cloud backups
C. Processes present in memory
D. Passwords printed on labels

12 Which process detail is commonly useful when identifying suspicious activity?

Enumerating processes Easy
A. Process identifier
B. Keyboard layout
C. Monitor brightness
D. Printer paper size

13 What can a process handle reference in Windows?

Listing process handles Easy
A. An open system object
B. A screen color profile
C. A keyboard language pack
D. A processor clock speed

14 Why would an analyst dump a suspicious executable from memory?

Dumping executable and DLL Easy
A. To restart the operating system
B. To update its digital signature
C. To examine its recovered code
D. To increase available RAM

15 What can a list of network connections reveal during malware analysis?

Listing network connections and sockets Easy
A. Battery manufacturing date
B. Installed monitor dimensions
C. Physical room temperature
D. Remote systems contacted

16 What does a listening socket indicate?

Listing network connections and sockets Easy
A. A file awaits compression
B. A registry key was deleted
C. A process awaits connections
D. A password was decrypted

17 Why do analysts inspect the Windows Registry during malware forensics?

Inspecting registry Easy
A. To find configuration and persistence
B. To test physical network cables
C. To recover damaged monitor pixels
D. To measure processor temperature

18 Why might a malicious program install itself as a Windows service?

Investigating service Easy
A. To run automatically
B. To replace the keyboard
C. To calibrate the display
D. To enlarge disk sectors

19 What can extracted command history show an investigator?

Extracting command history Easy
A. Packets blocked by hardware
B. Images viewed in a gallery
C. Commands entered in a shell
D. Keys pressed during startup

20 What does listing DLLs for a process help identify?

Listing DLLs Easy
A. Ports available on a switch
B. Users connected to a printer
C. Libraries loaded by the process
D. Folders stored in a backup

21 A malware sample stores the string powershell.exe as cG93ZXJzaGVsbC5leGU=. Which decoding operation should an analyst try first?

Simple encoding Medium
A. URL decoding
B. Base64 decoding
C. ROT13 decoding followed by decompression
D. Hexadecimal decoding

22 An analyst discovers the bytes 68 74 74 70 3A 2F 2F in a malware configuration. What does interpreting them as ASCII reveal?

Simple encoding Medium
A. https://
B. http://
C. ftp://
D. file://, indicating that the malware accesses only local files

23 A malware executable contains a high-entropy data section that becomes readable configuration data after the sample starts. What is the most effective next action?

Malware encryption Medium
A. Assume the section contains a digitally signed library
B. Search only the disk image
C. Capture and inspect process memory
D. Rename the executable section

24 Several encrypted configuration blocks use the same stream-cipher key and nonce. Two ciphertexts are and . What does produce?

Malware encryption Medium
A. The original key and nonce in plaintext form
B.
C.
D.

25 A custom decoder processes each byte using . The encoded byte is 0x44. What is the decoded byte?

Custom encoding Medium
A. 0x41
B. 0x47, because the decoder adds the offset before applying the modulus
C. 0x40
D. 0x3F

26 A suspected custom encoding repeatedly applies XOR with a four-byte key. Which observation would most strongly support this hypothesis?

Custom encoding Medium
A. Byte patterns repeat every four positions
B. Every encoded byte is printable ASCII
C. The executable imports many cryptographic libraries and has a valid certificate
D. The file has a valid PE signature

27 During dynamic unpacking, execution leaves a small unpacking stub and enters a newly written memory region containing valid PE-like code. What should the analyst do next?

Malware unpacking Medium
A. Dump the process near the original entry point
B. Delete the newly allocated memory region
C. Restart the sample and rely exclusively on static string extraction
D. Dump the unpacked region and rebuild imports

28 Which API sequence most strongly suggests that one process is unpacking or injecting code into another process?

Malware unpacking Medium
A. RegOpenKey, RegQueryValue, RegCloseKey
B. OpenProcess, VirtualAllocEx, WriteProcessMemory
C. GetVersionEx, GetSystemTime, Sleep, followed by normal process termination
D. CreateFile, ReadFile, CloseHandle

29 After receiving a memory image, which workflow best preserves forensic reliability before detailed analysis?

Memory forensics steps Medium
A. Hash the image, preserve the original, and analyze a copy
B. Upload the only available image to several public analysis services
C. Compress the image, execute it, and record the output
D. Modify the image, identify malware, and calculate a hash

30 A responder must acquire RAM from a running compromised server. Which approach is most appropriate?

Memory acquisition Medium
A. Use a trusted acquisition tool and hash the output
B. Run the suspected malware again so that all indicators become visible
C. Install multiple diagnostic suites before acquisition
D. Shut down the server and copy the page file

31 Why should a responder document the acquisition tool, command, time, and output hash when collecting memory?

Memory acquisition Medium
A. To support integrity and chain of custody
B. To guarantee that every encrypted memory page is automatically decrypted
C. To increase the memory image size
D. To remove malware from captured RAM

32 A Volatility plugin produces invalid addresses and implausible process results. What should the analyst verify first?

Volatility overview Medium
A. The disk partition's volume label
B. The image format and symbol or profile selection
C. Whether the memory image was renamed with a .raw extension
D. The browser version on the host

33 A process appears in a Volatility psscan result but not in pslist. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

Enumerating processes Medium
A. It must be a normal kernel process
B. It proves that the memory acquisition tool encrypted the process table
C. It is certainly a duplicate process entry
D. It may be terminated or hidden from active lists

34 The process tree shows winword.exe spawning powershell.exe, which then launches rundll32.exe. Why is this chain suspicious?

Enumerating processes Medium
A. PowerShell cannot create child processes
B. Every use of rundll32.exe confirms that the Windows installation is corrupted
C. It resembles document-based script execution
D. Office applications commonly compile device drivers

35 A suspicious process has an open handle to \Device\PhysicalMemory and several handles to security-related processes. What does this most directly justify?

Listing process handles Medium
A. Examining its privileges and access activity
B. Concluding that it is legitimate because physical-memory access is required by every process
C. Treating it as a harmless text editor
D. Deleting all handles from the memory image

36 An analyst finds a suspicious process whose executable no longer exists on disk. What is the best memory-forensics action?

Dumping executable and DLL Medium
A. Recover it only from browser cache
B. Dump the process executable from memory
C. Export the registry and assume it contains the complete executable
D. Reboot the system to recreate the file

37 Volatility reports an established TCP connection from PID 2480 to an unfamiliar external address on port 443. What is the most useful next correlation?

Listing network connections and sockets Medium
A. Change the remote address in the memory image
B. Assume port 443 makes the connection benign
C. Inspect only the local keyboard layout and desktop wallpaper settings
D. Map PID 2480 to its process and command line

38 A memory-resident registry value under Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run launches an executable from a user's temporary directory. What behavior does this most likely indicate?

Inspecting registry Medium
A. Automatic repair of missing Windows system files during startup
B. DNS cache poisoning
C. Persistence at user logon
D. Kernel memory compression

39 A service discovered in memory has an automatic start type, a random-looking name, and an executable path inside C:\Users\Public. What is the best assessment?

Investigating service Medium
A. It is suspicious and may provide persistence
B. It is safe because the path is writable
C. It is a standard Windows service installed in the default protected system directory
D. It is normal because all services use random names

40 Recovered console history contains whoami, net user, and ipconfig /all, followed by a download command. What does this sequence most likely represent?

Extracting command history Medium
A. Registry hive repair followed by memory compression
B. System reconnaissance followed by payload retrieval
C. A complete operating-system upgrade performed through the graphical interface
D. Routine disk defragmentation and file indexing

41 A memory buffer begins with TVqQAAMAAAAEAAAA, while the corresponding file is absent from disk. Which action most directly tests whether this is a simply encoded Windows executable?

Simple encoding Hard
A. Base64-decode the buffer and check for an MZ header
B. XOR the buffer with 0xFF and check for an MZ header
C. ROT13-decode the buffer and check for a DOS header
D. Hex-decode the buffer and check for a PE header

42 An analyst finds a Base64-looking PowerShell argument whose length is valid, but ordinary Base64 decoding produces alternating printable characters and null bytes. What is the most likely explanation?

Simple encoding Hard
A. The decoded content is a compressed PE image
B. The decoded content is UTF-16LE text
C. The encoded content uses an AES block mode
D. The encoded content uses a rolling XOR key

43 Two encrypted configuration blobs from separate infections have identical 16-byte prefixes but different later blocks. Both plaintexts are believed to begin with the same JSON header. Which implementation flaw is most strongly indicated?

Malware encryption Hard
A. CBC encryption reuses a fixed IV
B. RSA encryption applies randomized padding
C. GCM encryption rotates authentication tags
D. CTR encryption uses random nonces

44 A malware sample decrypts strings by XORing ciphertext with the output of a deterministic pseudorandom generator seeded from a constant. Why can this behave like a reusable stream cipher weakness?

Malware encryption Hard
A. The constant seed disables ciphertext entropy
B. The ciphertext automatically reveals the seed
C. The generator converts XOR into substitution
D. The same keystream encrypts every string

45 A decoder transforms each byte using , where is the zero-based position. Which operation correctly reconstructs plaintext byte ?

Custom encoding Hard
A. Add modulo 256, then XOR with
B. Subtract modulo 256, then XOR with
C. XOR with , then subtract modulo 256
D. Subtract modulo 256, then XOR with

46 A suspected custom decoder reads one input byte, emits two output nibbles through a lookup table, and rejects symbols outside a 16-character alphabet. Which artifact is most useful for reconstructing the encoding without executing the malware?

Custom encoding Hard
A. The import table and section permissions
B. The alphabet and nibble-combination logic
C. The mutex name and process command line
D. The timestamp and linker version fields

47 During dynamic unpacking, execution leaves a small loader stub and reaches a newly writable-then-executable region containing coherent PE code. What is the best point to dump the process image?

Malware unpacking Hard
A. Immediately after the packed process is created
B. After the payload terminates and memory is released
C. Before the loader allocates its destination region
D. After unpacking completes and before payload execution

48 A dumped unpacked PE contains valid code and sections but fails because its imports point into addresses resolved in the original process. What post-processing is primarily required?

Malware unpacking Hard
A. Replace the resource directory tree
B. Recalculate the DOS stub checksum
C. Rebuild the import address table
D. Restore the original overlay bytes

49 A responder has one RAM image and suspects process injection. Which workflow best preserves evidentiary integrity while minimizing premature conclusions?

Memory forensics steps Hard
A. Dump suspicious processes, modify metadata, then record hashes
B. Search strings, delete duplicates, then enumerate active processes
C. Hash the image, identify context, enumerate, then inspect anomalies
D. Scan injected regions, choose a profile, then hash the image

50 A Windows host uses full-disk encryption, and malware is believed to keep its configuration only in memory. Why should live RAM acquisition generally precede shutdown?

Memory acquisition Hard
A. RAM acquisition prevents all malware from altering evidence
B. Shutdown destroys volatile data and may relock storage
C. RAM acquisition automatically decrypts every protected file
D. Shutdown preserves RAM but clears encrypted disk sectors

51 An acquisition tool can write a RAM image either to the suspect system disk or to a prepared external device. Assuming both methods work, which choice usually has the lower evidence impact?

Memory acquisition Hard
A. Write to process memory and recover it during analysis
B. Write to the page file and export it after shutdown
C. Write to the external device and document tool effects
D. Write to the system disk and preserve file timestamps

52 A Volatility 3 analysis fails because an exact Windows symbol table is unavailable locally. Which statement best describes the appropriate next step?

Volatility overview Hard
A. Patch the image header to match an installed symbol table
B. Use Linux banners to infer the Windows kernel structures
C. Obtain matching symbols using the image's kernel identifiers
D. Select a Volatility 2 profile with a similar service pack

53 On a Windows image, a process appears in a pool scan but not in the active process list. Which conclusion is most defensible without additional evidence?

Enumerating processes Hard
A. It is certainly hidden by a kernel rootkit
B. It must have been created after memory acquisition
C. It is certainly running without an EPROCESS object
D. It may be terminated, hidden, or a stale allocation

54 A process has parent PID 900, but PID 900 was created ten minutes after the child. Which interpretation should an analyst prioritize?

Enumerating processes Hard
A. The child necessarily altered the system clock
B. The process list is invalid and should be discarded
C. The parent must have existed before its recorded creation
D. PID reuse or manipulated parentage requires correlation

55 A suspicious process has a handle to \Device\PhysicalMemory with powerful access rights. Why is this more significant than merely finding the object name as a string?

Listing process handles Hard
A. The handle links the process to an open kernel object
B. The string identifies the exact granted access mask
C. The handle proves the process modified every physical page
D. The string proves the object was opened and later closed

56 A memory-dumped DLL has correct executable code but differs substantially from the on-disk file. Which factor most complicates direct hash comparison?

Dumping executable and DLL Hard
A. Windows encrypts all executable sections after loading
B. Memory acquisition reverses each section's byte order
C. The DOS signature is removed from every loaded DLL
D. Relocations and loader-resolved imports modify memory pages

57 A pool scan finds a TCP endpoint owned by a process that has already exited, but the endpoint is absent from the active connection listing. What is the strongest interpretation?

Listing network connections and sockets Hard
A. It is a residual artifact requiring timestamp correlation
B. It proves the remote host erased the local socket
C. It is invalid because exited processes leave no pool data
D. It proves an active connection hidden by the process

58 A memory-resident registry hive shows a malicious Run-key value that is absent from the corresponding hive file collected after shutdown. Which explanation best fits both observations?

Inspecting registry Hard
A. The in-memory hive had unflushed or later-removed changes
B. Memory acquisition converts volatile keys into persistent keys
C. The disk hive parser automatically removes Run-key values
D. Registry values exist in RAM only when digitally signed

59 A service registry entry names svchost.exe, but memory analysis shows its service DLL loaded from a user-writable directory. Which artifact most directly identifies the payload configured for that shared-host service?

Investigating service Hard
A. The service's Parameters\ServiceDll registry value
B. The service process's preferred base address
C. The svchost.exe DOS-header checksum field
D. The SCM database file's creation timestamp

60 Memory analysis recovers a console command from a history buffer, but no matching process is currently active. What is the most accurate evidentiary interpretation?

Extracting command history Hard
A. It proves the command completed with administrator privileges
B. It indicates the command was typed after acquisition ended
C. It indicates entered text, not necessarily successful execution
D. It proves the command created no child process or output