1In the CIA triad, what does the letter C stand for?
Security Concepts
Easy
A.Confidentiality
B.Certification
C.Control
D.Compliance
Correct Answer: Confidentiality
Explanation:
The CIA triad stands for Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability, the three core goals of information security.
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2Which security goal ensures that data has not been altered by unauthorized parties?
Security Concepts
Easy
A.Availability
B.Authentication
C.Integrity
D.Redundancy
Correct Answer: Integrity
Explanation:
Integrity ensures data remains accurate and unmodified unless changed by an authorized party.
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3The principle that users should be given only the access they need to do their job is called:
Security Concepts
Easy
A.Least privilege
B.Full control
C.Shared trust
D.Open access
Correct Answer: Least privilege
Explanation:
Least privilege limits user rights to the minimum needed, reducing the potential damage from mistakes or compromise.
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4Which concept provides proof that a party cannot deny having performed an action?
Security Concepts
Easy
A.Availability
B.Confidentiality
C.Redundancy
D.Non-repudiation
Correct Answer: Non-repudiation
Explanation:
Non-repudiation ensures a sender cannot deny sending a message, often achieved using digital signatures.
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5A locked door and a security guard are examples of which type of security control?
Security Controls
Easy
A.Logical
B.Physical
C.Managerial
D.Technical
Correct Answer: Physical
Explanation:
Physical controls protect assets through tangible measures like locks, guards, fences, and cameras.
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6A firewall configured to block traffic is best classified as which category of control?
Security Controls
Easy
A.Technical
B.Physical
C.Deterrent
D.Administrative
Correct Answer: Technical
Explanation:
Technical (logical) controls use technology such as firewalls, encryption, and access control lists to protect systems.
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7A security control that is designed to discourage an attacker, such as a warning sign, is a:
Security Controls
Easy
A.Recovery control
B.Deterrent control
C.Detective control
D.Corrective control
Correct Answer: Deterrent control
Explanation:
Deterrent controls aim to discourage attacks before they occur, for example warning signs or visible cameras.
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8Company security policies and employee training are examples of which type of control?
Security Controls
Easy
A.Compensating
B.Physical
C.Administrative
D.Technical
Correct Answer: Administrative
Explanation:
Administrative (managerial) controls include policies, procedures, and training that guide how security is managed.
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9A threat actor motivated by political or social causes is best described as a:
Threat Actors
Easy
A.Insider
B.Competitor
C.Script kiddie
D.Hacktivist
Correct Answer: Hacktivist
Explanation:
A hacktivist attacks systems to promote a political or social agenda rather than for financial gain.
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10An inexperienced attacker who uses existing tools and scripts written by others is called a:
Threat Actors
Easy
A.Insider threat
B.Script kiddie
C.Nation-state actor
D.Advanced persistent threat
Correct Answer: Script kiddie
Explanation:
A script kiddie lacks deep technical skill and relies on pre-made tools and scripts to carry out attacks.
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11Which threat actor typically has the most resources and government backing?
Threat Actors
Easy
A.Lone insider
B.Hacktivist
C.Script kiddie
D.Nation-state actor
Correct Answer: Nation-state actor
Explanation:
Nation-state actors are highly funded and skilled, often conducting espionage or sabotage on behalf of a government.
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12A current employee who misuses their legitimate access to harm the organization is an example of a(n):
Threat Actors
Easy
A.External hacker
B.Script kiddie
C.Insider threat
D.Hacktivist
Correct Answer: Insider threat
Explanation:
An insider threat comes from someone within the organization who abuses authorized access.
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13What best describes an attack surface?
Attack Surfaces
Easy
A.A log of blocked attacks
B.A list of patched vulnerabilities
C.All the points where an attacker could try to enter a system
D.The physical casing of a server
Correct Answer: All the points where an attacker could try to enter a system
Explanation:
The attack surface is the total set of points (entry vectors) where an unauthorized user could attempt access.
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14Which action most directly reduces a system's attack surface?
Attack Surfaces
Easy
A.Installing more applications
B.Adding more user accounts
C.Opening additional network ports
D.Disabling unused services and ports
Correct Answer: Disabling unused services and ports
Explanation:
Turning off unused services, ports, and features removes potential entry points and shrinks the attack surface.
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15Sending a fraudulent email that pretends to be from a trusted source to steal credentials is called:
Social Engineering
Easy
A.Brute forcing
B.Spoofing a MAC address
C.Port scanning
D.Phishing
Correct Answer: Phishing
Explanation:
Phishing uses deceptive emails impersonating trusted entities to trick victims into revealing sensitive information.
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16A targeted phishing attack aimed at a specific high-level executive is known as:
Social Engineering
Easy
A.Whaling
B.Pharming
C.Vishing
D.Smishing
Correct Answer: Whaling
Explanation:
Whaling is phishing that specifically targets senior executives or other high-value individuals.
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17A social engineering attack carried out over a voice phone call is called:
Social Engineering
Easy
A.Smishing
B.Vishing
C.Phishing
D.Tailgating
Correct Answer: Vishing
Explanation:
Vishing (voice phishing) uses phone calls to manipulate victims into revealing information or taking actions.
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18Which type of encryption uses the same key for both encryption and decryption?
Cryptographic Algorithms
Easy
A.Steganography
B.Symmetric encryption
C.Asymmetric encryption
D.Hashing
Correct Answer: Symmetric encryption
Explanation:
Symmetric encryption (e.g., AES) uses one shared secret key for both encrypting and decrypting data.
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19Which of the following is a widely used symmetric encryption algorithm?
Cryptographic Algorithms
Easy
A.RSA
B.Diffie-Hellman
C.AES
D.SHA-256
Correct Answer: AES
Explanation:
AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a symmetric block cipher. RSA and Diffie-Hellman are asymmetric, and SHA-256 is a hash.
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20In a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), which entity is responsible for issuing digital certificates?
Public Key Infrastructure
Easy
A.Domain controller
B.Certificate Authority (CA)
C.Key logger
D.Registration server
Correct Answer: Certificate Authority (CA)
Explanation:
A Certificate Authority (CA) issues and signs digital certificates, binding a public key to an identity.
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21An organization implements a system where a user who sends an encrypted, digitally signed email cannot later deny having sent it. Which security concept does this directly support?
Security Concepts
Medium
A.Non-repudiation
B.Confidentiality
C.Authentication
D.Availability
Correct Answer: Non-repudiation
Explanation:
Non-repudiation ensures a party cannot deny the authenticity of their actions. A digital signature binds the sender's identity to the message, preventing them from denying they sent it.
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22A hospital database must remain accessible to doctors during emergencies while ensuring patient records are not altered by unauthorized staff. Which two elements of the CIA triad are the primary focus?
Security Concepts
Medium
A.Integrity and Availability
B.Authentication and Availability
C.Confidentiality and Availability
D.Confidentiality and Integrity
Correct Answer: Integrity and Availability
Explanation:
Keeping records accessible addresses Availability, and preventing unauthorized alteration addresses Integrity. Authentication is a mechanism, not part of the CIA triad.
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23After a breach, a company installs motion-activated lights and warning signage to discourage intruders from attempting entry. How are these controls best categorized?
Security Controls
Medium
A.Compensating controls
B.Corrective controls
C.Detective controls
D.Deterrent controls
Correct Answer: Deterrent controls
Explanation:
Deterrent controls aim to discourage an attacker from attempting an action. Signage and lighting reduce the likelihood of an attempt rather than detecting or fixing an incident.
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24A firewall rule set and an encryption algorithm are both examples of which control category based on how they are implemented?
Security Controls
Medium
A.Technical controls
B.Operational controls
C.Physical controls
D.Managerial controls
Correct Answer: Technical controls
Explanation:
Technical (logical) controls are implemented through technology such as firewalls and encryption. Managerial controls are policies, and physical controls protect tangible assets.
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25An organization cannot patch a legacy server due to vendor limitations, so it isolates the server on a segmented network with strict access rules. Which control type best describes this isolation measure?
Security Controls
Medium
A.Preventive control
B.Compensating control
C.Detective control
D.Directive control
Correct Answer: Compensating control
Explanation:
A compensating control is an alternative measure used when the primary control (patching) cannot be applied, providing a comparable level of protection.
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26A threat actor possessing significant funding, advanced tools, and the goal of long-term espionage against a government agency is most accurately described as which type?
Threat Actors
Medium
A.Insider threat
B.Script kiddie
C.Hacktivist
D.Nation-state (APT)
Correct Answer: Nation-state (APT)
Explanation:
Nation-state actors, often called Advanced Persistent Threats, have high resources and sophistication and pursue long-term espionage goals, distinguishing them from lower-resourced actors.
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27An attacker defaces a corporation's website to protest its environmental policies rather than for financial gain. Which attribute best characterizes this threat actor's motivation?
Threat Actors
Medium
A.Financial profit
B.Thrill-seeking curiosity
C.Ideological or political beliefs
D.Corporate espionage for a competitor
Correct Answer: Ideological or political beliefs
Explanation:
This describes a hacktivist, whose motivation is ideological or political rather than financial. The protest-driven defacement signals belief-based intent.
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28Which characteristic most clearly distinguishes an insider threat from an external threat actor?
Threat Actors
Medium
A.Reliance on phishing campaigns
B.Operation from a foreign country
C.Authorized access to internal systems
D.Use of zero-day exploits
Correct Answer: Authorized access to internal systems
Explanation:
Insider threats already have legitimate, authorized access to systems or data, which lets them bypass many perimeter defenses that external actors must overcome.
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29A company moves several internal applications to the public cloud and exposes new APIs to partners. What is the most direct security consequence of this change?
Attack Surfaces
Medium
A.Confidentiality is automatically guaranteed
B.The threat vector count stays fixed
C.The attack surface expands
D.The attack surface shrinks
Correct Answer: The attack surface expands
Explanation:
Exposing additional endpoints such as cloud apps and APIs increases the number of points where an attacker could attempt entry, expanding the attack surface.
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30A security team disables unused services, closes open ports, and removes default accounts on a server. What is the primary goal of these actions?
Attack Surfaces
Medium
A.Enabling non-repudiation
B.Reducing the attack surface
C.Increasing system availability
D.Improving data integrity hashing
Correct Answer: Reducing the attack surface
Explanation:
Hardening by disabling services, closing ports, and removing accounts eliminates potential entry points, which reduces the overall attack surface.
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31An employee receives a phone call from someone claiming to be from IT support, urgently requesting their password to "fix an account lockout." Which social engineering principle is being exploited most heavily?
Social Engineering
Medium
A.Reciprocity
B.Urgency and authority
C.Scarcity of resources
D.Social proof
Correct Answer: Urgency and authority
Explanation:
The attacker creates time pressure (urgency) and poses as IT support (authority) to pressure the victim into complying quickly without verification.
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32A targeted phishing email is crafted specifically for a company's CFO, referencing a real recent acquisition to appear legitimate. What is this attack best classified as?
Social Engineering
Medium
A.Smishing
B.Pharming
C.Whaling
D.Vishing
Correct Answer: Whaling
Explanation:
Whaling is spear phishing aimed at high-profile executives such as a CFO, often using tailored, credible details to increase success.
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33An attacker leaves USB drives labeled "Salary Data" in a company parking lot, hoping an employee plugs one into a work computer. Which technique does this represent?
Social Engineering
Medium
A.Tailgating
B.Baiting
C.Pretexting
D.Shoulder surfing
Correct Answer: Baiting
Explanation:
Baiting lures victims using an enticing item (here, a tempting USB drive) that delivers malware when used, exploiting curiosity or greed.
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34A developer needs to encrypt a large file quickly and both parties already share a secret key securely. Which type of algorithm is most appropriate?
Cryptographic Algorithms
Medium
A.A digital signature algorithm
B.A hashing algorithm (e.g., SHA-256)
C.Symmetric encryption (e.g., AES)
D.Asymmetric encryption (e.g., RSA)
Correct Answer: Symmetric encryption (e.g., AES)
Explanation:
Symmetric algorithms like AES are fast and efficient for bulk data when a shared secret key is already available, unlike slower asymmetric algorithms.
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35Two parties who have never met need to agree on a shared secret key over an insecure channel without transmitting the key itself. Which algorithm is designed for this purpose?
Cryptographic Algorithms
Medium
A.SHA-256
B.AES
C.HMAC
D.Diffie-Hellman
Correct Answer: Diffie-Hellman
Explanation:
Diffie-Hellman is a key exchange algorithm that lets two parties derive a shared secret over an insecure channel without transmitting the key directly.
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36A system stores user passwords by applying SHA-256 along with a unique random value for each user before hashing. What is the primary purpose of adding this random value?
Cryptographic Algorithms
Medium
A.To provide non-repudiation for logins
B.To encrypt the password for later decryption
C.To compress the password into fewer bytes
D.To defend against precomputed rainbow table attacks
Correct Answer: To defend against precomputed rainbow table attacks
Explanation:
The random value is a salt. Unique salts ensure identical passwords hash differently, defeating precomputed rainbow tables. Hashing is one-way, not decryptable.
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37When a web browser validates a website's TLS certificate, what role does the Certificate Authority (CA) play?
Public Key Infrastructure
Medium
A.It encrypts all traffic between browser and server
B.It stores the website's private key for backup
C.It digitally signs the certificate to vouch for the site's identity
D.It generates session keys for each connection
Correct Answer: It digitally signs the certificate to vouch for the site's identity
Explanation:
A CA is a trusted third party that signs certificates, binding a public key to an identity. Browsers trust the CA's signature to verify authenticity.
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38An administrator needs to immediately invalidate a certificate because its private key was compromised. Which PKI mechanism allows clients to check whether a certificate is still valid?
Public Key Infrastructure
Medium
A.Certificate Signing Request (CSR)
B.Certificate Revocation List (CRL)
C.Registration Authority (RA)
D.Key Escrow
Correct Answer: Certificate Revocation List (CRL)
Explanation:
A CRL (or OCSP) lists certificates that have been revoked before expiration. A CSR requests a certificate and an RA verifies identity; neither reports revocation.
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39In asymmetric cryptography, if Alice wants to send a confidential message that only Bob can read, which key should she use to encrypt it?
Public Key Infrastructure
Medium
A.Bob's public key
B.Alice's private key
C.Alice's public key
D.Bob's private key
Correct Answer: Bob's public key
Explanation:
Encrypting with Bob's public key ensures only Bob's matching private key can decrypt the message, guaranteeing confidentiality for the intended recipient.
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40A company encrypts all data stored on its laptop hard drives so that information remains protected if a device is lost or stolen. Which cryptographic solution does this describe?
Cryptographic Solutions
Medium
A.Steganography
B.Transport Layer Security (data in transit)
C.Perfect forward secrecy
D.Full disk encryption (data at rest)
Correct Answer: Full disk encryption (data at rest)
Explanation:
Protecting stored data on a device is encryption of data at rest, commonly implemented through full disk encryption to guard against physical loss or theft.
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41An organization implements a system where a user's actions are cryptographically signed and logged such that the user cannot later deny performing them. However, an auditor notes that the signing keys are stored in a shared location accessible by three administrators. Which core security goal is most undermined by this configuration?
Security Concepts
Hard
A.Integrity, because the logs can be modified by any administrator
B.Confidentiality, because the logs can be read by multiple administrators
C.Availability, because key sharing creates a single point of failure
D.Non-repudiation, because shared key access breaks the binding between an action and a single identity
Correct Answer: Non-repudiation, because shared key access breaks the binding between an action and a single identity
Explanation:
Non-repudiation relies on a private key being under the sole control of one identity. If multiple administrators can use the signing key, any of them could have produced a signature, so a user can plausibly deny an action, defeating non-repudiation.
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42A company deploys the following after a breach: an IDS alert rule, a disciplinary policy for the responsible employee, mandatory security awareness training, and a restored backup. Classify these four measures by control function in the order listed.
An IDS alert detects (Detective). Disciplinary action corrects/remediates the incident outcome (Corrective). Awareness training reduces future risk (Preventive). Restoring a backup repairs damage (Corrective). Note training is preventive, not detective.
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43A threat actor exhibits the following profile: substantial funding, long dwell times, custom zero-day tooling, and objectives aligned with geopolitical intelligence gathering rather than financial gain. During analysis, which attribute best distinguishes this actor from an organized crime group with similar resources?
Threat Actors
Hard
A.The presence of substantial funding to sustain operations
B.The primary motivation being espionage/strategic advantage rather than monetary profit
C.The ability to maintain persistence inside a network for long periods
D.The use of zero-day exploits, which only this actor type can develop
Correct Answer: The primary motivation being espionage/strategic advantage rather than monetary profit
Explanation:
Funding, dwell time, and zero-days can describe both nation-state actors and well-resourced organized crime. The defining distinction is motivation: nation-state APTs pursue strategic/intelligence goals, while organized crime pursues profit.
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44A microservices application exposes 12 internal APIs through a single API gateway, 3 of which are also published externally. A security team wants to minimize the attack surface without reducing functionality. Which action yields the greatest reduction?
Attack Surfaces
Hard
A.Enabling verbose logging on the 3 external APIs for better monitoring
B.Adding rate limiting to all 12 APIs behind the gateway
C.Rotating the TLS certificates used by the API gateway more frequently
D.Restricting the 9 internal-only APIs to the service mesh so they are unreachable from the gateway's external interface
Correct Answer: Restricting the 9 internal-only APIs to the service mesh so they are unreachable from the gateway's external interface
Explanation:
Attack surface is the set of reachable entry points. Removing external reachability for the 9 internal APIs eliminates 9 potential entry points. Rate limiting, logging, and cert rotation harden existing surface but do not reduce the number of exposed points.
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45An attacker calls an employee claiming to be from IT, references a real ongoing system migration, creates urgency about a deadline, and asks the employee to "verify" their credentials on a lookalike portal. Which combination of principles is the attacker primarily exploiting?
Social Engineering
Hard
A.Intimidation, consensus, and typosquatting only
B.Familiarity, liking, and watering hole targeting
C.Scarcity, consensus, and tailgating
D.Authority, urgency, and pretexting with a credential-harvesting vishing component
Correct Answer: Authority, urgency, and pretexting with a credential-harvesting vishing component
Explanation:
Posing as IT invokes authority; the deadline invokes urgency; the fabricated migration story is pretexting; and the phone-based credential capture is vishing feeding a phishing portal. Scarcity, consensus, and tailgating are not the primary levers here.
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46A developer must encrypt 500 GB of archived data at rest and wants both strong confidentiality and integrity verification with minimal key management overhead. Which choice is most appropriate?
Cryptographic Algorithms
Hard
A.RSA-4096 to directly encrypt the entire 500 GB archive
B.SHA-256 applied to the archive to encrypt and verify it simultaneously
C.AES-256 in ECB mode for maximum throughput on large blocks
D.AES-256 in GCM mode, which provides authenticated encryption with associated data
Correct Answer: AES-256 in GCM mode, which provides authenticated encryption with associated data
Explanation:
GCM provides both confidentiality and integrity (an authentication tag) in one pass, ideal for bulk data. RSA is impractical for bulk encryption. ECB leaks patterns and gives no integrity. SHA-256 is a hash, not an encryption algorithm.
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47A client receives a server certificate chain. The leaf certificate is valid and signed by an intermediate CA, but the intermediate's certificate was revoked by the root CA this morning. The client has a cached OCSP response for the intermediate from yesterday indicating "good." What is the correct security outcome?
Public Key Infrastructure
Hard
A.The connection succeeds because the leaf certificate itself is still valid and not revoked
B.The connection should fail once a fresh revocation check reveals the intermediate is revoked, invalidating the entire chain below it
C.The connection fails only if the root certificate is also revoked
D.The connection succeeds because a cached "good" OCSP response remains authoritative until its nextUpdate
Correct Answer: The connection should fail once a fresh revocation check reveals the intermediate is revoked, invalidating the entire chain below it
Explanation:
Trust is transitive: if an intermediate CA is revoked, every certificate it signed is no longer trustworthy. A stale cached OCSP response must be refreshed; once revocation is confirmed, the chain validation must fail.
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48Two parties want to establish a shared symmetric key over an insecure channel while ensuring that compromise of a long-term private key in the future does not expose past session keys. Which property and mechanism satisfy this?
Cryptographic Solutions
Hard
A.Integrity via HMAC applied to the long-term key
B.Confidentiality via reusing a single pre-shared key for all sessions
C.Perfect forward secrecy via ephemeral Diffie-Hellman (DHE/ECDHE) key exchange
Perfect forward secrecy ensures past sessions stay secure even if long-term keys leak later. Ephemeral DH generates fresh per-session key material that is discarded afterward, so no long-term key can reconstruct past session keys.
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49A system uses a 128-bit symmetric cipher. An analyst claims that a quantum adversary running Grover's algorithm reduces its effective security. What is the resulting effective security strength, and what is the standard mitigation?
Cryptographic Algorithms
Hard
A.Effective strength drops to about 64 bits; mitigate by moving to a 256-bit key
B.Effective strength drops to about 32 bits; mitigate by using ECB mode
C.Effective strength drops to 0 bits; mitigate by switching to RSA
D.Effective strength is unchanged at 128 bits; no mitigation needed
Correct Answer: Effective strength drops to about 64 bits; mitigate by moving to a 256-bit key
Explanation:
Grover's algorithm provides a quadratic speedup for brute-force search, effectively halving symmetric key strength ( work). Doubling the key length to 256 bits restores ~128-bit post-quantum security.
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50An organization adopts a Zero Trust model. A legacy application grants a user full database access for 8 hours after a single login. Which Zero Trust principle is most directly violated?
Security Concepts
Hard
A.Defense in depth, since only one firewall protects the database
B.Separation of duties, since one user performs all database tasks
C.Least privilege with continuous verification, since access should be minimal and re-evaluated per request
D.Security through obscurity, since the application is legacy
Correct Answer: Least privilege with continuous verification, since access should be minimal and re-evaluated per request
Explanation:
Zero Trust assumes no implicit trust and requires continuous verification plus least privilege. Granting broad standing access for 8 hours from one login violates both least privilege and the per-request verification principle.
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51A regulated company cannot patch a vulnerable legacy server due to vendor constraints. To meet audit requirements, they isolate it on a segmented VLAN with strict ACLs and enhanced monitoring. In control terminology, how is this best described?
Security Controls
Hard
A.A compensating control that offsets risk when the primary control cannot be applied
B.A corrective control that permanently removes the vulnerability
C.A directive control that mandates how the server must be used
D.A preventive physical control that blocks all network access
Correct Answer: A compensating control that offsets risk when the primary control cannot be applied
Explanation:
A compensating control is an alternative measure used when the preferred control (patching) is not feasible, reducing risk to an acceptable level. Segmentation and monitoring compensate for the unpatched vulnerability without removing it.
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52An insider with legitimate privileged access gradually exfiltrates data over months, matching normal access patterns to avoid detection. Which attribute pairing best characterizes the difficulty of defending against this actor compared to an external attacker?
Threat Actors
Hard
A.External reconnaissance combined with social engineering, which exploits public-facing services
B.Low sophistication combined with automated tooling, which generates high alert volume
C.High funding combined with zero-day usage, which outpaces patching cycles
D.Authorized access combined with knowledge of internal controls, which bypasses perimeter defenses and blends with normal behavior
Correct Answer: Authorized access combined with knowledge of internal controls, which bypasses perimeter defenses and blends with normal behavior
Explanation:
The malicious insider's danger comes from legitimate access plus knowledge of what is monitored, letting them evade perimeter controls and mimic normal activity. The other pairings describe external or opportunistic attackers, not this insider scenario.
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53A company moves on-prem workloads to IaaS. Which statement correctly reflects how the attack surface and responsibility change under the shared responsibility model?
Attack Surfaces
Hard
A.The attack surface shrinks to zero because physical access is now controlled by the provider
B.The customer remains responsible for OS, application, and data security, so misconfigured guest OS and storage become key attack surface elements
D.Only the provider's hypervisor represents attack surface the customer must manage
Correct Answer: The customer remains responsible for OS, application, and data security, so misconfigured guest OS and storage become key attack surface elements
Explanation:
In IaaS the provider secures the physical layer and hypervisor, but the customer is responsible for the guest OS, applications, and data. Misconfigured instances and exposed storage buckets are major customer-owned attack surface elements.
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54An attacker compromises a popular niche industry forum that target-company engineers frequent, planting a drive-by exploit. No individual is directly contacted. Which attack type is this, and what makes it effective against security-aware targets?
Social Engineering
Hard
A.A spear phishing attack; it uses a personalized email to a specific engineer
B.A watering hole attack; it exploits trust in a legitimate, frequently visited site rather than relying on the victim clicking a suspicious message
C.A pharming attack; it poisons DNS to redirect all users to a fake bank site
D.A whaling attack; it targets senior executives through impersonated vendors
Correct Answer: A watering hole attack; it exploits trust in a legitimate, frequently visited site rather than relying on the victim clicking a suspicious message
Explanation:
A watering hole attack compromises a site the targets already trust and visit, so even skeptical users are exposed without any suspicious message. This bypasses the vigilance that defeats direct phishing attempts.
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55A protocol designer wants to hash passwords for storage. They compare SHA-256, bcrypt, and MD5. Which choice and rationale is correct for resisting modern offline cracking?
Cryptographic Algorithms
Hard
A.SHA-256 with no salt, because its collision resistance alone prevents cracking
B.MD5, because its speed allows rapid rehashing to detect tampering
C.SHA-256, because its 256-bit output makes it computationally infeasible to reverse
D.bcrypt, because its adjustable work factor and built-in salting slow down brute-force and rainbow-table attacks
Correct Answer: bcrypt, because its adjustable work factor and built-in salting slow down brute-force and rainbow-table attacks
Explanation:
Password storage needs deliberately slow, salted hashing. bcrypt's tunable cost factor and per-hash salt resist GPU brute force and rainbow tables. Fast general-purpose hashes like SHA-256 and MD5 are poor for passwords because attackers can try billions per second.
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56An administrator wants certificate revocation checking that avoids the privacy leak of a client contacting the CA for every connection and avoids large CRL downloads. Which mechanism satisfies both goals?
Public Key Infrastructure
Hard
A.Disabling revocation checking and relying on short certificate lifetimes only
B.OCSP stapling, where the server attaches a time-stamped, CA-signed OCSP response during the TLS handshake
C.Publishing a larger, more frequently updated CRL for clients to download
D.Having each client query the CA's OCSP responder directly on every handshake
Correct Answer: OCSP stapling, where the server attaches a time-stamped, CA-signed OCSP response during the TLS handshake
Explanation:
OCSP stapling has the server fetch and cache a signed OCSP response and present it in the handshake. Clients get fresh revocation status without contacting the CA (no privacy leak) and without downloading bulky CRLs.
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57A messaging app needs confidentiality, integrity, authentication of sender, and non-repudiation for each message. Which cryptographic construction set correctly provides all four?
Cryptographic Solutions
Hard
A.Encrypt with the sender's private key so only the sender can have produced it
B.Encrypt and sign both with the same shared symmetric key for all four properties
C.Hash the message with SHA-256 and send the hash alongside the plaintext
D.Encrypt with the recipient's public key for confidentiality and sign the message with the sender's private key for integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation
Correct Answer: Encrypt with the recipient's public key for confidentiality and sign the message with the sender's private key for integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation
Explanation:
Public-key encryption with the recipient's public key gives confidentiality. A digital signature with the sender's private key gives integrity, sender authentication, and non-repudiation (only the sender holds that private key). Symmetric keys cannot provide non-repudiation.
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58A developer implements AES-CTR mode but reuses the same key and nonce for two different plaintext messages. What is the critical consequence?
Cryptographic Solutions
Hard
A.The ciphertexts become identical, so an attacker learns the shared key directly
B.XOR of the two ciphertexts equals the XOR of the two plaintexts, leaking relationships and potentially recovering both messages
C.Integrity is lost but confidentiality remains fully intact
D.Nothing, because CTR mode is immune to nonce reuse
Correct Answer: XOR of the two ciphertexts equals the XOR of the two plaintexts, leaking relationships and potentially recovering both messages
Explanation:
CTR mode produces a keystream from (key, nonce). Reusing both means the same keystream encrypts both messages, so . This leaks plaintext relationships and can enable full recovery via crib-dragging.
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59A security architect must balance the CIA triad for a stock-trading platform where millisecond availability is critical but transaction integrity is legally mandated. During a DDoS attack, which design decision reflects the correct prioritization trade-off?
Security Concepts
Hard
A.Take the platform fully offline to guarantee integrity until the attack ends
B.Disable integrity checks temporarily to maximize throughput during the attack
C.Shed excess traffic to preserve availability for authenticated sessions while still cryptographically validating every executed transaction's integrity
D.Prioritize confidentiality by encrypting all traffic even if it drops transaction throughput
Correct Answer: Shed excess traffic to preserve availability for authenticated sessions while still cryptographically validating every executed transaction's integrity
Explanation:
Integrity of financial transactions is legally non-negotiable, so it cannot be disabled. The correct trade-off preserves availability for legitimate sessions (traffic shedding) while never compromising the integrity of executed trades.
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60During certificate enrollment, a subscriber generates a key pair locally and submits a CSR. An auditor asks why the private key never appears in the CSR. Which explanation is correct?
Public Key Infrastructure
Hard
A.The CSR contains the public key and is signed with the private key to prove possession, so the private key itself never needs to leave the subscriber
B.The CA generates the private key and inserts it into the issued certificate later
C.The private key is omitted only to reduce the CSR file size for transmission
D.The CSR includes an encrypted copy of the private key that only the CA can decrypt
Correct Answer: The CSR contains the public key and is signed with the private key to prove possession, so the private key itself never needs to leave the subscriber
Explanation:
A CSR carries the subject's public key and identity, signed by the corresponding private key to prove the requester controls it. The private key stays with the subscriber, preserving its secrecy and the integrity of the PKI trust model.
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