1What is the primary purpose of a firewall in a network?
Network Security Capability Enhancement
Easy
A.To increase the physical speed of network cables
B.To store backup copies of user files
C.To convert analog signals into digital signals
D.To control incoming and outgoing network traffic based on rules
Correct Answer: To control incoming and outgoing network traffic based on rules
Explanation:
A firewall monitors and filters network traffic according to a defined set of security rules, allowing or blocking packets to protect the network.
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2Which device primarily detects and alerts on suspicious network activity without automatically blocking it?
Network Security Capability Enhancement
Easy
A.IDS (Intrusion Detection System)
B.Load balancer
C.DHCP server
D.Network switch
Correct Answer: IDS (Intrusion Detection System)
Explanation:
An IDS monitors traffic and raises alerts on suspicious activity, whereas an IPS actively blocks it.
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3What does a VPN primarily provide for network communication?
Network Security Capability Enhancement
Easy
A.A method to assign IP addresses automatically
B.A way to increase website loading speed
C.An encrypted tunnel for secure remote connections
D.A faster physical connection to the internet
Correct Answer: An encrypted tunnel for secure remote connections
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Network creates an encrypted tunnel, protecting data in transit over untrusted networks like the internet.
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4What is a security baseline in network security?
Network Security Baselines
Easy
A.A list of all user passwords on the network
B.The physical floor plan of a server room
C.The maximum speed a network can achieve
D.A minimum standard of security settings applied consistently
Correct Answer: A minimum standard of security settings applied consistently
Explanation:
A security baseline defines the minimum acceptable security configuration that systems must meet to maintain a consistent protection level.
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5Which practice helps reduce the attack surface when establishing a network baseline?
Network Security Baselines
Easy
A.Enabling all services by default
B.Sharing admin passwords with all users
C.Disabling unused ports and services
D.Removing all firewalls
Correct Answer: Disabling unused ports and services
Explanation:
Turning off unnecessary ports and services reduces potential entry points, lowering the overall attack surface.
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6What is the main benefit of network segmentation?
Network Security Baselines
Easy
A.It limits the spread of attacks between network zones
B.It eliminates the need for passwords
C.It makes all devices share one broadcast domain
D.It increases the number of IP addresses available
Correct Answer: It limits the spread of attacks between network zones
Explanation:
Segmentation divides a network into isolated zones so that a compromise in one segment does not easily spread to others.
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7What is an endpoint in the context of endpoint security?
Implement Endpoint Security
Easy
A.The physical end of a network cable
B.A device such as a laptop, phone, or desktop connected to a network
C.The last router before the internet
D.A software license agreement
Correct Answer: A device such as a laptop, phone, or desktop connected to a network
Explanation:
Endpoints are end-user devices like laptops, desktops, and smartphones that connect to and interact with a network.
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8Which software is primarily designed to detect and remove malicious programs from a device?
Implement Endpoint Security
Easy
A.A spreadsheet application
B.A media player
C.A web browser
D.Antivirus software
Correct Answer: Antivirus software
Explanation:
Antivirus software scans for, detects, and removes malware such as viruses, worms, and trojans from endpoints.
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9What does EDR stand for in endpoint security?
Implement Endpoint Security
Easy
A.Encrypted Data Routing
B.Email Delivery Resolver
C.Endpoint Detection and Response
D.External Device Registry
Correct Answer: Endpoint Detection and Response
Explanation:
EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response) continuously monitors endpoints to detect, investigate, and respond to threats.
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10Why is patch management important for endpoint security?
Implement Endpoint Security
Easy
A.It speeds up internet downloads
B.It deletes all user data regularly
C.It increases screen brightness
D.It fixes known vulnerabilities in software
Correct Answer: It fixes known vulnerabilities in software
Explanation:
Applying patches updates software to close known security holes that attackers could otherwise exploit.
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11Which feature helps protect data on a lost or stolen mobile device?
Mobile Device Hardening
Easy
A.Disabling the camera flash
B.Increasing font size
C.Changing the wallpaper
D.Remote wipe
Correct Answer: Remote wipe
Explanation:
Remote wipe lets administrators or users erase data on a lost or stolen device to prevent unauthorized access.
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12What does MDM stand for in mobile security?
Mobile Device Hardening
Easy
A.Mobile Data Modulation
B.Mobile Device Management
C.Multiple Data Memory
D.Managed Download Monitor
Correct Answer: Mobile Device Management
Explanation:
MDM (Mobile Device Management) is software used to secure, monitor, and manage mobile devices in an organization.
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13Which practice improves the security of a mobile device?
Mobile Device Hardening
Easy
A.Rooting or jailbreaking the device
B.Disabling all encryption
C.Installing apps from unknown sources
D.Enabling a strong screen lock passcode
Correct Answer: Enabling a strong screen lock passcode
Explanation:
A strong screen lock prevents unauthorized physical access to the device and its data.
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14Why is device encryption recommended for mobile devices?
Mobile Device Hardening
Easy
A.It increases the camera resolution
B.It allows faster app installation
C.It makes stored data unreadable without the correct key
D.It makes the battery last longer
Correct Answer: It makes stored data unreadable without the correct key
Explanation:
Encryption protects data at rest by making it unreadable to anyone without the proper decryption key.
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15Which protocol provides a secure, encrypted version of HTTP?
Application Protocol Security Baselines
Easy
A.HTTPS
B.Telnet
C.SMTP
D.FTP
Correct Answer: HTTPS
Explanation:
HTTPS uses TLS to encrypt web traffic, protecting data exchanged between a browser and a server.
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16Which protocol is considered insecure because it transmits data, including passwords, in plaintext?
Application Protocol Security Baselines
Easy
A.HTTPS
B.SSH
C.Telnet
D.TLS
Correct Answer: Telnet
Explanation:
Telnet sends all data, including credentials, in unencrypted plaintext, so SSH is preferred as a secure replacement.
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17What is the main purpose of TLS (Transport Layer Security)?
Application Protocol Security Baselines
Easy
A.To manage physical cabling
B.To assign domain names to IP addresses
C.To compress files for storage
D.To encrypt data in transit between applications
Correct Answer: To encrypt data in transit between applications
Explanation:
TLS provides encryption, integrity, and authentication for data traveling between networked applications.
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18In the shared responsibility model, who is typically responsible for securing data placed in the cloud?
Cloud and Web Application Security Concepts
Easy
A.The cloud provider alone
B.The customer
C.No one is responsible
D.The internet service provider
Correct Answer: The customer
Explanation:
Under the shared responsibility model, customers are generally responsible for securing their own data, while providers secure the underlying infrastructure.
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19What type of attack injects malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users?
Cloud and Web Application Security Concepts
Easy
A.DNS caching
B.Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
C.Cable tapping
D.Ping flood
Correct Answer: Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
Explanation:
XSS attacks inject malicious scripts into trusted websites, which then execute in other users' browsers.
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20What is the main function of a Web Application Firewall (WAF)?
Cloud and Web Application Security Concepts
Easy
A.To speed up database queries
B.To assign SSL certificates automatically
C.To filter and block malicious HTTP traffic to web apps
D.To store backup images of websites
Correct Answer: To filter and block malicious HTTP traffic to web apps
Explanation:
A WAF inspects HTTP/HTTPS traffic and blocks common web attacks such as SQL injection and XSS before they reach the application.
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21An administrator wants to inspect encrypted traffic for malware without permanently breaking end-to-end encryption at the server. Which capability should be deployed at the network edge?
A TLS/SSL inspection proxy decrypts traffic, scans it for threats, and re-encrypts it before forwarding, allowing malware detection inside encrypted sessions.
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22A company deploys a device that detects malicious traffic and actively drops the offending packets inline. Which technology is being used?
Network Security Capability Enhancement
Medium
A.IPS (Intrusion Prevention System)
B.IDS (Intrusion Detection System)
C.Netflow analyzer
D.SIEM collector
Correct Answer: IPS (Intrusion Prevention System)
Explanation:
An IPS sits inline and can actively block or drop malicious traffic, whereas an IDS only detects and alerts without stopping the traffic.
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23Which deployment best enforces the principle of least privilege for east-west traffic between workloads in a data center?
Network Security Capability Enhancement
Medium
A.Port mirroring
B.A single perimeter firewall
C.Microsegmentation
D.Jumbo frames
Correct Answer: Microsegmentation
Explanation:
Microsegmentation applies granular policies between individual workloads, limiting lateral (east-west) movement and enforcing least privilege within the network.
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24An auditor finds that routers still respond to Telnet. According to secure baseline practices, what is the recommended remediation?
Network Security Baselines
Medium
A.Increase the Telnet session timeout
B.Restrict Telnet to port 2323
C.Disable Telnet and use SSH for management
D.Change the Telnet banner message
Correct Answer: Disable Telnet and use SSH for management
Explanation:
Telnet transmits credentials in cleartext. Secure baselines require disabling it and using SSH, which encrypts management sessions.
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25A security baseline requires that unused switch ports be protected against unauthorized device connections. Which configuration meets this goal most directly?
Network Security Baselines
Medium
A.Enable DHCP on all ports
B.Set all ports to trunk mode
C.Increase the MAC address table size
D.Administratively shut down unused ports
Correct Answer: Administratively shut down unused ports
Explanation:
Disabling (shutting down) unused ports prevents rogue devices from connecting and is a standard hardening step in network baselines.
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26Which practice helps ensure a network device configuration continues to match its approved secure baseline over time?
Configuration compliance scanning regularly compares live device settings against the approved baseline to detect drift and unauthorized changes.
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27An organization wants to detect and respond to suspicious process behavior on laptops, including rolling back malicious changes. Which solution fits best?
Implement Endpoint Security
Medium
A.EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response)
B.Signature-only antivirus
C.A password manager
D.A host firewall alone
Correct Answer: EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response)
Explanation:
EDR continuously monitors endpoint behavior, detects threats, supports investigation, and can respond by isolating hosts or rolling back changes.
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28A policy allows only pre-approved executables to run on endpoints and blocks everything else. What is this control called?
Implement Endpoint Security
Medium
A.Heuristic sandboxing
B.Full-disk encryption
C.Application blocklisting
D.Application allowlisting
Correct Answer: Application allowlisting
Explanation:
Allowlisting (whitelisting) permits only explicitly approved applications to execute, blocking all unknown or unapproved software by default.
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29A laptop is stolen but contained sensitive data. Which previously implemented control would most effectively prevent data disclosure?
Implement Endpoint Security
Medium
A.A BIOS boot order change
B.Full-disk encryption
C.Antivirus signatures
D.Screen saver timeout
Correct Answer: Full-disk encryption
Explanation:
Full-disk encryption renders the stored data unreadable without the key, protecting confidentiality even when the physical device is stolen.
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30Which approach best reduces the endpoint attack surface before any threat occurs?
Implement Endpoint Security
Medium
A.Increasing the swap file size
B.Disabling the host firewall for troubleshooting
C.Removing unnecessary services and software
D.Enabling automatic crash reporting
Correct Answer: Removing unnecessary services and software
Explanation:
Hardening by removing unused services and software reduces the number of components that could be exploited, shrinking the attack surface.
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31A company wants to separate corporate apps and data from personal apps on employee-owned phones in a BYOD program. Which capability achieves this?
Mobile Device Hardening
Medium
A.Forcing airplane mode
B.Disabling the device camera
C.Removing the SIM card
D.Containerization within MDM/MAM
Correct Answer: Containerization within MDM/MAM
Explanation:
Containerization creates an isolated encrypted workspace for corporate apps and data, keeping it separate from the user's personal content on BYOD devices.
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32An administrator must be able to erase corporate data if a managed phone is lost. Which MDM feature provides this?
Mobile Device Hardening
Medium
A.Remote wipe
B.Geofencing alerts
C.App store caching
D.Battery optimization
Correct Answer: Remote wipe
Explanation:
Remote wipe lets administrators delete data from a lost or stolen device, preventing unauthorized access to corporate information.
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33Why is jailbreaking or rooting a managed mobile device considered a security risk?
Mobile Device Hardening
Medium
A.It bypasses the OS security model and sandboxing
B.It enforces stronger encryption
C.It improves patch delivery speed
D.It strengthens app signature checks
Correct Answer: It bypasses the OS security model and sandboxing
Explanation:
Rooting/jailbreaking removes built-in protections like app sandboxing and privilege restrictions, exposing the device to malware and data theft.
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34Which setting most directly reduces the risk of unauthorized access if a mobile device is left unattended?
Mobile Device Hardening
Medium
A.Allowing app installs from any source
B.Larger font display size
C.Short screen-lock timeout with strong passcode
D.Enabling Bluetooth discoverability
Correct Answer: Short screen-lock timeout with strong passcode
Explanation:
A short auto-lock timeout combined with a strong passcode quickly locks the device, preventing casual unauthorized access when unattended.
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35An organization wants to secure email transmission between mail servers without application changes. Which mechanism enforces encrypted SMTP delivery?
Application Protocol Security Baselines
Medium
A.FTP transfer
B.Plain POP3
C.STARTTLS (SMTP over TLS)
D.Open relay configuration
Correct Answer: STARTTLS (SMTP over TLS)
Explanation:
STARTTLS upgrades an SMTP connection to a TLS-encrypted channel, protecting email in transit between mail servers.
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36Which secure replacement should be used instead of plaintext FTP for transferring files over an untrusted network?
Application Protocol Security Baselines
Medium
A.SNMPv1
B.Telnet
C.TFTP
D.SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol)
Correct Answer: SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol)
Explanation:
SFTP runs over SSH and encrypts both credentials and data, unlike FTP and TFTP which transmit data in cleartext.
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37To prevent DNS responses from being tampered with in transit, which protocol extension provides origin authentication and integrity for DNS data?
Application Protocol Security Baselines
Medium
A.DHCP snooping
B.DNSSEC
C.mDNS
D.NAT64
Correct Answer: DNSSEC
Explanation:
DNSSEC adds digital signatures to DNS records, allowing resolvers to verify data origin and integrity, protecting against spoofing and cache poisoning.
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38A baseline requires monitoring network devices securely. Which SNMP version should be selected to meet confidentiality requirements?
Application Protocol Security Baselines
Medium
A.SNMPv2c
B.SNMPv0
C.SNMPv1
D.SNMPv3
Correct Answer: SNMPv3
Explanation:
SNMPv3 supports authentication and encryption, while v1 and v2c rely on cleartext community strings with no encryption.
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39A web application reflects user input directly into a page without encoding it. Which vulnerability is most likely present?
Cloud and Web Application Security Concepts
Medium
A.Clock skew
B.SQL injection
C.Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
D.DNS poisoning
Correct Answer: Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
Explanation:
Reflecting unencoded user input into a page allows attackers to inject scripts that run in victims' browsers, which is cross-site scripting.
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40In the cloud shared responsibility model for IaaS, which task is typically the customer's responsibility?
Cloud and Web Application Security Concepts
Medium
A.Patching the guest OS and applications
B.Securing the physical data center
C.Replacing failed hardware
D.Maintaining the hypervisor
Correct Answer: Patching the guest OS and applications
Explanation:
In IaaS, the provider secures the underlying infrastructure and hypervisor, while the customer manages the guest OS, applications, and data.
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41A security architect deploys a next-generation firewall (NGFW) with TLS inspection enabled. Users begin reporting that certain banking and healthcare sites fail to load, while most sites work. The firewall logs show certificate pinning validation failed. What is the most accurate explanation?
Network Security Capability Enhancement
Hard
A.The sites use expired certificates that the firewall correctly blocks during inspection
B.The firewall's intermediate CA is not trusted by the endpoints and must be installed manually
C.The NGFW lacks the CPU capacity to decrypt TLS 1.3 sessions, causing timeouts on heavy sites
D.The pinned applications reject the firewall's re-signed certificate because it does not match the embedded public key hash
Correct Answer: The pinned applications reject the firewall's re-signed certificate because it does not match the embedded public key hash
Explanation:
Certificate (public-key) pinning hard-codes the expected server key/hash in the client. When a TLS-inspecting firewall substitutes its own re-signed certificate, the pinned hash no longer matches and the client aborts, even if the firewall CA is otherwise trusted. These apps must be bypassed from inspection.
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42An organization defines a network security baseline requiring that all east-west traffic between application tiers be explicitly authorized. During an audit, a reviewer finds that the web tier can reach the database tier directly on port 3306, bypassing the application tier. Which baseline principle is most directly violated?
Network Security Baselines
Hard
A.Fail-closed design requiring default-deny on egress to the internet
B.Secure configuration management requiring hardened OS images
C.Defense-in-depth requiring multiple antivirus engines per host
D.Microsegmentation enforcing least-privilege flows between tiers
Correct Answer: Microsegmentation enforcing least-privilege flows between tiers
Explanation:
A tiered baseline expects traffic to follow the intended path (web → app → database). Allowing the web tier to reach the database directly violates microsegmentation and least-privilege flow enforcement, expanding the attack surface if the web tier is compromised.
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43An EDR solution flags a process that spawned powershell.exe with an encoded command, injected into explorer.exe, and made no disk writes. The SOC wants to detect this class of attack reliably in the future. Which detection approach is most effective?
Implement Endpoint Security
Hard
A.Signature-based scanning of files written to the %TEMP% directory
B.Scheduled full-disk antivirus scans run nightly during off-hours
C.Hash-blocklisting of known-malicious PowerShell binaries
D.Behavioral analytics correlating process lineage and in-memory injection patterns
Correct Answer: Behavioral analytics correlating process lineage and in-memory injection patterns
Explanation:
This is a fileless, living-off-the-land attack with memory injection and no disk artifacts. Signature and hash methods rely on files that never touch disk, and periodic scans miss in-memory activity. Behavioral analytics tracking process ancestry and injection is the reliable detection method.
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44A company issues corporate-owned Android devices and wants to prevent data exfiltration while allowing limited personal use. They need separate encrypted storage, policy enforcement on the corporate side, and no visibility into personal apps. Which approach best satisfies all three constraints?
Mobile Device Hardening
Hard
A.Deploy a managed work profile (Android Enterprise) isolating corporate data from the personal space
B.Require users to use a corporate VPN for all traffic including personal browsing
C.Enroll devices in device-owner mode and block all personal application installation
D.Install an MDM agent that remotely wipes the entire device on any policy violation
Correct Answer: Deploy a managed work profile (Android Enterprise) isolating corporate data from the personal space
Explanation:
A work profile cryptographically separates corporate and personal data, lets IT enforce policy and selectively wipe only the work container, and gives no visibility into personal apps. Device-owner mode and full-device wipe over-reach into personal use; VPN alone does not isolate storage.
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45A baseline mandates TLS 1.2+ with forward secrecy. A pentester finds a server negotiating TLS_RSA_WITH_AES_256_GCM_SHA384. Although TLS 1.2 and AES-256-GCM are used, this still violates the baseline. Why?
Application Protocol Security Baselines
Hard
A.TLS 1.2 inherently lacks forward secrecy regardless of the cipher suite
B.AES-256-GCM is export-grade and should be replaced with AES-128-CBC
C.RSA key exchange provides no forward secrecy, so a leaked private key decrypts past sessions
D.SHA-384 is deprecated and must be replaced by SHA-1 for compatibility
Correct Answer: RSA key exchange provides no forward secrecy, so a leaked private key decrypts past sessions
Explanation:
Forward secrecy requires ephemeral key exchange (ECDHE/DHE). A static RSA key-exchange suite lets an attacker who later obtains the server private key decrypt all previously captured sessions. The baseline needs an ECDHE/DHE suite, not static RSA.
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46A web app issues a session cookie without the SameSite attribute and performs state-changing actions via GET requests. Which combination of controls most completely mitigates the resulting CSRF risk?
Cloud and Web Application Security Concepts
Hard
A.Rotate the session identifier after each successful login attempt
B.Enable HttpOnly and Secure flags on the session cookie
C.Add a Content Security Policy restricting script sources to self
D.Set SameSite=Strict/Lax, move state changes to POST, and validate anti-CSRF tokens
Correct Answer: Set SameSite=Strict/Lax, move state changes to POST, and validate anti-CSRF tokens
Explanation:
CSRF abuses the browser auto-sending cookies. SameSite limits cross-site cookie sending, moving actions off GET prevents trivial link/image attacks, and per-request anti-CSRF tokens defend remaining cases. HttpOnly/Secure, CSP, and session rotation address XSS/session issues, not CSRF directly.
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47A SOC wants to detect lateral movement that uses legitimate credentials and standard protocols (SMB, RDP). Signature IDS produces no alerts. Which capability enhancement is most appropriate?
Network Security Capability Enhancement
Hard
A.Deploy network behavior analytics with UEBA to baseline normal host-to-host communication
B.Enable deep packet inspection on all encrypted RDP sessions
C.Increase firewall logging verbosity and retain logs for 90 days
D.Add a second signature-based IPS inline with the first for redundancy
Correct Answer: Deploy network behavior analytics with UEBA to baseline normal host-to-host communication
Explanation:
Lateral movement with valid credentials over normal protocols has no malicious signature. UEBA/network behavior analytics flags anomalies—unusual host pairings, off-hours access, atypical volumes—against a learned baseline, which signature IPS and more logging alone cannot do.
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48During baseline review, an engineer notes that management interfaces for switches and routers are reachable from the user VLAN over SSH. The devices use strong passwords and SSHv2. What is the most significant residual risk and best remediation?
Network Security Baselines
Hard
A.Weak transport; replace SSHv2 with Telnet over an IPsec tunnel
B.Insufficient logging; enable SNMPv1 traps to a central collector
C.Credential reuse; enforce a 30-day password rotation policy on devices
D.Exposed management plane; isolate it on a dedicated out-of-band management network
Correct Answer: Exposed management plane; isolate it on a dedicated out-of-band management network
Explanation:
Even with SSHv2 and strong passwords, exposing the management plane to the user VLAN lets any compromised user host attack network infrastructure. A hardening baseline separates management traffic onto an out-of-band/dedicated network with strict access control.
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49An organization enables application allowlisting (whitelisting) but attackers still execute malicious code by abusing a signed, approved binary to run arbitrary scripts. What is this technique, and which control best counters it?
Implement Endpoint Security
Hard
A.Credential dumping; deploy a password vault with rotation
B.Privilege escalation; disable local administrator accounts globally
C.Living-off-the-land binary abuse; restrict allowlist rules with argument/child-process constraints
D.DLL side-loading; enable full-disk encryption on all endpoints
Attackers abuse trusted, signed system binaries (LOLBins) that allowlists permit by default. Simple allow-by-path/publisher rules are insufficient; effective counters constrain how these binaries run—blocking dangerous arguments, scripting hosts, and unexpected child processes.
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50A hardened iOS fleet uses supervised mode with MDM. Security requires that lost devices resist offline brute-force of the passcode. Which factor most directly determines offline brute-force resistance of the device encryption?
Mobile Device Hardening
Hard
A.The Secure Enclave enforcing hardware-rate-limited key derivation tied to a strong passcode
B.The frequency of over-the-air configuration profile updates
C.The number of trusted root CAs installed in the device keychain
D.The length of the MDM enrollment token stored on the device
Correct Answer: The Secure Enclave enforcing hardware-rate-limited key derivation tied to a strong passcode
Explanation:
iOS ties the data-protection key to the passcode through the Secure Enclave, which enforces hardware-level iteration/rate limits so guesses cannot be parallelized offline. A strong (long/alphanumeric) passcode plus this hardware throttling is what resists brute force; MDM tokens and CAs are unrelated.
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51An email security baseline requires authenticated, encrypted mail submission and anti-spoofing. A domain has SPF and DKIM but still suffers spoofing where the visible From: header is forged while passing SPF via a lookalike envelope sender. Which addition closes this gap?
Application Protocol Security Baselines
Hard
A.DMARC with alignment enforcing that authenticated identifiers match the From: domain
B.Opportunistic STARTTLS on all inbound SMTP connections
C.Greylisting to delay delivery from unknown senders
D.A stricter SPF record ending in -all instead of ~all
Correct Answer: DMARC with alignment enforcing that authenticated identifiers match the From: domain
Explanation:
SPF/DKIM authenticate the envelope/signing domain, not necessarily the visible From:. DMARC adds identifier alignment, requiring the SPF/DKIM domain to match the header From: domain, which blocks lookalike-envelope spoofing that otherwise passes SPF.
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52A web app running on a cloud VM is vulnerable to SSRF. An attacker uses it to query http://169.254.169.254/. In an IMDSv1 environment, what is the most severe realistic consequence?
Cloud and Web Application Security Concepts
Hard
A.Overwriting of the instance's user-data boot script
B.Disclosure of the VM's kernel version and patch level
C.A denial-of-service against the hypervisor metadata service
D.Theft of temporary IAM role credentials, enabling access to cloud resources
Correct Answer: Theft of temporary IAM role credentials, enabling access to cloud resources
Explanation:
The link-local metadata endpoint exposes the instance's IAM role credentials under IMDSv1 without session protection. SSRF to it lets the attacker steal those temporary credentials and pivot to cloud resources. IMDSv2's session tokens and SSRF hardening mitigate this.
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53A DNS-based data exfiltration channel encodes stolen data in subdomain labels of frequent queries to an attacker-controlled domain. Which enhancement most directly detects this?
Network Security Capability Enhancement
Hard
A.DNS analytics flagging high query entropy and abnormal subdomain volume per domain
B.Enforcing DNSSEC validation on all recursive resolvers
C.Blocking outbound UDP/53 and forcing DNS over the corporate proxy
D.Lowering the TTL on internal DNS zone records
Correct Answer: DNS analytics flagging high query entropy and abnormal subdomain volume per domain
Explanation:
DNS tunneling produces many unique, high-entropy subdomains for a single domain. Analytics measuring query entropy, length, and volume per second-level domain detect it. DNSSEC ensures integrity but not confidentiality/exfiltration detection, and lowering TTLs is irrelevant.
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54A baseline requires that wireless access use enterprise authentication. An auditor finds WPA2-Enterprise configured with PEAP-MSCHAPv2 and clients set to not validate the server certificate. Why does this still fail the baseline's intent?
Network Security Baselines
Hard
A.PEAP cannot be used with WPA2 and must be downgraded to WPA-TKIP
B.Clients will trust a rogue RADIUS server, exposing credentials to evil-twin attacks
C.Server certificate validation disables the 802.1X supplicant entirely
D.MSCHAPv2 forces AES-CCMP to fall back to RC4 encryption
Correct Answer: Clients will trust a rogue RADIUS server, exposing credentials to evil-twin attacks
Explanation:
PEAP-MSCHAPv2 security depends on the client validating the RADIUS server certificate. Without validation, an evil-twin AP with its own RADIUS server captures the MSCHAPv2 challenge/response for offline cracking, defeating enterprise authentication's intent.
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55A ransomware sample encrypts files but is only detected after thousands of files are affected. The team wants earlier, higher-fidelity detection without excessive false positives. Which endpoint capability best fits?
Implement Endpoint Security
Hard
A.Canary/decoy files combined with rapid mass-file-modification behavioral triggers
B.Daily signature updates pulled from the antivirus vendor
C.A host firewall rule denying all outbound SMB traffic
D.USB device control blocking removable media writes
Correct Answer: Canary/decoy files combined with rapid mass-file-modification behavioral triggers
Explanation:
Decoy files that should never change provide a high-fidelity tripwire, and detecting rapid mass file rename/encrypt behavior catches ransomware early. Signatures lag novel variants, and USB/SMB controls address spread/entry, not the encryption behavior itself.
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56A BYOD policy must protect corporate email on personal devices while minimizing legal/privacy exposure for the company. Which hardening strategy best balances security and privacy?
Mobile Device Hardening
Hard
A.Installing a company root CA to inspect all personal device traffic
B.App-level containerization (MAM) that encrypts and controls only the corporate apps and data
C.Requiring employees to factory-reset personal devices before enrollment
D.Full MDM enrollment granting the company control of the entire personal device
Correct Answer: App-level containerization (MAM) that encrypts and controls only the corporate apps and data
Explanation:
MAM/app containerization secures corporate data within managed apps—encryption, copy/paste restrictions, selective wipe—without controlling or seeing the personal device. Full MDM, forced resets, and traffic inspection create privacy and legal exposure inappropriate for BYOD.
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57An API baseline requires stateless authentication with short-lived tokens. A review finds JWTs signed with alg: none accepted by the server, and also tokens with a 24-hour lifetime. Which single flaw allows the most direct, immediate account takeover?
Application Protocol Security Baselines
Hard
A.JWTs expose claims because the payload is only base64-encoded
B.Accepting alg: none lets an attacker forge valid tokens with no signature
C.The 24-hour token lifetime slightly widens the replay window
D.Stateless tokens cannot be revoked before expiry
Correct Answer: Accepting alg: none lets an attacker forge valid tokens with no signature
Explanation:
The alg: none vulnerability means the server accepts unsigned tokens, so an attacker can craft a token with any claims (e.g., admin) and be authenticated immediately. The long lifetime, revocation gap, and readable payload are real concerns but far less severe than trivial forgery.
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58A company stores objects in a cloud bucket. A misconfiguration review must prevent public exposure even if an individual object ACL is set to public-read by a developer. Which control best enforces this organization-wide?
Cloud and Web Application Security Concepts
Hard
A.Versioning enabled on all buckets to retain prior object states
B.Server-side encryption with a customer-managed key on each object
C.Account-level public access block that overrides object and bucket ACLs
D.A bucket policy requiring TLS for all GetObject requests
Correct Answer: Account-level public access block that overrides object and bucket ACLs
Explanation:
An account/bucket-level public access block supersedes any public ACL or policy, so even a developer's public-read object ACL cannot expose data. Encryption protects confidentiality at rest, versioning aids recovery, and TLS enforcement protects transit—none prevent public ACLs.
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59A zero-trust initiative replaces the flat VPN with per-application access. A user authenticates successfully but is still denied access to an app they previously used. Which zero-trust concept most likely explains the denial?
Network Security Capability Enhancement
Hard
A.The VPN concentrator reached its maximum concurrent tunnel limit
B.The application's TLS certificate expired and failed OCSP checks
C.Continuous, context-aware policy evaluation revoked access due to a changed device posture
D.Network address translation exhausted the available port pool
Correct Answer: Continuous, context-aware policy evaluation revoked access due to a changed device posture
Explanation:
Zero trust evaluates every request against context (identity, device health, location, risk) continuously, not once at login. Successful authentication is insufficient if the device posture or risk signal changed—access is re-evaluated and can be denied per request.
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60A microservices app runs in Kubernetes. A compromised pod should not be able to reach other services or the cloud metadata API. Which combination best enforces this least-privilege boundary?
Cloud and Web Application Security Concepts
Hard
A.Exposing each service via a public LoadBalancer with TLS enabled
B.Network policies restricting pod egress plus a scoped service account and metadata API blocking
C.Running all pods as root to simplify volume mount permissions
D.A single cluster-wide admin service account shared by all pods
Correct Answer: Network policies restricting pod egress plus a scoped service account and metadata API blocking
Explanation:
Default Kubernetes networking is flat and pods often inherit broad credentials. NetworkPolicies limit which services a pod can reach, a narrowly scoped service account limits API/cloud permissions, and blocking the node metadata endpoint stops credential theft—together enforcing least privilege.
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