Unit 4 - Practice Quiz

INT364 50 Questions
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1 Which of the following best describes the primary use case for a Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) in the cloud?

A. High-speed ingestion of time-series telemetry data
B. Managing complex relationships with structured data and schemas
C. Storing unstructured media files like images and videos
D. Storing simple key-value pairs with flexible schemas

2 In the context of Amazon RDS, what is the primary responsibility of AWS under the Shared Responsibility Model?

A. Designing the database schema
B. Optimizing application SQL queries
C. OS patching and hardware maintenance
D. Managing database users and permissions

3 Which Amazon RDS feature provides a fully managed, highly available database proxy that manages thousands of concurrent connections to relational databases?

A. AWS Global Accelerator
B. Amazon ElastiCache
C. Amazon RDS Proxy
D. Amazon RDS Multi-AZ

4 When configuring Amazon RDS, which deployment option should be selected to ensure high availability and automatic failover during a hardware outage?

A. Read Replica
B. Cross-Region Snapshot
C. Single-AZ Deployment
D. Multi-AZ Deployment

5 Which of the following database engines is NOT available as a managed service within Amazon RDS?

A. Oracle
B. PostgreSQL
C. IBM Db2
D. MariaDB

6 What happens to the I/O operations of a Single-AZ Amazon RDS instance during a database snapshot?

A. I/O operations are suspended briefly while the backup is initiated
B. The database shuts down completely
C. There is no impact on I/O operations
D. The database switches to read-only mode

7 To improve the read performance of a heavy read-intensive application using Amazon RDS, which feature should be implemented?

A. Enable Multi-AZ deployment
B. Create Read Replicas
C. Use Amazon S3 for storage
D. Increase the instance size

8 What is the maximum retention period for Amazon RDS automated backups?

A. 35 days
B. 90 days
C. 14 days
D. 7 days

9 Which Amazon RDS feature allows you to revert the database to any specific second during the retention period?

A. Point-in-Time Recovery
B. Snapshot Restore
C. Lazy Loading
D. Atomic Rollback

10 Amazon DynamoDB is best categorized as which type of database?

A. Graph Database
B. Relational Database
C. Key-Value and Document Database
D. Time-Series Database

11 Which Amazon Aurora feature allows the database to automatically start up, shut down, and scale capacity based on application needs?

A. Aurora Global Database
B. Aurora Serverless
C. Aurora Parallel Query
D. Aurora Multi-Master

12 A developer needs to store session state data that requires sub-millisecond latency. Which AWS service is best suited for this?

A. Amazon ElastiCache
B. Amazon RDS
C. Amazon Neptune
D. Amazon Redshift

13 When migrating a schema from a proprietary database (like Oracle) to an open-source engine (like PostgreSQL) on AWS, which tool assists in converting the schema?

A. AWS Database Migration Service (DMS)
B. AWS DataSync
C. AWS Storage Gateway
D. AWS Schema Conversion Tool (SCT)

14 Which AWS service is specifically designed for analyzing relationships between highly connected data, such as social networks?

A. Amazon Neptune
B. Amazon Aurora
C. Amazon DynamoDB
D. Amazon Timestream

15 What is the primary difference between Amazon RDS Multi-AZ and Read Replicas regarding data replication?

A. Multi-AZ uses synchronous replication; Read Replicas use asynchronous replication
B. Multi-AZ uses asynchronous replication; Read Replicas use synchronous replication
C. Both use asynchronous replication
D. Both use synchronous replication

16 In Amazon DynamoDB, which capacity mode is best suited for unpredictable workloads with sudden traffic spikes?

A. On-Demand Capacity
B. Fixed Capacity
C. Reserved Capacity
D. Provisioned Capacity

17 Which Well-Architected principle is applied when using Amazon RDS IAM Authentication instead of hardcoded database passwords?

A. Security
B. Cost Optimization
C. Performance Efficiency
D. Sustainability

18 Which AWS database service is serverless, fully managed, and specifically designed for time-series data?

A. Amazon DocumentDB
B. Amazon QLDB
C. Amazon Timestream
D. Amazon Redshift

19 A company requires a database that provides an immutable, cryptographically verifiable log of data changes. Which service should they choose?

A. Amazon DynamoDB
B. Amazon QLDB
C. Amazon Aurora
D. Amazon RDS

20 When performing a heterogeneous database migration using AWS DMS, what role does the Replication Instance play?

A. It stores the long-term backup
B. It converts the schema
C. It connects to source and target to facilitate data transfer
D. It acts as the final database server

21 Which feature of Amazon Aurora allows it to create a clone of a production database in seconds without copying the data initially?

A. Parallel Query
B. Backtrack
C. Database Cloning
D. Global Database

22 To encrypt Amazon RDS data at rest, what service is integrated with RDS?

A. AWS WAF
B. AWS Certificate Manager
C. AWS Shield
D. AWS KMS (Key Management Service)

23 What is the result of promoting an Amazon RDS Read Replica?

A. It becomes a standalone primary DB instance
B. It is deleted immediately
C. It becomes a backup archive
D. It replaces the original Multi-AZ standby

24 Which Amazon DynamoDB feature enables in-memory caching for read-heavy workloads, reducing latency from milliseconds to microseconds?

A. DynamoDB Streams
B. Point-in-Time Recovery
C. Global Tables
D. DAX (DynamoDB Accelerator)

25 Under the Well-Architected Framework's 'Reliability' pillar, how does Amazon Aurora store data?

A. Three copies across two Availability Zones
B. Two copies in one Availability Zone
C. Six copies across three Availability Zones
D. One copy in S3

26 Which option allows a database administrator to securely manage database credentials without embedding them in application code?

A. Amazon S3 Buckets
B. RDS Parameter Groups
C. EC2 User Data
D. AWS Secrets Manager

27 Which AWS database service is fully compatible with MongoDB workloads?

A. Amazon Redshift
B. Amazon DynamoDB
C. Amazon Neptune
D. Amazon DocumentDB

28 For a global application requiring low-latency local reads and writes in multiple regions, which DynamoDB feature is appropriate?

A. VPC Endpoints
B. Read Replicas
C. DynamoDB Global Tables
D. Cross-Region Replication

29 When migrating a database using AWS DMS, what is 'CDC'?

A. Change Data Capture
B. Cloud Database Connector
C. Complete Database Creation
D. Continuous Data Copy

30 Which RDS feature allows you to control the parameters and configuration settings that apply to a DB instance?

A. DB Option Groups
B. DB Subnet Groups
C. DB Security Groups
D. DB Parameter Groups

31 What is the recommended method to allow an EC2 instance to connect to an RDS database within a VPC?

A. Use a public IP address
B. Allow 0.0.0.0/0 in the RDS Security Group
C. Allow the EC2 Security Group ID in the RDS Security Group inbound rules
D. Configure VPC Peering

32 Which database service is a Petabyte-scale data warehouse used for Online Analytical Processing (OLAP)?

A. Amazon DynamoDB
B. Amazon Aurora
C. Amazon Redshift
D. Amazon RDS

33 In the context of 'Cost Optimization', what is a benefit of using Amazon Aurora I/O-Optimized configuration?

A. It eliminates storage costs entirely
B. It reduces the cost of data transfer out to the internet
C. It offers predictable pricing for write-heavy applications by removing I/O charges
D. It provides free reserved instances

34 Which AWS service allows you to run Apache Cassandra workloads with a managed serverless experience?

A. Amazon RDS for Cassandra
B. Amazon Keyspaces
C. Amazon Neptune
D. Amazon ElastiCache

35 What happens to the automated backups of an RDS instance if the instance is deleted without a final snapshot?

A. They are deleted immediately
B. They are converted to manual snapshots
C. They are kept for 7 days
D. They are archived to Glacier

36 How does Amazon DynamoDB Streams facilitate event-driven architectures?

A. By balancing load across regions
B. By capturing a time-ordered sequence of item-level modifications
C. By sending emails via SES
D. By directly querying S3

37 Which mechanism ensures that an RDS database is deployed in a private network and not accessible from the public internet?

A. Deploying in a Private Subnet without a Public IP
B. Using IAM Users
C. Deploying in a Public Subnet with an Internet Gateway
D. Enabling Multi-AZ

38 When applying 'Performance Efficiency' to a database layer, what does 'Selection' refer to?

A. Selecting the region with the most availability zones
B. Selecting the cheapest option
C. Choosing the right database engine (SQL vs NoSQL) for the workload
D. Selecting the backup retention period

39 What is the primary function of a DB Subnet Group in Amazon RDS?

A. To group databases for billing
B. To specify which Availability Zones and subnets the DB instance can use
C. To manage database passwords
D. To define the firewall rules

40 Which Amazon RDS engine supports the 'Backtrack' feature to rewind the database cluster to a specific time without restoring from a backup?

A. Amazon RDS for MariaDB
B. Amazon RDS for SQL Server
C. Amazon Aurora MySQL
D. Amazon RDS for Oracle

41 For a read-heavy workload on DynamoDB, which error indicates that the provisioned throughput has been exceeded?

A. AccessDeniedException
B. ItemNotFoundException
C. ProvisionedThroughputExceededException
D. HTTP 500 Internal Server Error

42 Which tool can efficiently move large amounts of data (Exabytes) from on-premises to AWS offline, useful for initial large-scale database migrations?

A. AWS VPN
B. AWS DMS
C. AWS Snowmobile
D. AWS Direct Connect

43 In terms of connection management, what is a 'Connection Storm'?

A. A firewall blocking all connections
B. A loss of internet connectivity
C. Replication lag increasing
D. A sudden spike in the number of connection requests to the database

44 Which scaling strategy involves changing the instance type of an RDS database (e.g., from t3.medium to r5.large)?

A. Vertical Scaling
B. Diagonal Scaling
C. Horizontal Scaling
D. Sharding

45 What is the purpose of the 'Primary Key' in Amazon DynamoDB?

A. To encrypt the table
B. To define the table schema
C. To uniquely identify each item in the table
D. To link to other tables

46 When migrating a database to AWS, which strategy involves moving the application and database with minimal changes?

A. Re-architecting
B. Retiring
C. Re-platforming
D. Re-hosting (Lift and Shift)

47 Which Aurora feature allows a single database to span multiple AWS Regions with low-latency replication?

A. Aurora Serverless
B. Aurora Multi-Master
C. Aurora Global Database
D. Cross-Region Snapshots

48 How does Amazon RDS Storage Auto Scaling work?

A. It compresses data automatically
B. It automatically increases the storage size when free space runs low
C. It adds Read Replicas when storage is full
D. It deletes old data to make room

49 Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using managed database services like RDS over self-managed databases on EC2?

A. Automatic software patching
B. Automated backups
C. Full control over the operating system kernel
D. High availability setup ease

50 When utilizing Amazon Redshift for data warehousing, what is the role of 'Spectrum'?

A. To encrypt data
B. To query data directly in Amazon S3 without loading it into Redshift
C. To manage user access
D. To backup data to Glacier