Unit 4 - Practice Quiz

INT364 50 Questions
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1 Which of the following best describes the primary use case for a Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) in the cloud?

A. Storing simple key-value pairs with flexible schemas
B. Storing unstructured media files like images and videos
C. Managing complex relationships with structured data and schemas
D. High-speed ingestion of time-series telemetry data

2 In the context of Amazon RDS, what is the primary responsibility of AWS under the Shared Responsibility Model?

A. Designing the database schema
B. OS patching and hardware maintenance
C. Optimizing application SQL queries
D. Managing database users and permissions

3 Which Amazon RDS feature provides a fully managed, highly available database proxy that manages thousands of concurrent connections to relational databases?

A. Amazon RDS Multi-AZ
B. Amazon RDS Proxy
C. AWS Global Accelerator
D. Amazon ElastiCache

4 When configuring Amazon RDS, which deployment option should be selected to ensure high availability and automatic failover during a hardware outage?

A. Single-AZ Deployment
B. Multi-AZ Deployment
C. Cross-Region Snapshot
D. Read Replica

5 Which of the following database engines is NOT available as a managed service within Amazon RDS?

A. MariaDB
B. IBM Db2
C. Oracle
D. PostgreSQL

6 What happens to the I/O operations of a Single-AZ Amazon RDS instance during a database snapshot?

A. There is no impact on I/O operations
B. The database shuts down completely
C. I/O operations are suspended briefly while the backup is initiated
D. The database switches to read-only mode

7 To improve the read performance of a heavy read-intensive application using Amazon RDS, which feature should be implemented?

A. Use Amazon S3 for storage
B. Create Read Replicas
C. Enable Multi-AZ deployment
D. Increase the instance size

8 What is the maximum retention period for Amazon RDS automated backups?

A. 35 days
B. 7 days
C. 14 days
D. 90 days

9 Which Amazon RDS feature allows you to revert the database to any specific second during the retention period?

A. Snapshot Restore
B. Point-in-Time Recovery
C. Lazy Loading
D. Atomic Rollback

10 Amazon DynamoDB is best categorized as which type of database?

A. Time-Series Database
B. Key-Value and Document Database
C. Graph Database
D. Relational Database

11 Which Amazon Aurora feature allows the database to automatically start up, shut down, and scale capacity based on application needs?

A. Aurora Multi-Master
B. Aurora Parallel Query
C. Aurora Global Database
D. Aurora Serverless

12 A developer needs to store session state data that requires sub-millisecond latency. Which AWS service is best suited for this?

A. Amazon RDS
B. Amazon ElastiCache
C. Amazon Redshift
D. Amazon Neptune

13 When migrating a schema from a proprietary database (like Oracle) to an open-source engine (like PostgreSQL) on AWS, which tool assists in converting the schema?

A. AWS Storage Gateway
B. AWS Schema Conversion Tool (SCT)
C. AWS DataSync
D. AWS Database Migration Service (DMS)

14 Which AWS service is specifically designed for analyzing relationships between highly connected data, such as social networks?

A. Amazon Timestream
B. Amazon Neptune
C. Amazon DynamoDB
D. Amazon Aurora

15 What is the primary difference between Amazon RDS Multi-AZ and Read Replicas regarding data replication?

A. Both use synchronous replication
B. Both use asynchronous replication
C. Multi-AZ uses synchronous replication; Read Replicas use asynchronous replication
D. Multi-AZ uses asynchronous replication; Read Replicas use synchronous replication

16 In Amazon DynamoDB, which capacity mode is best suited for unpredictable workloads with sudden traffic spikes?

A. Provisioned Capacity
B. Reserved Capacity
C. On-Demand Capacity
D. Fixed Capacity

17 Which Well-Architected principle is applied when using Amazon RDS IAM Authentication instead of hardcoded database passwords?

A. Performance Efficiency
B. Sustainability
C. Security
D. Cost Optimization

18 Which AWS database service is serverless, fully managed, and specifically designed for time-series data?

A. Amazon Redshift
B. Amazon QLDB
C. Amazon DocumentDB
D. Amazon Timestream

19 A company requires a database that provides an immutable, cryptographically verifiable log of data changes. Which service should they choose?

A. Amazon DynamoDB
B. Amazon Aurora
C. Amazon QLDB
D. Amazon RDS

20 When performing a heterogeneous database migration using AWS DMS, what role does the Replication Instance play?

A. It connects to source and target to facilitate data transfer
B. It acts as the final database server
C. It converts the schema
D. It stores the long-term backup

21 Which feature of Amazon Aurora allows it to create a clone of a production database in seconds without copying the data initially?

A. Parallel Query
B. Backtrack
C. Global Database
D. Database Cloning

22 To encrypt Amazon RDS data at rest, what service is integrated with RDS?

A. AWS KMS (Key Management Service)
B. AWS WAF
C. AWS Certificate Manager
D. AWS Shield

23 What is the result of promoting an Amazon RDS Read Replica?

A. It becomes a backup archive
B. It becomes a standalone primary DB instance
C. It is deleted immediately
D. It replaces the original Multi-AZ standby

24 Which Amazon DynamoDB feature enables in-memory caching for read-heavy workloads, reducing latency from milliseconds to microseconds?

A. DAX (DynamoDB Accelerator)
B. DynamoDB Streams
C. Point-in-Time Recovery
D. Global Tables

25 Under the Well-Architected Framework's 'Reliability' pillar, how does Amazon Aurora store data?

A. Six copies across three Availability Zones
B. Two copies in one Availability Zone
C. Three copies across two Availability Zones
D. One copy in S3

26 Which option allows a database administrator to securely manage database credentials without embedding them in application code?

A. EC2 User Data
B. Amazon S3 Buckets
C. RDS Parameter Groups
D. AWS Secrets Manager

27 Which AWS database service is fully compatible with MongoDB workloads?

A. Amazon Neptune
B. Amazon Redshift
C. Amazon DynamoDB
D. Amazon DocumentDB

28 For a global application requiring low-latency local reads and writes in multiple regions, which DynamoDB feature is appropriate?

A. DynamoDB Global Tables
B. Read Replicas
C. Cross-Region Replication
D. VPC Endpoints

29 When migrating a database using AWS DMS, what is 'CDC'?

A. Cloud Database Connector
B. Continuous Data Copy
C. Complete Database Creation
D. Change Data Capture

30 Which RDS feature allows you to control the parameters and configuration settings that apply to a DB instance?

A. DB Option Groups
B. DB Security Groups
C. DB Subnet Groups
D. DB Parameter Groups

31 What is the recommended method to allow an EC2 instance to connect to an RDS database within a VPC?

A. Allow 0.0.0.0/0 in the RDS Security Group
B. Configure VPC Peering
C. Allow the EC2 Security Group ID in the RDS Security Group inbound rules
D. Use a public IP address

32 Which database service is a Petabyte-scale data warehouse used for Online Analytical Processing (OLAP)?

A. Amazon Redshift
B. Amazon Aurora
C. Amazon DynamoDB
D. Amazon RDS

33 In the context of 'Cost Optimization', what is a benefit of using Amazon Aurora I/O-Optimized configuration?

A. It offers predictable pricing for write-heavy applications by removing I/O charges
B. It reduces the cost of data transfer out to the internet
C. It provides free reserved instances
D. It eliminates storage costs entirely

34 Which AWS service allows you to run Apache Cassandra workloads with a managed serverless experience?

A. Amazon Keyspaces
B. Amazon ElastiCache
C. Amazon RDS for Cassandra
D. Amazon Neptune

35 What happens to the automated backups of an RDS instance if the instance is deleted without a final snapshot?

A. They are converted to manual snapshots
B. They are archived to Glacier
C. They are deleted immediately
D. They are kept for 7 days

36 How does Amazon DynamoDB Streams facilitate event-driven architectures?

A. By directly querying S3
B. By capturing a time-ordered sequence of item-level modifications
C. By sending emails via SES
D. By balancing load across regions

37 Which mechanism ensures that an RDS database is deployed in a private network and not accessible from the public internet?

A. Enabling Multi-AZ
B. Deploying in a Public Subnet with an Internet Gateway
C. Using IAM Users
D. Deploying in a Private Subnet without a Public IP

38 When applying 'Performance Efficiency' to a database layer, what does 'Selection' refer to?

A. Choosing the right database engine (SQL vs NoSQL) for the workload
B. Selecting the cheapest option
C. Selecting the region with the most availability zones
D. Selecting the backup retention period

39 What is the primary function of a DB Subnet Group in Amazon RDS?

A. To specify which Availability Zones and subnets the DB instance can use
B. To define the firewall rules
C. To group databases for billing
D. To manage database passwords

40 Which Amazon RDS engine supports the 'Backtrack' feature to rewind the database cluster to a specific time without restoring from a backup?

A. Amazon RDS for MariaDB
B. Amazon Aurora MySQL
C. Amazon RDS for Oracle
D. Amazon RDS for SQL Server

41 For a read-heavy workload on DynamoDB, which error indicates that the provisioned throughput has been exceeded?

A. HTTP 500 Internal Server Error
B. AccessDeniedException
C. ItemNotFoundException
D. ProvisionedThroughputExceededException

42 Which tool can efficiently move large amounts of data (Exabytes) from on-premises to AWS offline, useful for initial large-scale database migrations?

A. AWS DMS
B. AWS Direct Connect
C. AWS Snowmobile
D. AWS VPN

43 In terms of connection management, what is a 'Connection Storm'?

A. Replication lag increasing
B. A loss of internet connectivity
C. A sudden spike in the number of connection requests to the database
D. A firewall blocking all connections

44 Which scaling strategy involves changing the instance type of an RDS database (e.g., from t3.medium to r5.large)?

A. Horizontal Scaling
B. Sharding
C. Vertical Scaling
D. Diagonal Scaling

45 What is the purpose of the 'Primary Key' in Amazon DynamoDB?

A. To uniquely identify each item in the table
B. To link to other tables
C. To encrypt the table
D. To define the table schema

46 When migrating a database to AWS, which strategy involves moving the application and database with minimal changes?

A. Re-architecting
B. Retiring
C. Re-hosting (Lift and Shift)
D. Re-platforming

47 Which Aurora feature allows a single database to span multiple AWS Regions with low-latency replication?

A. Cross-Region Snapshots
B. Aurora Multi-Master
C. Aurora Serverless
D. Aurora Global Database

48 How does Amazon RDS Storage Auto Scaling work?

A. It compresses data automatically
B. It adds Read Replicas when storage is full
C. It automatically increases the storage size when free space runs low
D. It deletes old data to make room

49 Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using managed database services like RDS over self-managed databases on EC2?

A. Automatic software patching
B. Full control over the operating system kernel
C. High availability setup ease
D. Automated backups

50 When utilizing Amazon Redshift for data warehousing, what is the role of 'Spectrum'?

A. To backup data to Glacier
B. To manage user access
C. To query data directly in Amazon S3 without loading it into Redshift
D. To encrypt data