Unit 4 - Practice Quiz

INT364

1 Which of the following best describes the primary use case for a Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) in the cloud?

A. Storing unstructured media files like images and videos
B. Managing complex relationships with structured data and schemas
C. High-speed ingestion of time-series telemetry data
D. Storing simple key-value pairs with flexible schemas

2 In the context of Amazon RDS, what is the primary responsibility of AWS under the Shared Responsibility Model?

A. Optimizing application SQL queries
B. Managing database users and permissions
C. OS patching and hardware maintenance
D. Designing the database schema

3 Which Amazon RDS feature provides a fully managed, highly available database proxy that manages thousands of concurrent connections to relational databases?

A. Amazon RDS Multi-AZ
B. Amazon RDS Proxy
C. Amazon ElastiCache
D. AWS Global Accelerator

4 When configuring Amazon RDS, which deployment option should be selected to ensure high availability and automatic failover during a hardware outage?

A. Read Replica
B. Multi-AZ Deployment
C. Single-AZ Deployment
D. Cross-Region Snapshot

5 Which of the following database engines is NOT available as a managed service within Amazon RDS?

A. MariaDB
B. PostgreSQL
C. IBM Db2
D. Oracle

6 What happens to the I/O operations of a Single-AZ Amazon RDS instance during a database snapshot?

A. I/O operations are suspended briefly while the backup is initiated
B. There is no impact on I/O operations
C. The database shuts down completely
D. The database switches to read-only mode

7 To improve the read performance of a heavy read-intensive application using Amazon RDS, which feature should be implemented?

A. Enable Multi-AZ deployment
B. Increase the instance size
C. Create Read Replicas
D. Use Amazon S3 for storage

8 What is the maximum retention period for Amazon RDS automated backups?

A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 35 days
D. 90 days

9 Which Amazon RDS feature allows you to revert the database to any specific second during the retention period?

A. Snapshot Restore
B. Point-in-Time Recovery
C. Lazy Loading
D. Atomic Rollback

10 Amazon DynamoDB is best categorized as which type of database?

A. Relational Database
B. Key-Value and Document Database
C. Graph Database
D. Time-Series Database

11 Which Amazon Aurora feature allows the database to automatically start up, shut down, and scale capacity based on application needs?

A. Aurora Global Database
B. Aurora Serverless
C. Aurora Multi-Master
D. Aurora Parallel Query

12 A developer needs to store session state data that requires sub-millisecond latency. Which AWS service is best suited for this?

A. Amazon RDS
B. Amazon Redshift
C. Amazon ElastiCache
D. Amazon Neptune

13 When migrating a schema from a proprietary database (like Oracle) to an open-source engine (like PostgreSQL) on AWS, which tool assists in converting the schema?

A. AWS DataSync
B. AWS Schema Conversion Tool (SCT)
C. AWS Database Migration Service (DMS)
D. AWS Storage Gateway

14 Which AWS service is specifically designed for analyzing relationships between highly connected data, such as social networks?

A. Amazon DynamoDB
B. Amazon Neptune
C. Amazon Aurora
D. Amazon Timestream

15 What is the primary difference between Amazon RDS Multi-AZ and Read Replicas regarding data replication?

A. Multi-AZ uses asynchronous replication; Read Replicas use synchronous replication
B. Multi-AZ uses synchronous replication; Read Replicas use asynchronous replication
C. Both use synchronous replication
D. Both use asynchronous replication

16 In Amazon DynamoDB, which capacity mode is best suited for unpredictable workloads with sudden traffic spikes?

A. Provisioned Capacity
B. On-Demand Capacity
C. Reserved Capacity
D. Fixed Capacity

17 Which Well-Architected principle is applied when using Amazon RDS IAM Authentication instead of hardcoded database passwords?

A. Performance Efficiency
B. Cost Optimization
C. Security
D. Sustainability

18 Which AWS database service is serverless, fully managed, and specifically designed for time-series data?

A. Amazon QLDB
B. Amazon Timestream
C. Amazon DocumentDB
D. Amazon Redshift

19 A company requires a database that provides an immutable, cryptographically verifiable log of data changes. Which service should they choose?

A. Amazon QLDB
B. Amazon DynamoDB
C. Amazon RDS
D. Amazon Aurora

20 When performing a heterogeneous database migration using AWS DMS, what role does the Replication Instance play?

A. It converts the schema
B. It stores the long-term backup
C. It connects to source and target to facilitate data transfer
D. It acts as the final database server

21 Which feature of Amazon Aurora allows it to create a clone of a production database in seconds without copying the data initially?

A. Backtrack
B. Database Cloning
C. Global Database
D. Parallel Query

22 To encrypt Amazon RDS data at rest, what service is integrated with RDS?

A. AWS WAF
B. AWS Shield
C. AWS KMS (Key Management Service)
D. AWS Certificate Manager

23 What is the result of promoting an Amazon RDS Read Replica?

A. It becomes a standalone primary DB instance
B. It is deleted immediately
C. It replaces the original Multi-AZ standby
D. It becomes a backup archive

24 Which Amazon DynamoDB feature enables in-memory caching for read-heavy workloads, reducing latency from milliseconds to microseconds?

A. DynamoDB Streams
B. Global Tables
C. DAX (DynamoDB Accelerator)
D. Point-in-Time Recovery

25 Under the Well-Architected Framework's 'Reliability' pillar, how does Amazon Aurora store data?

A. Two copies in one Availability Zone
B. Three copies across two Availability Zones
C. Six copies across three Availability Zones
D. One copy in S3

26 Which option allows a database administrator to securely manage database credentials without embedding them in application code?

A. AWS Secrets Manager
B. Amazon S3 Buckets
C. EC2 User Data
D. RDS Parameter Groups

27 Which AWS database service is fully compatible with MongoDB workloads?

A. Amazon Neptune
B. Amazon DocumentDB
C. Amazon DynamoDB
D. Amazon Redshift

28 For a global application requiring low-latency local reads and writes in multiple regions, which DynamoDB feature is appropriate?

A. DynamoDB Global Tables
B. Cross-Region Replication
C. Read Replicas
D. VPC Endpoints

29 When migrating a database using AWS DMS, what is 'CDC'?

A. Cloud Database Connector
B. Change Data Capture
C. Continuous Data Copy
D. Complete Database Creation

30 Which RDS feature allows you to control the parameters and configuration settings that apply to a DB instance?

A. DB Security Groups
B. DB Subnet Groups
C. DB Parameter Groups
D. DB Option Groups

31 What is the recommended method to allow an EC2 instance to connect to an RDS database within a VPC?

A. Allow 0.0.0.0/0 in the RDS Security Group
B. Configure VPC Peering
C. Allow the EC2 Security Group ID in the RDS Security Group inbound rules
D. Use a public IP address

32 Which database service is a Petabyte-scale data warehouse used for Online Analytical Processing (OLAP)?

A. Amazon RDS
B. Amazon Redshift
C. Amazon DynamoDB
D. Amazon Aurora

33 In the context of 'Cost Optimization', what is a benefit of using Amazon Aurora I/O-Optimized configuration?

A. It eliminates storage costs entirely
B. It offers predictable pricing for write-heavy applications by removing I/O charges
C. It provides free reserved instances
D. It reduces the cost of data transfer out to the internet

34 Which AWS service allows you to run Apache Cassandra workloads with a managed serverless experience?

A. Amazon Keyspaces
B. Amazon Neptune
C. Amazon ElastiCache
D. Amazon RDS for Cassandra

35 What happens to the automated backups of an RDS instance if the instance is deleted without a final snapshot?

A. They are archived to Glacier
B. They are deleted immediately
C. They are kept for 7 days
D. They are converted to manual snapshots

36 How does Amazon DynamoDB Streams facilitate event-driven architectures?

A. By directly querying S3
B. By capturing a time-ordered sequence of item-level modifications
C. By sending emails via SES
D. By balancing load across regions

37 Which mechanism ensures that an RDS database is deployed in a private network and not accessible from the public internet?

A. Deploying in a Public Subnet with an Internet Gateway
B. Deploying in a Private Subnet without a Public IP
C. Using IAM Users
D. Enabling Multi-AZ

38 When applying 'Performance Efficiency' to a database layer, what does 'Selection' refer to?

A. Selecting the cheapest option
B. Choosing the right database engine (SQL vs NoSQL) for the workload
C. Selecting the region with the most availability zones
D. Selecting the backup retention period

39 What is the primary function of a DB Subnet Group in Amazon RDS?

A. To define the firewall rules
B. To specify which Availability Zones and subnets the DB instance can use
C. To group databases for billing
D. To manage database passwords

40 Which Amazon RDS engine supports the 'Backtrack' feature to rewind the database cluster to a specific time without restoring from a backup?

A. Amazon Aurora MySQL
B. Amazon RDS for Oracle
C. Amazon RDS for SQL Server
D. Amazon RDS for MariaDB

41 For a read-heavy workload on DynamoDB, which error indicates that the provisioned throughput has been exceeded?

A. HTTP 500 Internal Server Error
B. AccessDeniedException
C. ProvisionedThroughputExceededException
D. ItemNotFoundException

42 Which tool can efficiently move large amounts of data (Exabytes) from on-premises to AWS offline, useful for initial large-scale database migrations?

A. AWS Snowmobile
B. AWS Direct Connect
C. AWS VPN
D. AWS DMS

43 In terms of connection management, what is a 'Connection Storm'?

A. A sudden spike in the number of connection requests to the database
B. A loss of internet connectivity
C. A firewall blocking all connections
D. Replication lag increasing

44 Which scaling strategy involves changing the instance type of an RDS database (e.g., from t3.medium to r5.large)?

A. Horizontal Scaling
B. Vertical Scaling
C. Diagonal Scaling
D. Sharding

45 What is the purpose of the 'Primary Key' in Amazon DynamoDB?

A. To encrypt the table
B. To uniquely identify each item in the table
C. To define the table schema
D. To link to other tables

46 When migrating a database to AWS, which strategy involves moving the application and database with minimal changes?

A. Re-architecting
B. Re-platforming
C. Re-hosting (Lift and Shift)
D. Retiring

47 Which Aurora feature allows a single database to span multiple AWS Regions with low-latency replication?

A. Aurora Global Database
B. Aurora Multi-Master
C. Aurora Serverless
D. Cross-Region Snapshots

48 How does Amazon RDS Storage Auto Scaling work?

A. It adds Read Replicas when storage is full
B. It automatically increases the storage size when free space runs low
C. It deletes old data to make room
D. It compresses data automatically

49 Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using managed database services like RDS over self-managed databases on EC2?

A. Automated backups
B. Automatic software patching
C. Full control over the operating system kernel
D. High availability setup ease

50 When utilizing Amazon Redshift for data warehousing, what is the role of 'Spectrum'?

A. To manage user access
B. To query data directly in Amazon S3 without loading it into Redshift
C. To encrypt data
D. To backup data to Glacier