Unit 3 - Practice Quiz

INT364 50 Questions
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1 What is the primary definition of Amazon S3?

A. A file storage service
B. A block storage service
C. An object storage service
D. A relational database service

2 Which Amazon S3 storage class is best suited for data that is accessed frequently and requires low latency?

A. S3 Standard-IA
B. S3 Glacier
C. S3 Standard
D. S3 One Zone-IA

3 What is the durability guarantee provided by the Amazon S3 Standard storage class?

A. 99.99%
B. 99.9%
C. 99.999999999% (11 9s)
D. 99.0%

4 Which S3 storage class automatically moves objects between two access tiers based on changing access patterns?

A. S3 Glacier Deep Archive
B. S3 Intelligent-Tiering
C. S3 Standard-IA
D. S3 Standard

5 In Amazon S3, what is the maximum size of a single object?

A. 1 TB
B. 5 TB
C. 5 GB
D. 100 GB

6 Which S3 storage class stores data in a single Availability Zone and is less expensive than Standard-IA?

A. S3 Glacier
B. S3 Standard
C. S3 Intelligent-Tiering
D. S3 One Zone-IA

7 What is the primary use case for S3 Glacier Deep Archive?

A. Long-term data retention (10+ years) accessed rarely
B. Storing session data for web applications
C. Hosting static websites
D. Frequently accessed database backups

8 To enable faster file uploads to an S3 bucket from geographically dispersed users, which feature should be used?

A. S3 Lifecycle Policies
B. S3 Select
C. S3 Transfer Acceleration
D. S3 Versioning

9 What requirement must an S3 bucket name fulfill?

A. It can contain uppercase letters
B. It must be unique across all AWS accounts globally
C. It must be unique within the user's account only
D. It must be unique within the region

10 Which S3 feature allows you to define rules to automatically transition objects to cheaper storage classes or expire them?

A. S3 Lifecycle Policies
B. S3 Object Lock
C. Cross-Region Replication
D. S3 Versioning

11 When S3 Versioning is enabled, what happens if you upload a file with the same key (name) as an existing file?

A. Amazon S3 generates a new version ID for the uploaded object
B. The upload fails
C. The old file is moved to Glacier
D. The existing file is overwritten permanently

12 What object is created when you delete a file in a versioning-enabled S3 bucket without specifying a version ID?

A. A delete marker
B. A snapshot
C. A null version
D. An archived copy

13 Which feature creates a physical layer of security by requiring a second form of authentication to permanently delete an object version?

A. MFA Delete
B. S3 Object Lock
C. IAM Role
D. Bucket Policy

14 What is an Amazon Machine Image (AMI)?

A. A physical server in a data center
B. A virtual network definition
C. A storage volume attached to an instance
D. A template that contains the software configuration (OS, application server, etc.) required to launch an instance

15 Which category of AMIs is generally considered the safest and most reliable to use?

A. Private AMIs shared by unknown accounts
B. AWS Marketplace AMIs (Verified providers)
C. My AMIs
D. Community AMIs

16 Which EC2 instance family is optimized for compute-bound applications like high-performance web servers and batch processing?

A. I-series (Storage Optimized)
B. C-series (Compute Optimized)
C. T-series (General Purpose)
D. R-series (Memory Optimized)

17 Which EC2 instance type is ideal for applications that need high memory performance, such as in-memory databases?

A. Compute Optimized
B. Accelerated Computing
C. Memory Optimized
D. General Purpose

18 What is the primary characteristic of EC2 Spot Instances?

A. They are reserved for a 1 or 3-year term
B. They are always the most expensive option
C. They provide dedicated physical hardware
D. They offer unused EC2 capacity at a steep discount but can be interrupted

19 What is 'User Data' in the context of launching an EC2 instance?

A. The login credentials for the instance
B. The metadata tags attached to the instance
C. Scripts or commands entered during launch that run when the instance first boots
D. Data stored in the /home directory

20 What is the special IP address used to retrieve EC2 Instance Metadata from within the instance?

A. 169.254.169.254
B. 10.0.0.1
C. 127.0.0.1
D. 192.168.1.1

21 Which storage option is block-level storage that behaves like a physical hard drive attached to an EC2 instance?

A. Amazon EFS (Elastic File System)
B. Amazon Glacier
C. Amazon EBS (Elastic Block Store)
D. Amazon S3

22 What is a key availability constraint of an Amazon EBS volume?

A. It is locked to a specific Availability Zone
B. It can be attached to instances in any region
C. It is automatically replicated across all zones in a region
D. It can be accessed over the public internet directly

23 If you terminate an EC2 instance, what happens to the attached EBS root volume by default?

A. It is archived to Glacier
B. It is preserved
C. It is converted to a snapshot
D. It is deleted

24 Which EBS volume type is best for mission-critical low-latency or high-throughput workloads requiring sustained IOPS?

A. General Purpose SSD (gp2/gp3)
B. Throughput Optimized HDD (st1)
C. Cold HDD (sc1)
D. Provisioned IOPS SSD (io1/io2)

25 How can you back up an EBS volume?

A. By copying the data to RAM
B. By taking a Snapshot
C. By using S3 Object Lock
D. By converting it to an AMI

26 Which storage service is a fully managed file system that supports the Network File System (NFS) protocol and allows concurrent access from multiple EC2 instances?

A. Amazon EFS
B. Amazon EBS
C. Amazon S3
D. Amazon RDS

27 Unlike EBS, how does Amazon EFS handle storage capacity?

A. It is limited to 1 TB
B. You must provision a fixed size
C. It requires manual resizing via the console
D. It shrinks and grows automatically as you add/remove files

28 Regarding the Well-Architected Framework: Which pillar focuses on selecting the right instance type for the workload?

A. Performance Efficiency
B. Reliability
C. Security
D. Operational Excellence

29 How does using Spot Instances contribute to the 'Cost Optimization' pillar of the Well-Architected Framework?

A. They eliminate the need for storage
B. They provide the highest performance
C. They reduce costs for fault-tolerant, flexible workloads
D. They ensure 100% availability

30 Which security measure applies to the 'Security' pillar when managing EC2 instances?

A. Making all security groups open to 0.0.0.0/0
B. Turning off CloudWatch logs
C. Using the largest instance type available
D. Using IAM roles to grant permissions instead of hardcoding credentials

31 In the context of Reliability, what is the benefit of using an Auto Scaling Group with EC2?

A. It automatically encrypts data
B. It serves static content to users
C. It reduces the latency of S3 transfers
D. It ensures the correct number of instances are running to handle load and recover from failures

32 What is the maximum file size supported by Amazon S3?

A. 1 TB
B. 5 TB
C. 10 TB
D. Unlimited

33 Which tool can be used to physically migrate petabytes of data to Amazon S3 when internet transfer is too slow?

A. Amazon Kinesis
B. AWS Direct Connect
C. S3 Transfer Acceleration
D. AWS Snowball

34 A 'T3' EC2 instance utilizes what type of performance characteristic?

A. Fixed high performance
B. GPU acceleration
C. Storage optimization
D. Burstable performance

35 Which EC2 purchasing option allows you to reserve capacity for a 1 or 3-year term in exchange for a significant discount?

A. Dedicated Hosts
B. Spot Instances
C. Reserved Instances
D. On-Demand

36 To secure login access to a Linux EC2 instance, what must be created and downloaded during launch?

A. A Key Pair (.pem file)
B. A Security Group
C. A password file
D. An IAM Policy

37 Which storage service is region-resilient (stored across multiple AZs) by default?

A. EBS Snapshots (prior to 2019)
B. Amazon EBS
C. Instance Store
D. Amazon S3 Standard

38 What is 'Instance Store' (Ephemeral Storage)?

A. Permanent block storage
B. A type of S3 bucket
C. Temporary block-level storage located on disks physically attached to the host computer
D. A database service

39 EBS Multi-Attach allows you to attach a single io1/io2 volume to:

A. Multiple instances in different Regions
B. An infinite number of instances
C. Multiple instances in the same Availability Zone
D. Instances and S3 buckets simultaneously

40 Which S3 feature allows you to use SQL expressions to retrieve only a subset of data from an object?

A. S3 Intelligent-Tiering
B. S3 Select
C. S3 Glacier
D. S3 Inventory

41 If you need a static IP address for your EC2 instance that persists even if the instance is stopped and restarted, what should you use?

A. Elastic IP
B. Public IP
C. Private IP
D. Dynamic DNS

42 Which of the following is NOT a valid state for an S3 Lifecycle policy rule?

A. Transition to EBS
B. Expire (Delete)
C. Transition to Glacier
D. Transition to Standard-IA

43 In the context of EC2, what acts as a virtual firewall to control inbound and outbound traffic?

A. IAM Role
B. Security Group
C. Route Table
D. Network ACL

44 When launching an EC2 instance, which configuration determines the network location (subnet) of the instance?

A. Network settings / VPC configuration
B. Storage configuration
C. Instance type selection
D. AMI selection

45 Which storage class has the longest retrieval time (ranging from 12 to 48 hours)?

A. S3 Glacier Instant Retrieval
B. S3 Standard
C. S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval
D. S3 Glacier Deep Archive

46 For a High Performance Computing (HPC) workload requiring low network latency between instances, which placement group strategy should be used?

A. Partition
B. Spread
C. Regional
D. Cluster

47 What is the main difference between stopping and terminating an EC2 instance?

A. Stopping keeps the EBS volume and instance ID; terminating deletes the instance permanently
B. Terminating pauses billing; stopping continues billing
C. There is no difference
D. Stopping deletes the instance; terminating saves it

48 Which S3 functionality allows you to host a client-side Single Page Application (SPA)?

A. Requester Pays
B. BitTorrent Support
C. Static Website Hosting
D. S3 Transfer Acceleration

49 If you want to ensure an EC2 instance runs on physical hardware dedicated to your use (for compliance or licensing), what option do you choose?

A. On-Demand Instance
B. Spot Instance
C. Reserved Instance
D. Dedicated Host

50 Applying the 'Operational Excellence' pillar to storage, what is a best practice?

A. Manually deleting old files
B. Never monitoring storage usage
C. Using the most expensive storage tier to ensure safety
D. Using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) to provision storage resources