Unit 3: Secure Cloud Network Architecture, Resiliency and Vulnerability Management - Practice Quiz

CSC302 — Securing Computing Systems 60 Questions
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1 In cloud computing, what does IaaS stand for?

Cloud Infrastructure Easy
A. Information as a Service
B. Integration as a Service
C. Internet as a Service
D. Infrastructure as a Service

2 Which cloud deployment model is used exclusively by a single organization?

Cloud Infrastructure Easy
A. Public cloud
B. Shared cloud
C. Community cloud
D. Private cloud

3 Under the cloud shared responsibility model, who is typically responsible for securing the physical data center?

Cloud Infrastructure Easy
A. The customer
B. A third-party auditor
C. The cloud provider
D. The end user

4 What is the core principle of Zero Trust Architecture?

Embedded Systems and Zero Trust Architecture Easy
A. Verify once, then trust forever
B. Trust internal users by default
C. Trust all devices on the LAN
D. Never trust, always verify

5 Which of the following is a common example of an embedded system?

Embedded Systems and Zero Trust Architecture Easy
A. A cloud spreadsheet app
B. A smart thermostat
C. An email server
D. A desktop web browser

6 In Zero Trust, what access principle grants users only the permissions they need?

Embedded Systems and Zero Trust Architecture Easy
A. Open trust
B. Role elevation
C. Least privilege
D. Full access

7 What is the primary purpose of an asset inventory in security?

Asset Management Easy
A. To encrypt all emails
B. To block all external traffic
C. To know what assets exist and need protection
D. To increase network speed

8 What term describes retiring and securely disposing of hardware at end of life?

Asset Management Easy
A. Decommissioning
B. Onboarding
C. Provisioning
D. Replication

9 What does high availability aim to minimize?

Redundancy Strategies Easy
A. Software licenses
B. User accounts
C. System downtime
D. Storage capacity

10 Which RAID level provides data redundancy through mirroring?

Redundancy Strategies Easy
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6

11 A backup power source that keeps systems running during an outage is called a:

Redundancy Strategies Easy
A. UPS
B. VPN
C. CPU
D. DNS

12 Which of the following is a physical security control?

Physical Security Easy
A. Door locks and badge readers
B. Data encryption
C. Password policies
D. Firewall rules

13 What is the main purpose of a mantrap (access control vestibule)?

Physical Security Easy
A. To cool server rooms
B. To prevent tailgating into secure areas
C. To back up data
D. To filter network packets

14 What is the best general practice to fix known operating system vulnerabilities?

Device and OS Vulnerabilities Easy
A. Share admin passwords
B. Disable the firewall
C. Turn off logging
D. Apply security patches and updates

15 A vulnerability unknown to the vendor and without a patch is called a:

Device and OS Vulnerabilities Easy
A. Patched vulnerability
B. Known exploit
C. Zero-day vulnerability
D. Legacy vulnerability

16 Which attack injects malicious SQL commands into an application's input fields?

Application and Cloud Vulnerabilities Easy
A. DDoS
B. SQL injection
C. Phishing
D. Spoofing

17 In cloud environments, what is a common cause of accidental data exposure?

Application and Cloud Vulnerabilities Easy
A. Encrypted backups
B. Misconfigured storage buckets
C. Strong passwords
D. Multi-factor authentication

18 What tool automatically scans systems to detect known vulnerabilities?

Vulnerability Identification Methods Easy
A. Spreadsheet
B. Word processor
C. Vulnerability scanner
D. Media player

19 Which activity simulates a real attack to find exploitable weaknesses?

Vulnerability Identification Methods Easy
A. Load balancing
B. Patch rollback
C. Data backup
D. Penetration testing

20 Which scoring system rates the severity of vulnerabilities on a scale from to ?

Vulnerability Analysis and Remediation Easy
A. HTTP
B. RAID
C. CVSS
D. DNS

21 A company deploys its application servers across multiple Availability Zones within a single cloud region. What is the primary benefit of this design choice?

Cloud Infrastructure Medium
A. Reduced total cloud spending through consolidated billing
B. Fault isolation so a single data center failure does not take down the application
C. Automatic compliance with all data residency regulations
D. Elimination of the need for data encryption in transit

22 Under the shared responsibility model for Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), which task remains the customer's responsibility?

Cloud Infrastructure Medium
A. Patching the guest operating system on provisioned virtual machines
B. Securing the hypervisor layer
C. Replacing failed network cabling in the facility
D. Maintaining the physical servers in the data center

23 In a Zero Trust Architecture, a user who successfully authenticated an hour ago now requests access to a sensitive database. What does Zero Trust require before granting this access?

Embedded Systems and Zero Trust Architecture Medium
A. Automatic access because the user already has a valid session
B. Re-verification of identity and device posture for this specific request
C. Access based solely on the user being inside the corporate network
D. A one-time annual recertification of the user's role

24 Embedded systems in industrial controllers often run for years without updates. Which characteristic makes securing them particularly challenging?

Embedded Systems and Zero Trust Architecture Medium
A. They automatically receive over-the-air updates daily
B. Limited compute resources and infrequent patching cycles
C. They always use the latest cryptographic standards
D. They are isolated and never connect to any network

25 A security team discovers servers running production workloads that are not listed in the official inventory. What are these assets best described as?

Asset Management Medium
A. Decommissioned assets pending secure disposal
B. Redundant failover nodes under configuration control
C. Honeypots intentionally deployed for deception
D. Shadow IT assets that expand the unmanaged attack surface

26 Why is maintaining an accurate asset inventory considered a foundational control for vulnerability management?

Asset Management Medium
A. It directly encrypts all data stored on each asset
B. It replaces the need for firewalls on the network
C. You cannot protect or patch assets you do not know exist
D. It guarantees zero vulnerabilities across all systems

27 A system is configured in a RAID 1 array. What protection does this configuration primarily provide?

Redundancy Strategies Medium
A. Data mirroring so one disk failure does not cause data loss
B. Parity across three or more disks for space efficiency
C. Striping data for maximum write speed with no redundancy
D. Compression of data to reduce overall storage needs

28 An organization wants a disaster recovery site that can take over operations within minutes of a primary site failure. Which site type best meets this requirement?

Redundancy Strategies Medium
A. A warm site requiring several hours of data restoration
B. A hot site with fully replicated, running systems
C. An offline backup vault stored in a separate city
D. A cold site with only space and power provisioned

29 A data center uses a mantrap at its entrance. What security objective does this control primarily address?

Physical Security Medium
A. Providing redundant power during an outage
B. Preventing tailgating by allowing only one authenticated person through at a time
C. Detecting malware on devices carried inside
D. Encrypting data as personnel enter the facility

30 Which physical security control is classified as a detective control rather than a preventive one?

Physical Security Medium
A. A biometric reader at the data center door
B. A locked server cabinet with restricted keys
C. A security bollard blocking vehicle access
D. CCTV surveillance cameras recording facility activity

31 A legacy workstation runs an operating system that no longer receives security updates. What is the most significant risk this creates?

Device and OS Vulnerabilities Medium
A. Newly discovered vulnerabilities will never be patched, leaving permanent exposure
B. The device cannot be added to the asset inventory
C. The device will consume excessive network bandwidth
D. User passwords will automatically expire more frequently

32 A server was configured with default administrator credentials that were never changed. Which vulnerability category does this best represent?

Device and OS Vulnerabilities Medium
A. A supply chain compromise of hardware firmware
B. A denial-of-service design flaw
C. Security misconfiguration due to weak default settings
D. A zero-day vulnerability in the OS kernel

33 A web application concatenates user input directly into a database query string. Which vulnerability is most likely present?

Application and Cloud Vulnerabilities Medium
A. Cross-site request forgery on the login form
B. Insecure direct object reference in the URL
C. Clickjacking through a transparent overlay
D. SQL injection allowing manipulation of the database query

34 A cloud storage bucket is accidentally set to allow public read access. What is the primary consequence of this misconfiguration?

Application and Cloud Vulnerabilities Medium
A. Network latency to the bucket will increase sharply
B. The bucket will automatically delete its contents
C. Sensitive data may be exposed to anyone on the internet
D. Encryption keys will rotate without authorization

35 In a cloud environment, an attacker exploits overly permissive IAM policies to escalate from a low-privilege account to administrator rights. This attack is best described as:

Application and Cloud Vulnerabilities Medium
A. A distributed denial-of-service against the console
B. A man-in-the-middle attack on API traffic
C. Privilege escalation through excessive permissions
D. A buffer overflow in the IAM service

36 A security tester performs a credentialed scan instead of a non-credentialed scan. What advantage does this provide?

Vulnerability Identification Methods Medium
A. The ability to scan without touching the target at all
B. Guaranteed exploitation of every vulnerability found
C. Deeper, more accurate detection by inspecting the system from an authenticated view
D. Complete elimination of all false positives in all cases

37 During a vulnerability scan, a tool reports a critical flaw that, upon manual verification, does not actually exist on the system. This result is called a:

Vulnerability Identification Methods Medium
A. False negative
B. False positive
C. True positive
D. Zero-day finding

38 An organization wants to find vulnerabilities by having ethical hackers actively attempt to exploit its systems under defined rules. Which method is this?

Vulnerability Identification Methods Medium
A. Static code analysis
B. Automated vulnerability scanning
C. Asset inventory reconciliation
D. Penetration testing

39 A vulnerability has a CVSS base score of 9.8. According to standard severity ratings, how should it be classified?

Vulnerability Analysis and Remediation Medium
A. Informational finding with no action needed
B. Medium severity to be scheduled next quarter
C. Low severity that can be deferred indefinitely
D. Critical severity requiring urgent remediation

40 A critical vulnerability exists on a production system, but no patch is yet available from the vendor. Which action is the most appropriate compensating control?

Vulnerability Analysis and Remediation Medium
A. Immediately decommission all affected production systems
B. Apply a temporary mitigation such as network segmentation or a WAF rule
C. Downgrade the system to an older unsupported version
D. Ignore the vulnerability until the vendor releases a patch

41 An organization runs a multi-tenant SaaS platform on a public cloud using a shared responsibility model. A tenant's data was exposed because an object storage bucket was left publicly readable. Under the shared responsibility model for IaaS/PaaS, who bears responsibility, and why?

Cloud Infrastructure Hard
A. The cloud provider, because it owns the underlying storage hardware and hypervisor
B. The customer, because configuration of access controls on provisioned storage resources is a customer responsibility
C. Neither, because object storage ACLs are managed automatically by the platform
D. Both equally, because misconfiguration spans the shared management plane

42 A Zero Trust Architecture (ZTA) deployment uses a Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP). During an outage, the PDP becomes unreachable. Which design choice best preserves Zero Trust principles while maintaining availability?

Embedded Systems and Zero Trust Architecture Hard
A. Configure the PEP to fail closed, denying new sessions until the PDP is restored
B. Bypass the PEP and route traffic directly to resources during the outage
C. Configure the PEP to fail open, allowing all traffic until the PDP returns
D. Cache the last known-good decisions indefinitely and apply them to all users

43 A system has two independent components each with reliability . What is the overall reliability if they are configured in a parallel (redundant) arrangement?

Redundancy Strategies Hard
A.
B.
C.
D.

44 An enterprise discovers unmanaged IoT devices on its network during an audit. Which combination of asset management practices most directly prevents recurrence of such 'shadow' assets?

Asset Management Hard
A. Quarterly vulnerability scans scoped only to known IP ranges
B. A centralized CMDB updated via periodic procurement imports
C. Continuous automated discovery with network access control enforcing enrollment before connectivity
D. Annual manual inventory audits combined with asset tagging labels

45 A vulnerability has a CVSS base score of 9.8 but exists only on an internal host with no network path from untrusted zones and no sensitive data. Which prioritization approach best reflects risk-based vulnerability management?

Vulnerability Analysis and Remediation Hard
A. Lower its remediation priority using environmental and threat context despite the high base score
B. Ignore it entirely since internal hosts are inherently trusted
C. Remediate immediately because any CVSS score above 9.0 is critical by definition
D. Defer it indefinitely because base scores do not reflect real exploitation

46 A web application allows users to supply a URL that the server fetches to retrieve a profile image. An attacker supplies http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/. What vulnerability class is this, and what is the primary risk?

Application and Cloud Vulnerabilities Hard
A. XSS, enabling script execution in the victim's browser
B. SSRF, enabling access to the cloud instance metadata service and potential credential theft
C. SQL injection, enabling exfiltration of database records
D. CSRF, enabling forged requests on behalf of the user

47 A patch for a kernel-level privilege escalation flaw is available, but applying it requires a reboot that disrupts a 24/7 service. Which mitigation most reduces risk while deferring the reboot, assuming compatible tooling exists?

Device and OS Vulnerabilities Hard
A. Increase logging verbosity to detect exploitation after the fact
B. Rely on the host firewall to block all local privilege escalation attempts
C. Disable the affected service entirely until the next maintenance window
D. Apply a live kernel patch (hot patching) to remediate without rebooting

48 A security team must assess a legacy application with no source code access, running in production, where crashing the service is unacceptable. Which identification method is most appropriate?

Vulnerability Identification Methods Hard
A. Aggressive black-box fuzzing with maximum request rates
B. Authenticated passive scanning and configuration review rather than active fuzzing
C. Full static analysis of the application source code
D. Destructive penetration testing against the live production instance

49 A data center uses mantraps, badge readers, and biometric scanners. An auditor notes that tailgating still occurs. Which control most directly addresses tailgating as a residual risk?

Physical Security Hard
A. Additional CCTV cameras recording the entrance corridor
B. An anti-passback mantrap permitting only one person per authenticated entry cycle
C. A longer minimum password length for the security console
D. A stronger badge encryption algorithm for the access cards

50 An architecture requires an availability of at least . A single data center provides availability. If two independent data centers are deployed in active-active parallel, what is the approximate combined availability?

Redundancy Strategies Hard
A.
B.
C.
D.

51 A company migrates workloads to a cloud using Infrastructure as Code (IaC). A reviewer finds that a security group rule allowing 0.0.0.0/0 on port 22 was committed. What practice most effectively prevents such misconfigurations from reaching production?

Cloud Infrastructure Hard
A. Policy-as-code scanning of IaC templates in the CI/CD pipeline before deployment
B. Enabling verbose cloud audit logging for all API calls
C. Periodic penetration testing of the deployed environment
D. Manual peer review of running infrastructure after each deployment

52 Embedded medical devices on a hospital network cannot run modern authentication agents required for full Zero Trust microsegmentation. Which approach best extends Zero Trust principles to these constrained devices?

Embedded Systems and Zero Trust Architecture Hard
A. Disable all network connectivity to the devices permanently
B. Place devices behind a Zero Trust gateway/proxy that authenticates and brokers all access on their behalf
C. Install the full ZTA agent regardless of resource constraints
D. Grant the devices a permanent flat-network exemption from all policy checks

53 A containerized microservice runs as root and mounts the host Docker socket for convenience. An attacker achieves remote code execution inside the container. What is the most severe realistic consequence?

Application and Cloud Vulnerabilities Hard
A. Full host compromise via the Docker socket, enabling container escape and control of all containers
B. Loss of availability for that microservice but no privilege gain
C. Exposure limited to environment variables within the container
D. Only the single container is affected, with no impact beyond it

54 A critical vulnerability cannot be patched for 90 days due to vendor dependency. The organization must document this decision. Which risk treatment and artifact combination is most appropriate?

Vulnerability Analysis and Remediation Hard
A. Risk avoidance by decommissioning the system immediately regardless of business need
B. Silent risk acceptance with no documentation to avoid audit exposure
C. Risk transference by purchasing cyber insurance and taking no technical action
D. Risk acceptance with compensating controls, documented via a formal exception with an expiry date

55 A fleet of OS images is built from a golden image. A zero-day affecting a preinstalled library is announced. Which remediation strategy most efficiently eliminates the vulnerability across the fleet while preventing reintroduction?

Device and OS Vulnerabilities Hard
A. Wait for the vendor's next scheduled quarterly image release
B. Add a firewall rule blocking the library's default port on each host
C. Patch and rebuild the golden image, then redeploy immutable instances from it
D. Manually SSH into each running instance and update the library in place

56 A scanner reports a service as vulnerable to CVE-X, but manual testing shows the exploit fails because a backported fix was applied without changing the version banner. How should this finding be classified and handled?

Vulnerability Identification Methods Hard
A. An exploit chain requiring immediate incident response activation
B. A false negative requiring a more aggressive scan configuration
C. A false positive caused by version-based detection; validate and suppress with documented justification
D. A true positive that must be remediated by reinstalling the service

57 An organization wants vulnerability remediation to be prioritized by business impact, not just technical severity. Which asset management enrichment most directly enables this?

Asset Management Hard
A. Storing the firmware checksum for every device
B. Logging the physical rack location of each server
C. Tagging assets with data classification and business criticality metadata
D. Recording each asset's MAC address in the inventory

58 A high-security facility must protect against both unauthorized access and environmental threats to equipment. Which pairing correctly matches a threat to its most appropriate physical control?

Physical Security Hard
A. Theft countered by humidity control; eavesdropping countered by fire extinguishers
B. Power loss countered by biometric locks; flooding countered by badge readers
C. Tailgating countered by a HVAC upgrade; fire countered by motion sensors
D. Static discharge countered by grounded flooring; fire countered by a clean-agent suppression system

59 A cloud deployment uses a single NAT gateway in one availability zone for all outbound traffic from private subnets across three zones. From a resiliency standpoint, what is the primary weakness?

Cloud Infrastructure Hard
A. The design violates encryption-in-transit requirements by default
B. NAT gateways cannot process traffic from more than one subnet at a time
C. The NAT gateway is a single point of failure whose zone outage severs outbound connectivity for all subnets
D. Private subnets cannot route outbound traffic through NAT gateways at all

60 A serverless function has an over-permissive IAM role granting s3:* on all buckets, though it only needs to read one bucket. If the function is compromised via a dependency vulnerability, what principle was violated and what is the main consequence?

Application and Cloud Vulnerabilities Hard
A. Fail-safe defaults were violated, encrypting all buckets automatically
B. Least privilege was violated, allowing lateral movement and data access far beyond the function's need
C. Defense in depth was violated, causing the function to crash on invocation
D. Separation of duties was violated, preventing the function from executing