Unit 2: Implement Identity and Access Management, Secure Enterprise Network Architecture - Practice Quiz

CSC302 — Securing Computing Systems 60 Questions
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1 What does authentication primarily verify?

Authentication Easy
A. The encryption strength of a cipher
B. The identity of a user or system
C. The permissions assigned to a file
D. The speed of a network link

2 Which of the following is an example of a "something you have" authentication factor?

Authentication Easy
A. A fingerprint scan
B. A spoken passphrase
C. A memorized PIN
D. A hardware security token

3 What does the acronym MFA stand for?

Authentication Easy
A. Multi-Factor Authentication
B. Master Firewall Agent
C. Managed File Access
D. Multiple Format Authorization

4 A biometric authentication method is based on which factor type?

Authentication Easy
A. Something you are
B. Something you have
C. Somewhere you are
D. Something you know

5 What does authorization determine after a user is authenticated?

Authorization Easy
A. Which browser the user is running
B. Whether the user's identity is genuine
C. What resources the user is allowed to access
D. How fast the user can connect

6 In Role-Based Access Control (RBAC), permissions are assigned based on what?

Authorization Easy
A. A user's physical location
B. The time the user logs in
C. A user's role within the organization
D. The user's password length

7 Which security principle states that users should be given only the access they need to do their job?

Authorization Easy
A. Open access
B. Defense in depth
C. Least privilege
D. Separation of duties

8 What is an Access Control List (ACL) used for?

Authorization Easy
A. Scanning files for viruses
B. Defining which users or systems can access a resource
C. Encrypting network traffic
D. Measuring network bandwidth

9 What does SSO (Single Sign-On) allow a user to do?

Identity Management Easy
A. Bypass authentication entirely
B. Share one account among many users
C. Use a single password forever
D. Log in once to access multiple applications

10 Which protocol is commonly used to query and manage directory information such as users and groups?

Identity Management Easy
A. LDAP
B. SMTP
C. HTTP
D. FTP

11 What does the term provisioning refer to in identity management?

Identity Management Easy
A. Encrypting stored passwords
B. Deleting old log files
C. Creating and assigning user accounts and access
D. Monitoring network traffic

12 What is federated identity?

Identity Management Easy
A. Encrypting a user's password at rest
B. Blocking all external login attempts
C. Using one identity across multiple separate organizations or systems
D. Storing identities only on a local device

13 What is the purpose of a DMZ in network architecture?

Enterprise Network Architecture Easy
A. To speed up internal file transfers
B. To store encryption keys
C. To host public-facing services separated from the internal network
D. To back up user passwords

14 What does network segmentation help achieve?

Enterprise Network Architecture Easy
A. Increasing the speed of internet downloads
B. Encrypting all stored data
C. Reducing the number of network cables
D. Isolating parts of a network to limit the spread of attacks

15 What is a VLAN?

Enterprise Network Architecture Easy
A. A password hashing method
B. A type of antivirus software
C. A logically separated network within a physical network
D. A wireless encryption standard

16 What is the main function of a firewall?

Network Security Appliances Easy
A. To generate encryption keys
B. To filter and control network traffic based on rules
C. To speed up database queries
D. To store user credentials securely

17 What does an IDS (Intrusion Detection System) primarily do?

Network Security Appliances Easy
A. Block all incoming traffic by default
B. Assign IP addresses to devices
C. Encrypt data in transit
D. Detect and alert on suspicious network activity

18 How does an IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) differ from an IDS?

Network Security Appliances Easy
A. An IPS assigns network addresses
B. An IPS only logs events for later review
C. An IPS can actively block detected threats
D. An IPS encrypts user passwords

19 Which protocol secures web traffic by encrypting data between a browser and a server?

Secure Communications Easy
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. Telnet
D. HTTPS

20 What does a VPN provide for remote users?

Secure Communications Easy
A. Free cloud storage
B. An encrypted tunnel over an untrusted network
C. Faster internet download speeds
D. Automatic virus removal

21 A banking app requires users to enter a password and then approve a push notification on their registered phone. Which authentication model does this represent?

Authentication Medium
A. Multi-factor authentication combining two possession factors
B. Single-factor authentication using two knowledge factors
C. Single sign-on across multiple applications
D. Multi-factor authentication combining a knowledge factor and a possession factor

22 An organization wants users to log in once and access multiple cloud services without re-entering credentials, while keeping passwords stored only at the identity provider. Which protocol is most appropriate?

Authentication Medium
A. SNMP
B. ARP
C. SAML
D. ICMP

23 A system stores passwords by applying a one-way hash with a unique random value added to each password before hashing. What is the primary purpose of adding that random value?

Authentication Medium
A. To allow the password to be decrypted if a user forgets it
B. To defeat precomputed rainbow table attacks by making identical passwords hash differently
C. To compress the password into a fixed length
D. To speed up the hashing computation for each login attempt

24 A hospital system grants permissions based on job titles such as Nurse, Doctor, and Administrator, assigning each title a predefined set of rights. Which access control model is in use?

Authorization Medium
A. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
B. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
C. Rule-Based Access Control
D. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

25 In a system using the principle of least privilege, a new intern needs read access to only one shared folder. Which approach best follows this principle?

Authorization Medium
A. Grant the intern administrator rights so no access issues arise during the internship
B. Grant full control of the folder in case edits are needed later
C. Add the intern to the existing power-users group for convenience
D. Grant read-only access limited to that specific folder

26 A cloud policy grants access only if a request comes from a corporate device, during business hours, and from a specific country. Which access control model evaluates multiple such characteristics together?

Authorization Medium
A. Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)
B. Access Control List (ACL)
C. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
D. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

27 A file owner in an operating system can decide which other users may read or modify their files, and can pass that ability on. Which access control model does this describe?

Authorization Medium
A. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
B. Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)
C. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
D. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

28 An enterprise automatically creates user accounts in email, HR, and VPN systems the moment a new employee is added to the central directory, and disables them on termination. This lifecycle process is known as:

Identity Management Medium
A. Provisioning and deprovisioning
B. Federation
C. Load balancing
D. Tokenization

29 A university lets students use their campus credentials to log in to a partner library's online portal without creating a new account there. What identity concept enables this cross-organization trust?

Identity Management Medium
A. Privilege escalation
B. Account lockout
C. Password rotation
D. Identity federation

30 A security auditor finds several accounts with elevated rights accumulated from past projects that are no longer needed. What is this condition called, and what practice corrects it?

Identity Management Medium
A. Session hijacking, corrected by shorter token lifetimes
B. Credential stuffing, corrected by CAPTCHA challenges
C. Phishing, corrected by email filtering
D. Privilege creep, corrected by periodic access reviews and recertification

31 Which directory protocol is most commonly used to query and manage identity information such as users and groups in an enterprise directory service?

Identity Management Medium
A. LDAP
B. FTP
C. DHCP
D. SMTP

32 A company places its public web and mail servers in a network segment isolated from the internal LAN but reachable from the internet. What is this segment called?

Enterprise Network Architecture Medium
A. Core switching layer
B. Virtual LAN trunk
C. Broadcast domain
D. Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)

33 An administrator divides one physical switch into separate logical networks for Finance and Engineering so their traffic is isolated without extra hardware. Which technology achieves this?

Enterprise Network Architecture Medium
A. MAC flooding
B. VLAN segmentation
C. Port mirroring
D. NAT translation

34 A security team designs the network so that even internal users must be authenticated and authorized for every resource request, with no implicit trust based on network location. This design philosophy is called:

Enterprise Network Architecture Medium
A. Flat network design
B. Zero Trust architecture
C. Open access networking
D. Perimeter-only security

35 Why is network segmentation considered an effective defense against the lateral movement of an attacker who has compromised one host?

Enterprise Network Architecture Medium
A. It encrypts all traffic between every host automatically
B. It increases the total bandwidth available to each department
C. It removes the need for authentication within each segment
D. It restricts and controls traffic between segments, confining a breach to a limited zone

36 A security appliance monitors network traffic, detects malicious patterns, and actively blocks or drops offending packets in real time. Which device is this?

Network Security Appliances Medium
A. Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
B. Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
C. DHCP server
D. Network tap

37 An organization deploys a device that inspects traffic at the application layer, integrates intrusion prevention, performs deep packet inspection, and enforces user-identity-aware policies. Which appliance best fits this description?

Network Security Appliances Medium
A. Layer 2 unmanaged switch
B. Wireless access point
C. Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW)
D. Simple packet-filtering router

38 A traditional stateful firewall differs from a stateless packet filter primarily because it:

Network Security Appliances Medium
A. Tracks the state of active connections to make context-aware allow/deny decisions
B. Blocks traffic based solely on the source MAC address
C. Operates only at the physical layer of the OSI model
D. Encrypts all packets that pass through it

39 A website migrates from HTTP to HTTPS. Which protocol provides the encryption and server authentication that secures the HTTPS session?

Secure Communications Medium
A. TLS
B. Telnet
C. SNMP
D. FTP

40 A remote employee connects to the corporate network over the public internet through an encrypted tunnel that makes their device appear as if it is on the internal LAN. What technology provides this secure encrypted tunnel across the untrusted internet while keeping the data confidential?

Secure Communications Medium
A. DNS
B. VLAN
C. VPN
D. NAT

41 An organization implements a time-based one-time password (TOTP) system using with a 30-second step. A user in a timezone 5 hours ahead of UTC repeatedly fails authentication despite entering correct codes. The server validates against UTC. What is the MOST likely root cause?

Authentication Hard
A. The step value must be adjusted per timezone to synchronize codes
B. The 5-hour offset invalidates the shared secret during HMAC computation
C. TOTP cannot function across different timezones without configuration
D. The client device clock has drifted beyond the acceptable validation window

42 A system uses Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) with the policy: permit if AND . A user with clearance 3 and department "Finance" is denied access to a resource classified at level 2 owned by "Finance". Which explanation is MOST consistent with correct ABAC evaluation?

Authorization Hard
A. A deny-override rule or missing attribute caused the policy evaluation to return Deny
B. Clearance level 3 is insufficient for classification level 2 under hierarchical ordering
C. ABAC always denies when clearance exceeds classification to prevent over-privilege
D. The equality check on department fails because strings cannot be compared in ABAC

43 In a federated identity setup using SAML 2.0, an attacker intercepts and replays a valid, properly signed SAML assertion to gain access to a Service Provider. Which assertion element, when properly validated, MOST directly prevents this replay?

Identity Management Hard
A. The <Conditions> element with NotBefore/NotOnOrAfter and one-time-use enforcement via assertion ID tracking
B. The <Issuer> element identifying the trusted identity provider
C. The <Signature> element using the IdP's private key over the assertion
D. The <AuthnStatement> recording the authentication instant and method

44 A network architect designs a three-tier DMZ where web servers must reach application servers, which must reach database servers, but no direct web-to-database path may exist. During a review, a flat VLAN is discovered connecting all three tiers with ACLs enforcing the restrictions. What is the PRIMARY architectural weakness of this approach?

Enterprise Network Architecture Hard
A. A single ACL misconfiguration or VLAN hopping exposes all tiers, lacking defense-in-depth segmentation
B. ACLs introduce unacceptable latency that violates DMZ throughput requirements
C. Flat VLANs cannot support ACLs between hosts in the same broadcast domain
D. Three-tier models require database servers to be placed in the DMZ directly

45 A next-generation firewall (NGFW) and a traditional stateful firewall both inspect a connection to port 443. An attacker tunnels a command-and-control protocol over HTTPS on port 443. Which capability determines whether the C2 traffic is detected?

Network Security Appliances Hard
A. Port-based filtering rules matching port 443 to the HTTPS service
B. Deep packet / application-layer inspection with TLS decryption to identify the protocol regardless of port
C. Stateful connection tracking that validates the TCP three-way handshake
D. NAT translation logs correlating internal and external addresses

46 In a TLS 1.3 handshake, the use of ephemeral Diffie-Hellman (DHE/ECDHE) provides a security property that RSA key exchange (used in prior versions) did not. If an attacker records all encrypted traffic and later compromises the server's long-term private key, what is the outcome under TLS 1.3?

Secure Communications Hard
A. Only future sessions are compromised; past sessions used a different cipher suite
B. The attacker can decrypt sessions only if the ephemeral keys were reused across handshakes
C. Past sessions remain confidential because session keys were derived from ephemeral keys, providing forward secrecy
D. Past sessions can be decrypted because the private key reconstructs all prior session keys

47 A password system stores credentials as using a fast cryptographic hash. A security audit recommends migrating to a memory-hard function. Which attack scenario BEST justifies this recommendation?

Authentication Hard
A. Collision attacks that let an attacker forge a different valid password
B. Replay attacks against the stored hashes during authentication
C. Rainbow table attacks, which the existing salt already fully prevents
D. GPU/ASIC-accelerated offline brute-forcing, which memory-hard functions resist by requiring large memory per guess

48 A microservices application uses OAuth 2.0 with JWT access tokens. A developer sets token lifetime to 24 hours to reduce authorization-server load but provides no revocation mechanism. A token is leaked. What is the fundamental security trade-off being made?

Authorization Hard
A. The leaked token is harmless because JWTs are signed and cannot be reused
B. Longer lifetimes strengthen security by reducing re-authentication frequency
C. JWTs cannot be used with OAuth 2.0 without an introspection endpoint
D. Reduced server load is traded against a long window during which a leaked token cannot be invalidated

49 An enterprise deploys Single Sign-On (SSO). A risk analyst warns that SSO introduces a specific amplified risk compared to independent per-application credentials. Which statement MOST accurately captures this risk?

Identity Management Hard
A. SSO increases user password fatigue, leading to weaker passwords per app
B. SSO prevents applications from enforcing their own authorization policies
C. SSO weakens each application's password hashing by centralizing storage
D. Compromise of the SSO credential grants access to all federated applications simultaneously

50 A Zero Trust architecture replaces a traditional perimeter model. An engineer argues that placing a VPN concentrator at the edge and granting authenticated users full internal network access satisfies Zero Trust. Why is this reasoning flawed?

Enterprise Network Architecture Hard
A. Zero Trust only applies to cloud workloads, not VPN-connected endpoints
B. VPN concentrators cannot authenticate users, so Zero Trust is impossible
C. Zero Trust forbids any use of VPN technology for remote access
D. Zero Trust requires per-request, least-privilege verification; broad post-VPN network access reinstates implicit trust

51 A security team compares an IDS and an IPS deployed inline. During a high-throughput period, a false positive occurs on legitimate database replication traffic. Which deployment consequence distinguishes the IPS from the IDS in this scenario?

Network Security Appliances Hard
A. Both appliances drop the traffic identically because they share signatures
B. The IPS actively drops the replication traffic, causing an outage, while the IDS only alerts
C. Neither appliance affects traffic; both only generate SIEM alerts
D. The IDS blocks the traffic because it sits inline, while the IPS passively logs

52 An organization uses IPsec in tunnel mode with ESP but omits AH, reasoning that ESP already provides confidentiality and integrity. A reviewer notes a subtle gap compared to AH. Which packet component is NOT integrity-protected by ESP alone?

Secure Communications Hard
A. The TCP checksum, which neither ESP nor AH can protect
B. The ESP payload data, which remains unprotected without AH
C. The outer IP header fields, which ESP does not authenticate but AH does
D. The ESP trailer, which only AH can authenticate

53 A biometric authentication system is configured by lowering its matching threshold to reduce user frustration from rejected legitimate attempts. What is the direct security consequence of this configuration change?

Authentication Hard
A. The Crossover Error Rate (CER) is eliminated entirely
B. The False Acceptance Rate (FAR) increases, raising the risk of unauthorized access
C. The False Rejection Rate (FRR) increases, locking out legitimate users more often
D. Both FAR and FRR decrease simultaneously, improving all metrics

54 A Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) system experiences "role explosion" as unique permission combinations proliferate. An architect proposes hierarchical roles with inheritance. Which risk does hierarchical RBAC introduce if designed carelessly?

Authorization Hard
A. Role hierarchies convert RBAC into mandatory access control automatically
B. Inheritance forces every user into exactly one role, breaking functionality
C. Hierarchical roles make permission assignment impossible to audit by design
D. Senior roles may unintentionally accumulate excessive inherited permissions, violating least privilege

55 During an identity lifecycle review, auditors find that terminated employees retained access for weeks. The IAM team used manual deprovisioning. Which automated control MOST directly addresses this gap at scale?

Identity Management Hard
A. Shortening session timeouts across all enterprise applications
B. Enforcing stronger password complexity for all active accounts
C. Requiring MFA on every application the users access
D. Automated deprovisioning triggered by HR system events via SCIM/identity governance workflows

56 A microsegmentation strategy is applied in a data center using host-based firewalls on each workload. An analyst claims this makes the perimeter firewall redundant. Which argument correctly refutes this claim?

Enterprise Network Architecture Hard
A. Perimeter firewalls are required to assign IP addresses to microsegments
B. Host-based firewalls cannot filter traffic between internal workloads
C. Microsegmentation only works if the perimeter firewall is removed first
D. Microsegmentation controls east-west traffic but the perimeter still governs north-south ingress/egress and provides layered defense

57 A web application firewall (WAF) is deployed in front of an API. It successfully blocks SQL injection signatures but a penetration tester bypasses it using JSON-encoded payloads the WAF does not parse. What does this reveal about signature-based WAF protection?

Network Security Appliances Hard
A. JSON payloads are inherently immune to SQL injection
B. Signature matching fails against encodings the WAF cannot normalize, so it is not a substitute for secure coding
C. The WAF should block all JSON traffic to remain secure
D. WAFs are incapable of inspecting any application-layer traffic

58 Two parties use Diffie-Hellman key exchange over an insecure channel without authentication. An attacker performs a man-in-the-middle attack. Why does unauthenticated DH fail here, and what addresses it?

Secure Communications Hard
A. DH mathematics are broken, so a larger prime modulus is required
B. The attacker factors the shared prime, defeated by using RSA instead
C. DH only fails over wireless channels, so wired links need no authentication
D. The attacker establishes separate shared secrets with each party; authenticating the exchange (e.g., signatures/certificates) prevents it

59 An application implements MFA using SMS one-time codes. A threat model flags this factor as weaker than a hardware security key. Which attack is SMS-OTP specifically vulnerable to that a FIDO2 hardware key resists?

Authentication Hard
A. SIM-swapping and real-time phishing relay, which FIDO2's origin-bound cryptography prevents
B. Offline cracking of the OTP seed, equally affecting FIDO2 keys
C. Replay of the device certificate, which both factors share
D. Brute-forcing the shared secret, which FIDO2 also cannot prevent

60 A system enforces separation of duties by preventing any single user from both creating and approving a payment. A user holds two roles whose combined permissions enable both actions. Which control concept detects this specific violation?

Authorization Hard
A. Account lockout policy after repeated failed approvals
B. Least-privilege review that reduces the number of total roles
C. Mandatory access control labeling of payment records by classification
D. Static separation-of-duties enforcement detecting toxic role/permission combinations assigned to one user