Unit 3 - Practice Quiz

INT364

1 What is the primary definition of Amazon S3?

A. A block storage service
B. A file storage service
C. An object storage service
D. A relational database service

2 Which Amazon S3 storage class is best suited for data that is accessed frequently and requires low latency?

A. S3 Standard
B. S3 Standard-IA
C. S3 Glacier
D. S3 One Zone-IA

3 What is the durability guarantee provided by the Amazon S3 Standard storage class?

A. 99.99%
B. 99.9%
C. 99.999999999% (11 9s)
D. 99.0%

4 Which S3 storage class automatically moves objects between two access tiers based on changing access patterns?

A. S3 Standard
B. S3 Intelligent-Tiering
C. S3 Glacier Deep Archive
D. S3 Standard-IA

5 In Amazon S3, what is the maximum size of a single object?

A. 1 TB
B. 5 GB
C. 5 TB
D. 100 GB

6 Which S3 storage class stores data in a single Availability Zone and is less expensive than Standard-IA?

A. S3 Standard
B. S3 Glacier
C. S3 One Zone-IA
D. S3 Intelligent-Tiering

7 What is the primary use case for S3 Glacier Deep Archive?

A. Hosting static websites
B. Long-term data retention (10+ years) accessed rarely
C. Frequently accessed database backups
D. Storing session data for web applications

8 To enable faster file uploads to an S3 bucket from geographically dispersed users, which feature should be used?

A. S3 Transfer Acceleration
B. S3 Versioning
C. S3 Lifecycle Policies
D. S3 Select

9 What requirement must an S3 bucket name fulfill?

A. It must be unique within the region
B. It must be unique across all AWS accounts globally
C. It can contain uppercase letters
D. It must be unique within the user's account only

10 Which S3 feature allows you to define rules to automatically transition objects to cheaper storage classes or expire them?

A. Cross-Region Replication
B. S3 Lifecycle Policies
C. S3 Versioning
D. S3 Object Lock

11 When S3 Versioning is enabled, what happens if you upload a file with the same key (name) as an existing file?

A. The upload fails
B. The existing file is overwritten permanently
C. Amazon S3 generates a new version ID for the uploaded object
D. The old file is moved to Glacier

12 What object is created when you delete a file in a versioning-enabled S3 bucket without specifying a version ID?

A. A snapshot
B. A delete marker
C. A null version
D. An archived copy

13 Which feature creates a physical layer of security by requiring a second form of authentication to permanently delete an object version?

A. S3 Object Lock
B. MFA Delete
C. Bucket Policy
D. IAM Role

14 What is an Amazon Machine Image (AMI)?

A. A physical server in a data center
B. A template that contains the software configuration (OS, application server, etc.) required to launch an instance
C. A virtual network definition
D. A storage volume attached to an instance

15 Which category of AMIs is generally considered the safest and most reliable to use?

A. Community AMIs
B. AWS Marketplace AMIs (Verified providers)
C. My AMIs
D. Private AMIs shared by unknown accounts

16 Which EC2 instance family is optimized for compute-bound applications like high-performance web servers and batch processing?

A. R-series (Memory Optimized)
B. C-series (Compute Optimized)
C. I-series (Storage Optimized)
D. T-series (General Purpose)

17 Which EC2 instance type is ideal for applications that need high memory performance, such as in-memory databases?

A. Compute Optimized
B. Memory Optimized
C. General Purpose
D. Accelerated Computing

18 What is the primary characteristic of EC2 Spot Instances?

A. They provide dedicated physical hardware
B. They are always the most expensive option
C. They offer unused EC2 capacity at a steep discount but can be interrupted
D. They are reserved for a 1 or 3-year term

19 What is 'User Data' in the context of launching an EC2 instance?

A. Data stored in the /home directory
B. Scripts or commands entered during launch that run when the instance first boots
C. The login credentials for the instance
D. The metadata tags attached to the instance

20 What is the special IP address used to retrieve EC2 Instance Metadata from within the instance?

A. 127.0.0.1
B. 192.168.1.1
C. 169.254.169.254
D. 10.0.0.1

21 Which storage option is block-level storage that behaves like a physical hard drive attached to an EC2 instance?

A. Amazon S3
B. Amazon EBS (Elastic Block Store)
C. Amazon EFS (Elastic File System)
D. Amazon Glacier

22 What is a key availability constraint of an Amazon EBS volume?

A. It can be attached to instances in any region
B. It is locked to a specific Availability Zone
C. It is automatically replicated across all zones in a region
D. It can be accessed over the public internet directly

23 If you terminate an EC2 instance, what happens to the attached EBS root volume by default?

A. It is preserved
B. It is deleted
C. It is archived to Glacier
D. It is converted to a snapshot

24 Which EBS volume type is best for mission-critical low-latency or high-throughput workloads requiring sustained IOPS?

A. Cold HDD (sc1)
B. Throughput Optimized HDD (st1)
C. Provisioned IOPS SSD (io1/io2)
D. General Purpose SSD (gp2/gp3)

25 How can you back up an EBS volume?

A. By copying the data to RAM
B. By taking a Snapshot
C. By converting it to an AMI
D. By using S3 Object Lock

26 Which storage service is a fully managed file system that supports the Network File System (NFS) protocol and allows concurrent access from multiple EC2 instances?

A. Amazon EBS
B. Amazon S3
C. Amazon EFS
D. Amazon RDS

27 Unlike EBS, how does Amazon EFS handle storage capacity?

A. You must provision a fixed size
B. It shrinks and grows automatically as you add/remove files
C. It is limited to 1 TB
D. It requires manual resizing via the console

28 Regarding the Well-Architected Framework: Which pillar focuses on selecting the right instance type for the workload?

A. Security
B. Performance Efficiency
C. Operational Excellence
D. Reliability

29 How does using Spot Instances contribute to the 'Cost Optimization' pillar of the Well-Architected Framework?

A. They provide the highest performance
B. They reduce costs for fault-tolerant, flexible workloads
C. They ensure 100% availability
D. They eliminate the need for storage

30 Which security measure applies to the 'Security' pillar when managing EC2 instances?

A. Using the largest instance type available
B. Using IAM roles to grant permissions instead of hardcoding credentials
C. Turning off CloudWatch logs
D. Making all security groups open to 0.0.0.0/0

31 In the context of Reliability, what is the benefit of using an Auto Scaling Group with EC2?

A. It automatically encrypts data
B. It ensures the correct number of instances are running to handle load and recover from failures
C. It reduces the latency of S3 transfers
D. It serves static content to users

32 What is the maximum file size supported by Amazon S3?

A. 1 TB
B. 5 TB
C. 10 TB
D. Unlimited

33 Which tool can be used to physically migrate petabytes of data to Amazon S3 when internet transfer is too slow?

A. S3 Transfer Acceleration
B. AWS Snowball
C. AWS Direct Connect
D. Amazon Kinesis

34 A 'T3' EC2 instance utilizes what type of performance characteristic?

A. Fixed high performance
B. Burstable performance
C. GPU acceleration
D. Storage optimization

35 Which EC2 purchasing option allows you to reserve capacity for a 1 or 3-year term in exchange for a significant discount?

A. On-Demand
B. Spot Instances
C. Reserved Instances
D. Dedicated Hosts

36 To secure login access to a Linux EC2 instance, what must be created and downloaded during launch?

A. A password file
B. An IAM Policy
C. A Key Pair (.pem file)
D. A Security Group

37 Which storage service is region-resilient (stored across multiple AZs) by default?

A. Amazon EBS
B. Amazon S3 Standard
C. Instance Store
D. EBS Snapshots (prior to 2019)

38 What is 'Instance Store' (Ephemeral Storage)?

A. Permanent block storage
B. Temporary block-level storage located on disks physically attached to the host computer
C. A type of S3 bucket
D. A database service

39 EBS Multi-Attach allows you to attach a single io1/io2 volume to:

A. Multiple instances in different Regions
B. Multiple instances in the same Availability Zone
C. An infinite number of instances
D. Instances and S3 buckets simultaneously

40 Which S3 feature allows you to use SQL expressions to retrieve only a subset of data from an object?

A. S3 Intelligent-Tiering
B. S3 Select
C. S3 Glacier
D. S3 Inventory

41 If you need a static IP address for your EC2 instance that persists even if the instance is stopped and restarted, what should you use?

A. Public IP
B. Elastic IP
C. Private IP
D. Dynamic DNS

42 Which of the following is NOT a valid state for an S3 Lifecycle policy rule?

A. Transition to Standard-IA
B. Transition to Glacier
C. Expire (Delete)
D. Transition to EBS

43 In the context of EC2, what acts as a virtual firewall to control inbound and outbound traffic?

A. Network ACL
B. Security Group
C. IAM Role
D. Route Table

44 When launching an EC2 instance, which configuration determines the network location (subnet) of the instance?

A. Network settings / VPC configuration
B. AMI selection
C. Instance type selection
D. Storage configuration

45 Which storage class has the longest retrieval time (ranging from 12 to 48 hours)?

A. S3 Standard
B. S3 Glacier Instant Retrieval
C. S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval
D. S3 Glacier Deep Archive

46 For a High Performance Computing (HPC) workload requiring low network latency between instances, which placement group strategy should be used?

A. Spread
B. Partition
C. Cluster
D. Regional

47 What is the main difference between stopping and terminating an EC2 instance?

A. Stopping deletes the instance; terminating saves it
B. Stopping keeps the EBS volume and instance ID; terminating deletes the instance permanently
C. There is no difference
D. Terminating pauses billing; stopping continues billing

48 Which S3 functionality allows you to host a client-side Single Page Application (SPA)?

A. Static Website Hosting
B. S3 Transfer Acceleration
C. Requester Pays
D. BitTorrent Support

49 If you want to ensure an EC2 instance runs on physical hardware dedicated to your use (for compliance or licensing), what option do you choose?

A. Spot Instance
B. Dedicated Host
C. Reserved Instance
D. On-Demand Instance

50 Applying the 'Operational Excellence' pillar to storage, what is a best practice?

A. Manually deleting old files
B. Using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) to provision storage resources
C. Never monitoring storage usage
D. Using the most expensive storage tier to ensure safety