AWS Transit Gateway acts as a central hub for connecting multiple VPCs and on-premises networks.
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15What does AWS Site-to-Site VPN use to protect traffic between an on-premises network and a VPC?
Remote connectivity with Site-to-Site VPN and AWS Direct Connect
Easy
A.DNS forwarding rules
B.Storage access policies
C.Public HTTP sessions
D.Encrypted IPsec tunnels
Correct Answer: Encrypted IPsec tunnels
Explanation:
AWS Site-to-Site VPN uses encrypted IPsec tunnels to secure traffic over the internet.
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16What does AWS Direct Connect provide?
Remote connectivity with Site-to-Site VPN and AWS Direct Connect
Easy
A.A managed DNS hosting service
B.An encrypted object store
C.A serverless application platform
D.A dedicated network connection
Correct Answer: A dedicated network connection
Explanation:
AWS Direct Connect establishes a dedicated network connection between your network and AWS.
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17Which remote connectivity option commonly uses the public internet as its transport path?
Remote connectivity with Site-to-Site VPN and AWS Direct Connect
Easy
A.VPC peering
B.AWS Site-to-Site VPN
C.AWS PrivateLink
D.AWS Direct Connect
Correct Answer: AWS Site-to-Site VPN
Explanation:
AWS Site-to-Site VPN commonly sends encrypted traffic across the public internet.
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18Which feature records information about IP traffic flowing to and from network interfaces in a VPC?
Monitoring networks and applying Well-Architected principles
Easy
A.AWS Cost Explorer
B.Amazon Inspector
C.AWS CloudFormation
D.VPC Flow Logs
Correct Answer: VPC Flow Logs
Explanation:
VPC Flow Logs capture metadata about accepted and rejected IP traffic for VPC network interfaces.
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19Which AWS service can monitor network-related metrics and trigger alarms?
Monitoring networks and applying Well-Architected principles
Easy
A.Amazon CloudWatch
B.AWS CodeCommit
C.AWS Artifact
D.Amazon Cognito
Correct Answer: Amazon CloudWatch
Explanation:
Amazon CloudWatch collects metrics and can trigger alarms when configured thresholds are reached.
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20Which design choice supports high availability according to AWS Well-Architected principles?
Monitoring networks and applying Well-Architected principles
Easy
A.Use one public subnet only
B.Use multiple Availability Zones
C.Disable network monitoring
D.Share one administrator account
Correct Answer: Use multiple Availability Zones
Explanation:
Deploying resources across multiple Availability Zones reduces dependence on a single location.
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21A company has a VPC with CIDR block 10.0.0.0/24. It needs four equal-sized subnets: one public and one private subnet in each of two Availability Zones. Which subnet design uses the entire address range without overlap?
Amazon VPC and subnet design
Medium
A.Create two /25 and two /26 subnets
B.Create four /25 subnets
C.Create four /26 subnets
D.Create one /24 subnet in each Availability Zone and classify portions of each as public or private
Correct Answer: Create four /26 subnets
Explanation:
A /24 can be divided into four non-overlapping /26 networks, each containing 64 total IPv4 addresses.
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22Instances in a private subnet need outbound IPv4 internet access but must not accept connections initiated from the internet. Which design meets this requirement?
Amazon VPC and subnet design
Medium
A.Assign public IPv4 addresses without changing the route table
B.Route 0.0.0.0/0 to a virtual private gateway
C.Route 0.0.0.0/0 to a NAT gateway in a public subnet
D.Route 0.0.0.0/0 directly to an internet gateway
Correct Answer: Route 0.0.0.0/0 to a NAT gateway in a public subnet
Explanation:
A NAT gateway permits private instances to initiate outbound IPv4 connections. The NAT gateway's public subnet must route internet traffic to an internet gateway.
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23A security group allows inbound TCP port 443 from a corporate CIDR block. No explicit outbound rule exists for the client's ephemeral port. Why can the HTTPS response still return if outbound traffic is otherwise allowed by the security group configuration?
Securing network resources using security groups and NACLs
Medium
A.Security groups are stateful and automatically allow response traffic
B.Network ACLs automatically add rules for established connections
C.Route tables maintain session state for TCP connections
D.Security groups evaluate only inbound traffic for HTTPS sessions
Correct Answer: Security groups are stateful and automatically allow response traffic
Explanation:
Security groups are stateful. Return traffic for an allowed connection is automatically permitted regardless of the rules that would apply to a new connection.
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24A public web subnet uses a custom network ACL. Internet clients must connect to HTTPS on TCP port 443. Which pair of rules is required for basic request and response traffic?
Securing network resources using security groups and NACLs
Medium
A.Allow inbound ephemeral ports; allow outbound 443 only
Network ACLs are stateless. The inbound request uses destination port 443, while response traffic is sent to an ephemeral port on the client.
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25Web servers and application servers have separate security groups. Application servers should accept TCP port 8080 only from instances associated with the web-tier security group. Which rule is most appropriate?
Securing network resources using security groups and NACLs
Medium
A.Allow inbound 8080 from every subnet containing an active web server and manually update the CIDRs after scaling
B.Allow inbound 8080 with the web-tier security group as the source
C.Allow inbound 8080 from the entire VPC CIDR block
D.Allow outbound 8080 with the application security group as the source
Correct Answer: Allow inbound 8080 with the web-tier security group as the source
Explanation:
Referencing the web-tier security group restricts access to resources associated with that group and avoids maintaining changing IP address lists.
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26A network ACL currently allows TCP port 22 from 0.0.0.0/0 using rule 200. An administrator must block one suspicious address, 198.51.100.10, while retaining the general allow rule. What should be added?
Securing network resources using security groups and NACLs
Medium
A.A security group deny rule for the address on port 22
B.A route directing the address to the local VPC target
C.A deny rule for the address with a rule number below 200
D.A deny rule for the address with a rule number above 200
Correct Answer: A deny rule for the address with a rule number below 200
Explanation:
Network ACL rules are processed from the lowest rule number upward, and the first match is applied. The specific deny must precede the general allow.
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27EC2 instances in private subnets must access Amazon S3 without using a NAT gateway or public IP addresses. Which solution is the most appropriate?
Connecting to managed AWS services within a VPC
Medium
A.Create an internet gateway and attach it to each private subnet
B.Create an S3 gateway endpoint and update the subnet route tables
C.Create a VPC peering connection to the Amazon S3 service network
D.Create a public Application Load Balancer that forwards every S3 request through an internet gateway
Correct Answer: Create an S3 gateway endpoint and update the subnet route tables
Explanation:
An S3 gateway endpoint provides private access from a VPC to Amazon S3. Selected route tables receive a route using the endpoint as the target.
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28An application uses an AWS service through an interface VPC endpoint. The team wants the service's standard regional hostname to resolve to the endpoint's private IP addresses inside the VPC. What should be enabled?
Connecting to managed AWS services within a VPC
Medium
A.Public DNS resolution for the NAT gateway
B.Route propagation on the internet gateway
C.Private DNS for the interface endpoint
D.DNS hostnames only for public subnets
Correct Answer: Private DNS for the interface endpoint
Explanation:
Private DNS associates the service's standard hostname with private DNS records that resolve to the interface endpoint's private IP addresses.
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29A VPC has an Amazon S3 gateway endpoint, but workloads should use the endpoint to access only the bucket reports-prod. Which endpoint-level control should be configured?
Connecting to managed AWS services within a VPC
Medium
A.Apply an endpoint policy allowing only reports-prod
B.Apply a network ACL rule containing the bucket ARN
C.Apply a security group rule containing the S3 object prefix and deny every other object operation
D.Apply a route table rule naming only reports-prod
Correct Answer: Apply an endpoint policy allowing only reports-prod
Explanation:
A VPC endpoint policy can limit the AWS resources and actions accessible through that endpoint. It does not replace IAM or bucket policies.
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30VPC A is peered with VPC B, and VPC B is peered with VPC C. VPC A must communicate directly with VPC C using VPC peering. What additional configuration is required?
VPC peering and AWS Transit Gateway
Medium
A.Enable source and destination checks on the VPC B peering attachment
B.Enable route propagation through both existing peering connections
C.Add an internet gateway to VPC B to forward the traffic
D.Create a separate peering connection between VPC A and VPC C
Correct Answer: Create a separate peering connection between VPC A and VPC C
Explanation:
VPC peering is not transitive. VPC B cannot act as a router between VPC A and VPC C, so a direct peering connection is required.
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31A company connects production, development, and shared-services VPCs to AWS Transit Gateway. Development must reach shared services but must not reach production. Which design best enforces this segmentation?
VPC peering and AWS Transit Gateway
Medium
A.Use separate Transit Gateway route tables with selective propagation
B.Use a single peering connection as a transitive routing hub
C.Use the default VPC route table for every attachment
D.Use one Transit Gateway route table with full propagation
Correct Answer: Use separate Transit Gateway route tables with selective propagation
Explanation:
Transit Gateway route tables can isolate attachments and selectively advertise routes. Development can receive shared-services routes without receiving production routes.
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32Two VPCs with non-overlapping CIDR blocks have an active peering connection, but instances cannot communicate. The peering connection itself is healthy. Which configuration should be checked first?
VPC peering and AWS Transit Gateway
Medium
A.Routes on both sides and the applicable security rules
B.The NAT gateway Elastic IP addresses
C.The Transit Gateway route propagation settings
D.The internet gateway routes in both VPCs
Correct Answer: Routes on both sides and the applicable security rules
Explanation:
Each VPC needs a route to the peer CIDR through the peering connection. Security groups and network ACLs must also permit the traffic.
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33A Site-to-Site VPN connection provides two VPN tunnels. The company wants high availability and dynamic route updates. How should the connection be configured?
Remote connectivity with Site-to-Site VPN and AWS Direct Connect
Medium
A.Configure both tunnels with identical inside IP addresses
B.Configure one tunnel and leave the second tunnel unused
C.Configure both tunnels and exchange routes using BGP
D.Configure one tunnel with BGP and remove all routes from the other
Correct Answer: Configure both tunnels and exchange routes using BGP
Explanation:
AWS provides two tunnels for redundancy. Configuring both with BGP allows route updates and failover if one tunnel becomes unavailable.
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34A company has an existing Direct Connect connection that does not support MACsec. It requires encryption in transit while continuing to use the Direct Connect path. Which solution is suitable?
Remote connectivity with Site-to-Site VPN and AWS Direct Connect
Medium
A.Enable encryption directly on the private virtual interface
B.Run an IPsec Site-to-Site VPN over a Direct Connect public VIF
C.Replace the private VIF with an unencrypted public VIF and rely on the dedicated circuit to encrypt all payloads automatically
D.Require encrypted packets through a security group rule
Correct Answer: Run an IPsec Site-to-Site VPN over a Direct Connect public VIF
Explanation:
Direct Connect does not encrypt traffic by default. An IPsec Site-to-Site VPN can provide encryption while its public VPN endpoints are reached through Direct Connect.
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35A business-critical workload requires resilient Direct Connect connectivity against a device failure and the loss of an entire Direct Connect location. Which architecture best meets the requirement?
Remote connectivity with Site-to-Site VPN and AWS Direct Connect
Medium
A.Use two VLANs through one customer router
B.Use redundant connections at two Direct Connect locations
C.Use two virtual interfaces on one physical connection
D.Use one connection with a larger port capacity
Correct Answer: Use redundant connections at two Direct Connect locations
Explanation:
Connections at separate Direct Connect locations reduce dependence on a single device, circuit, or facility and provide stronger location-level resilience.
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36Users report intermittent connection failures to an EC2 instance. VPC Flow Logs are delivered to CloudWatch Logs. Which analysis is most useful for identifying whether network controls rejected the traffic?
Monitoring networks and applying Well-Architected principles
Medium
A.Query records with action ACCEPT for the VPC DNS server only
B.Query records with action REJECT for the target address and port
C.Search the logs for security group rule names, full HTTP messages, TLS certificates, and application response bodies
D.Inspect the packet payload stored in every VPC Flow Log record
Correct Answer: Query records with action REJECT for the target address and port
Explanation:
Flow Logs record metadata such as addresses, ports, protocols, and ACCEPT or REJECT actions. They do not capture packet payloads.
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37An architect wants to determine whether a proposed path from an EC2 instance to a database is blocked by routes, security groups, or network ACLs without sending test packets. Which AWS feature should be used?
Monitoring networks and applying Well-Architected principles
Medium
A.VPC Traffic Mirroring
B.AWS Direct Connect gateway
C.Amazon Route 53 Resolver
D.VPC Reachability Analyzer
Correct Answer: VPC Reachability Analyzer
Explanation:
VPC Reachability Analyzer evaluates network configuration to determine whether a path is reachable and identifies the blocking component without sending packets.
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38A VPC has private subnets in three Availability Zones, but all of them route internet-bound traffic through one NAT gateway. Which change best improves reliability and reduces cross-AZ dependency?
Monitoring networks and applying Well-Architected principles
Medium
A.Deploy a NAT gateway in each AZ and use AZ-local routes
B.Replace the NAT gateway with one internet gateway per AZ
C.Move every private subnet into the NAT gateway's AZ
D.Deploy one larger NAT gateway in the existing AZ
Correct Answer: Deploy a NAT gateway in each AZ and use AZ-local routes
Explanation:
An AZ-local NAT gateway design avoids a single-AZ dependency and reduces cross-AZ data transfer for outbound traffic.
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39IPv6-enabled instances in a private subnet must initiate outbound internet connections, but unsolicited inbound internet connections must be blocked. Which routing design should be used?
Amazon VPC and subnet design
Medium
A.Route ::/0 to an egress-only internet gateway
B.Route 0.0.0.0/0 to an egress-only internet gateway
C.Route ::/0 directly to a standard internet gateway
D.Route ::/0 to an IPv4 NAT gateway
Correct Answer: Route ::/0 to an egress-only internet gateway
Explanation:
An egress-only internet gateway allows outbound IPv6 communication while preventing internet hosts from initiating IPv6 connections to the instances.
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40A VPC's original IPv4 CIDR block has insufficient free space for new subnets. The workloads cannot immediately be migrated to another VPC. What is the most direct solution?
Amazon VPC and subnet design
Medium
A.Associate a non-overlapping secondary IPv4 CIDR with the VPC
B.Attach a second internet gateway to supply additional private addresses
C.Reuse addresses from existing subnets by adding more route tables
D.Increase the prefix size of the existing VPC CIDR in place
Correct Answer: Associate a non-overlapping secondary IPv4 CIDR with the VPC
Explanation:
A VPC can have additional non-overlapping IPv4 CIDR blocks associated with it. New subnets can then be created from the secondary CIDR.
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41An application requires 30 private IPv4 addresses for EC2 instances in each of three Availability Zones. Each subnet must also accommodate the five addresses that AWS reserves. What is the smallest subnet prefix that satisfies the requirement in each Availability Zone?
Amazon VPC and subnet design
Hard
A.A /26 subnet with 64 total addresses
B.A /25 subnet with 128 total addresses
C.A /28 subnet with 16 total addresses
D.A /27 subnet with 32 total addresses
Correct Answer: A /26 subnet with 64 total addresses
Explanation:
AWS reserves five addresses in every IPv4 subnet. A /27 provides only usable addresses, while a /26 provides , making /26 the smallest valid choice.
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42A dual-stack workload in a private subnet must initiate outbound IPv6 connections to the internet, but unsolicited inbound IPv6 connections must not reach it. IPv4 traffic already uses a NAT gateway. Which design meets the IPv6 requirement?
Amazon VPC and subnet design
Hard
A.Route ::/0 through a standard internet gateway
B.Route ::/0 through the existing NAT gateway
C.Route ::/0 through a gateway VPC endpoint
D.Route ::/0 through an egress-only internet gateway
Correct Answer: Route ::/0 through an egress-only internet gateway
Explanation:
An egress-only internet gateway permits outbound-initiated IPv6 communication and return traffic while blocking unsolicited inbound connections. NAT gateways do not provide IPv6-to-IPv6 NAT.
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43Private application subnets span three Availability Zones and require resilient outbound IPv4 internet access. The current design sends all 0.0.0.0/0 traffic to one NAT gateway in one Availability Zone. Which redesign best improves fault isolation and avoids cross-AZ NAT data paths?
Amazon VPC and subnet design
Hard
A.Deploy one NAT instance per VPC and configure an Auto Scaling group across all subnets
B.Deploy one internet gateway per Availability Zone and attach each gateway to the VPC
C.Deploy two NAT gateways in one Availability Zone and use equal-cost default routes
D.Deploy one NAT gateway per Availability Zone and update each subnet's route table locally
Correct Answer: Deploy one NAT gateway per Availability Zone and update each subnet's route table locally
Explanation:
A NAT gateway is Availability Zone scoped. Routing each private subnet to a NAT gateway in the same Availability Zone limits cross-AZ charges and preserves outbound access when another zone fails.
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44A client at 10.0.1.10 connects to an HTTPS server at 10.0.2.20. The server security group allows inbound TCP 443 from the client security group. Both subnets use restrictive custom NACLs. Which NACL configuration is necessary for the connection?
Securing network resources using security groups and NACLs
Hard
A.Allow TCP 443 toward the server and ephemeral TCP ports toward the client
B.Allow ephemeral TCP ports toward the server and TCP 443 toward the client
C.Allow all TCP inbound and only TCP 443 outbound on both NACLs
D.Allow TCP 443 in both directions on both subnet NACLs
Correct Answer: Allow TCP 443 toward the server and ephemeral TCP ports toward the client
Explanation:
NACLs are stateless. The forward path uses destination port 443 at the server, while the return path uses the client's ephemeral destination port. Both directions must be explicitly permitted.
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45A subnet NACL contains rule 100 allowing TCP 443 from 0.0.0.0/0, rule 110 denying TCP 443 from 198.51.100.0/24, and the default deny rule. What happens to an HTTPS packet from 198.51.100.25?
Securing network resources using security groups and NACLs
Hard
A.It is denied because the more specific CIDR takes precedence
B.It is allowed because the lowest-numbered matching rule is applied
C.It is allowed only if the instance security group references the subnet
D.It is denied because explicit deny rules override allow rules
Correct Answer: It is allowed because the lowest-numbered matching rule is applied
Explanation:
NACL rules are evaluated in ascending rule-number order, and evaluation stops at the first match. Rule 100 matches before rule 110, so the packet is allowed.
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46An administrator removes an inbound security group rule while several established TCP sessions are active. No NACL or route changes occur. Which behavior should be expected?
Securing network resources using security groups and NACLs
Hard
A.Existing sessions are interrupted because security group rule changes apply to tracked traffic
B.Existing sessions continue until the security group's hourly state-table refresh
C.Existing sessions are interrupted only if an equivalent outbound rule is also removed
D.Existing sessions continue because security groups never reevaluate tracked connections
Correct Answer: Existing sessions are interrupted because security group rule changes apply to tracked traffic
Explanation:
Security groups are stateful, but rule changes are automatically applied to associated resources. Removing the rule can terminate traffic that was previously allowed, including established tracked flows.
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47A security team must immediately block one known malicious IPv4 address from every resource in a subnet. Existing security groups contain broad allow rules. Which control can express the required explicit deny without rewriting every security group?
Securing network resources using security groups and NACLs
Hard
A.Add a deny rule for the address to a shared security group
B.Add a deny rule for the address to the subnet NACL
C.Remove the local route for the address from the VPC route table
D.Add a blackhole entry for the address to the security group
Correct Answer: Add a deny rule for the address to the subnet NACL
Explanation:
Security groups support only allow rules, whereas NACLs support explicit allow and deny rules at subnet boundaries. The deny must have a lower rule number than any overlapping allow.
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48Instances in private subnets must access Amazon S3 without NAT gateways. The architecture must avoid hourly endpoint charges, and access must be restricted to a designated bucket using endpoint policy controls. Which solution is appropriate?
Connecting to managed AWS services within a VPC
Hard
A.Create an S3 interface endpoint with private DNS disabled
B.Create an S3 gateway endpoint and update the subnet route tables
C.Create an internet gateway and add only the designated S3 public prefixes
D.Create an AWS PrivateLink endpoint service backed by a Network Load Balancer
Correct Answer: Create an S3 gateway endpoint and update the subnet route tables
Explanation:
An S3 gateway endpoint adds service-prefix routes to selected route tables, supports endpoint policies, and has no hourly charge. It keeps supported S3 traffic on the AWS network.
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49An on-premises application connected through AWS Direct Connect must privately access Amazon S3 through a VPC endpoint. The application cannot use public S3 IP addresses. Which endpoint design supports this access pattern?
Connecting to managed AWS services within a VPC
Hard
A.An S3 interface endpoint reached through its private IP addresses
B.An S3 gateway endpoint propagated through an AWS Transit Gateway
C.An S3 public endpoint translated by an egress-only internet gateway
D.An S3 gateway endpoint advertised through the Direct Connect gateway
Correct Answer: An S3 interface endpoint reached through its private IP addresses
Explanation:
Gateway endpoints cannot be extended through Direct Connect, VPN, peering, or Transit Gateway. An S3 interface endpoint creates private ENIs that on-premises clients can reach through private connectivity and appropriate DNS.
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50A VPC has private DNS enabled for an AWS interface endpoint. EC2 instances resolve the service's standard regional hostname to the endpoint's private IP addresses. On-premises clients connected by VPN still use public DNS answers. What should be added to provide consistent private resolution?
Connecting to managed AWS services within a VPC
Hard
A.A private hosted zone associated only with the on-premises DNS server
B.A gateway endpoint whose prefix list is advertised over the VPN connection
C.A Route 53 Resolver inbound endpoint and an on-premises conditional forwarder
D.A Route 53 Resolver outbound endpoint and an AWS-managed reverse lookup zone
Correct Answer: A Route 53 Resolver inbound endpoint and an on-premises conditional forwarder
Explanation:
An inbound Resolver endpoint lets on-premises DNS servers forward selected AWS service queries into the VPC. The VPC resolver can then return the interface endpoint's private DNS answers.
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51VPC A is peered with VPC B, and VPC B is peered with VPC C. The CIDR blocks do not overlap. Instances in VPC A must communicate privately with instances in VPC C. Which change is required?
VPC peering and AWS Transit Gateway
Hard
A.Add routes through VPC B because peering supports transitive routing
B.Create direct A-to-C connectivity or attach the VPCs to a transit gateway
C.Enable route propagation on both existing peering connections
D.Reference VPC C's security group in VPC A's existing peering route
Correct Answer: Create direct A-to-C connectivity or attach the VPCs to a transit gateway
Explanation:
VPC peering is non-transitive; VPC B cannot route traffic between its peers. A direct peering connection or a transit gateway topology is required for A-to-C communication.
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52A company uses one transit gateway for production, development, and shared-services VPCs. Production and development must both reach shared services, but they must not reach each other. Which design enforces this at the transit gateway?
VPC peering and AWS Transit Gateway
Hard
A.Create full-mesh VPC peering and retain the transit gateway for shared services
B.Associate every attachment with one route table and rely on security groups
C.Use separate route tables for production and development with only shared-services routes
D.Propagate every attachment into all route tables and add more-specific default routes
Correct Answer: Use separate route tables for production and development with only shared-services routes
Explanation:
Transit gateway route-table associations and propagations can create isolated routing domains. Each environment receives routes to shared services without receiving a route to the other environment.
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53Traffic between spoke VPCs is inspected by a stateful firewall appliance fleet behind a Gateway Load Balancer in an inspection VPC. Intermittent failures occur because forward and return flows reach appliances in different Availability Zones. Which transit gateway feature addresses this issue?
VPC peering and AWS Transit Gateway
Hard
A.Security group referencing on every transit gateway attachment
B.Appliance mode on the inspection VPC attachment
C.Multicast mode on every spoke VPC attachment
D.Equal-cost multipath on the inspection route table
Correct Answer: Appliance mode on the inspection VPC attachment
Explanation:
Transit Gateway appliance mode preserves flow symmetry through the same Availability Zone for the lifetime of a flow, which is required by many stateful inspection appliances.
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54Two VPCs both use the IPv4 CIDR block 10.20.0.0/16 and must exchange traffic without renumbering either VPC. Which statement about directly connecting them is correct?
VPC peering and AWS Transit Gateway
Hard
A.Transit Gateway works if static routes override propagated routes
B.VPC peering works if source and destination checks are disabled
C.Neither peering nor Transit Gateway directly resolves the overlapping addresses
D.VPC peering works if each side installs more-specific subnet routes
Correct Answer: Neither peering nor Transit Gateway directly resolves the overlapping addresses
Explanation:
Overlapping CIDRs prevent normal routing between the VPCs through peering or Transit Gateway. The design requires renumbering or an address-translation or proxy layer.
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55A company needs consistent private connectivity from its data center to AWS, but all application traffic must be encrypted in transit at the IP layer. A Direct Connect connection is available. Which architecture best meets both requirements?
Remote connectivity with Site-to-Site VPN and AWS Direct Connect
Hard
A.Enable VPC Flow Logs because logged traffic is encrypted before transmission
B.Use a public virtual interface because BGP advertisements provide IPsec encryption
C.Use a private virtual interface because Direct Connect encrypts all frames automatically
D.Establish an IPsec Site-to-Site VPN over the Direct Connect private connectivity
Correct Answer: Establish an IPsec Site-to-Site VPN over the Direct Connect private connectivity
Explanation:
Direct Connect provides dedicated private connectivity but does not inherently provide IPsec encryption. A VPN over Direct Connect combines the dedicated path with IP-layer encryption.
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56A Site-to-Site VPN uses dynamic routing and includes two IPsec tunnels. The customer gateway currently establishes BGP only on the preferred tunnel. What configuration best aligns with AWS high-availability guidance?
Remote connectivity with Site-to-Site VPN and AWS Direct Connect
Hard
A.Establish BGP on one tunnel and configure the second with static routes
B.Use identical tunnel inside addresses so BGP treats both paths equally
C.Establish BGP on both tunnels and allow either tunnel to carry traffic
D.Disable the second tunnel to prevent asymmetric return traffic
Correct Answer: Establish BGP on both tunnels and allow either tunnel to carry traffic
Explanation:
Each AWS Site-to-Site VPN connection provides two tunnels for redundancy. Configuring both tunnels with BGP allows routing to reconverge when a tunnel or AWS endpoint is unavailable.
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57A company has VPCs in several AWS Regions and wants one set of Direct Connect connections to reach them through private virtual interfaces. Which design provides the intended multi-Region association?
Remote connectivity with Site-to-Site VPN and AWS Direct Connect
Hard
A.Peer all VPCs and attach the private virtual interface to one peered VPC
B.Associate a Direct Connect gateway with virtual private gateways or transit gateways
C.Attach every private virtual interface directly to each regional internet gateway
D.Propagate the Direct Connect routes through regional gateway VPC endpoints
Correct Answer: Associate a Direct Connect gateway with virtual private gateways or transit gateways
Explanation:
A Direct Connect gateway can associate private connectivity with supported virtual private gateways or transit gateways across Regions, subject to routing and association constraints.
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58Security analysts need the full contents of selected packets from an EC2 instance to investigate an application-layer protocol anomaly. Which AWS networking capability provides the required data?
Monitoring networks and applying Well-Architected principles
Hard
A.Traffic Mirroring sent to a packet-analysis appliance
B.CloudTrail data events recorded for the VPC endpoint
C.Reachability Analyzer evaluated between the two ENIs
D.VPC Flow Logs delivered to CloudWatch Logs
Correct Answer: Traffic Mirroring sent to a packet-analysis appliance
Explanation:
Traffic Mirroring copies network packets from supported elastic network interfaces to analysis tools. VPC Flow Logs contain flow metadata, not packet payloads.
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59An engineer must determine whether security groups, NACLs, routes, and gateway configuration permit connectivity between two ENIs. Sending test packets is prohibited. Which service is most appropriate?
Monitoring networks and applying Well-Architected principles
Hard
A.Amazon Inspector
B.VPC Traffic Mirroring
C.VPC Reachability Analyzer
D.AWS Network Firewall
Correct Answer: VPC Reachability Analyzer
Explanation:
Reachability Analyzer performs configuration-based path analysis without sending packets. It identifies the component that permits or blocks the modeled path.
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60VPC Flow Logs show REJECT records for traffic targeting TCP 443 on an instance. The instance security group allows the source, but the subnet NACL denies the packet. Can the flow-log record alone identify the NACL as the rejecting control?
Monitoring networks and applying Well-Architected principles
Hard
A.Yes, because security group rejects and NACL rejects use different action values
B.No, because the action indicates rejection but not the exact rejecting control
C.Yes, because every REJECT record includes the matching NACL rule number
D.No, because VPC Flow Logs record accepted traffic but omit rejected traffic
Correct Answer: No, because the action indicates rejection but not the exact rejecting control
Explanation:
Flow Logs can show that traffic was rejected, but the record does not directly identify the specific security group or NACL rule responsible. Configuration analysis is still required.
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