Unit 1: Summarize Fundamental Security Concepts, Compare Threat Types, Explain Cryptographic Solutions - Practice Quiz

CSC302 — Securing Computing Systems 60 Questions
0 Correct 0 Wrong 60 Left
0/60

1 In the CIA triad, what does the letter C stand for?

Security Concepts Easy
A. Confidentiality
B. Certification
C. Control
D. Compliance

2 Which security goal ensures that data has not been altered by unauthorized parties?

Security Concepts Easy
A. Availability
B. Authentication
C. Integrity
D. Redundancy

3 The principle that users should be given only the access they need to do their job is called:

Security Concepts Easy
A. Least privilege
B. Full control
C. Shared trust
D. Open access

4 Which concept provides proof that a party cannot deny having performed an action?

Security Concepts Easy
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Redundancy
D. Non-repudiation

5 A locked door and a security guard are examples of which type of security control?

Security Controls Easy
A. Logical
B. Physical
C. Managerial
D. Technical

6 A firewall configured to block traffic is best classified as which category of control?

Security Controls Easy
A. Technical
B. Physical
C. Deterrent
D. Administrative

7 A security control that is designed to discourage an attacker, such as a warning sign, is a:

Security Controls Easy
A. Recovery control
B. Deterrent control
C. Detective control
D. Corrective control

8 Company security policies and employee training are examples of which type of control?

Security Controls Easy
A. Compensating
B. Physical
C. Administrative
D. Technical

9 A threat actor motivated by political or social causes is best described as a:

Threat Actors Easy
A. Insider
B. Competitor
C. Script kiddie
D. Hacktivist

10 An inexperienced attacker who uses existing tools and scripts written by others is called a:

Threat Actors Easy
A. Insider threat
B. Script kiddie
C. Nation-state actor
D. Advanced persistent threat

11 Which threat actor typically has the most resources and government backing?

Threat Actors Easy
A. Lone insider
B. Hacktivist
C. Script kiddie
D. Nation-state actor

12 A current employee who misuses their legitimate access to harm the organization is an example of a(n):

Threat Actors Easy
A. External hacker
B. Script kiddie
C. Insider threat
D. Hacktivist

13 What best describes an attack surface?

Attack Surfaces Easy
A. A log of blocked attacks
B. A list of patched vulnerabilities
C. All the points where an attacker could try to enter a system
D. The physical casing of a server

14 Which action most directly reduces a system's attack surface?

Attack Surfaces Easy
A. Installing more applications
B. Adding more user accounts
C. Opening additional network ports
D. Disabling unused services and ports

15 Sending a fraudulent email that pretends to be from a trusted source to steal credentials is called:

Social Engineering Easy
A. Brute forcing
B. Spoofing a MAC address
C. Port scanning
D. Phishing

16 A targeted phishing attack aimed at a specific high-level executive is known as:

Social Engineering Easy
A. Whaling
B. Pharming
C. Vishing
D. Smishing

17 A social engineering attack carried out over a voice phone call is called:

Social Engineering Easy
A. Smishing
B. Vishing
C. Phishing
D. Tailgating

18 Which type of encryption uses the same key for both encryption and decryption?

Cryptographic Algorithms Easy
A. Steganography
B. Symmetric encryption
C. Asymmetric encryption
D. Hashing

19 Which of the following is a widely used symmetric encryption algorithm?

Cryptographic Algorithms Easy
A. RSA
B. Diffie-Hellman
C. AES
D. SHA-256

20 In a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), which entity is responsible for issuing digital certificates?

Public Key Infrastructure Easy
A. Domain controller
B. Certificate Authority (CA)
C. Key logger
D. Registration server

21 An organization implements a system where a user who sends an encrypted, digitally signed email cannot later deny having sent it. Which security concept does this directly support?

Security Concepts Medium
A. Non-repudiation
B. Confidentiality
C. Authentication
D. Availability

22 A hospital database must remain accessible to doctors during emergencies while ensuring patient records are not altered by unauthorized staff. Which two elements of the CIA triad are the primary focus?

Security Concepts Medium
A. Integrity and Availability
B. Authentication and Availability
C. Confidentiality and Availability
D. Confidentiality and Integrity

23 After a breach, a company installs motion-activated lights and warning signage to discourage intruders from attempting entry. How are these controls best categorized?

Security Controls Medium
A. Compensating controls
B. Corrective controls
C. Detective controls
D. Deterrent controls

24 A firewall rule set and an encryption algorithm are both examples of which control category based on how they are implemented?

Security Controls Medium
A. Technical controls
B. Operational controls
C. Physical controls
D. Managerial controls

25 An organization cannot patch a legacy server due to vendor limitations, so it isolates the server on a segmented network with strict access rules. Which control type best describes this isolation measure?

Security Controls Medium
A. Preventive control
B. Compensating control
C. Detective control
D. Directive control

26 A threat actor possessing significant funding, advanced tools, and the goal of long-term espionage against a government agency is most accurately described as which type?

Threat Actors Medium
A. Insider threat
B. Script kiddie
C. Hacktivist
D. Nation-state (APT)

27 An attacker defaces a corporation's website to protest its environmental policies rather than for financial gain. Which attribute best characterizes this threat actor's motivation?

Threat Actors Medium
A. Financial profit
B. Thrill-seeking curiosity
C. Ideological or political beliefs
D. Corporate espionage for a competitor

28 Which characteristic most clearly distinguishes an insider threat from an external threat actor?

Threat Actors Medium
A. Reliance on phishing campaigns
B. Operation from a foreign country
C. Authorized access to internal systems
D. Use of zero-day exploits

29 A company moves several internal applications to the public cloud and exposes new APIs to partners. What is the most direct security consequence of this change?

Attack Surfaces Medium
A. Confidentiality is automatically guaranteed
B. The threat vector count stays fixed
C. The attack surface expands
D. The attack surface shrinks

30 A security team disables unused services, closes open ports, and removes default accounts on a server. What is the primary goal of these actions?

Attack Surfaces Medium
A. Enabling non-repudiation
B. Reducing the attack surface
C. Increasing system availability
D. Improving data integrity hashing

31 An employee receives a phone call from someone claiming to be from IT support, urgently requesting their password to "fix an account lockout." Which social engineering principle is being exploited most heavily?

Social Engineering Medium
A. Reciprocity
B. Urgency and authority
C. Scarcity of resources
D. Social proof

32 A targeted phishing email is crafted specifically for a company's CFO, referencing a real recent acquisition to appear legitimate. What is this attack best classified as?

Social Engineering Medium
A. Smishing
B. Pharming
C. Whaling
D. Vishing

33 An attacker leaves USB drives labeled "Salary Data" in a company parking lot, hoping an employee plugs one into a work computer. Which technique does this represent?

Social Engineering Medium
A. Tailgating
B. Baiting
C. Pretexting
D. Shoulder surfing

34 A developer needs to encrypt a large file quickly and both parties already share a secret key securely. Which type of algorithm is most appropriate?

Cryptographic Algorithms Medium
A. A digital signature algorithm
B. A hashing algorithm (e.g., SHA-256)
C. Symmetric encryption (e.g., AES)
D. Asymmetric encryption (e.g., RSA)

35 Two parties who have never met need to agree on a shared secret key over an insecure channel without transmitting the key itself. Which algorithm is designed for this purpose?

Cryptographic Algorithms Medium
A. SHA-256
B. AES
C. HMAC
D. Diffie-Hellman

36 A system stores user passwords by applying SHA-256 along with a unique random value for each user before hashing. What is the primary purpose of adding this random value?

Cryptographic Algorithms Medium
A. To provide non-repudiation for logins
B. To encrypt the password for later decryption
C. To compress the password into fewer bytes
D. To defend against precomputed rainbow table attacks

37 When a web browser validates a website's TLS certificate, what role does the Certificate Authority (CA) play?

Public Key Infrastructure Medium
A. It encrypts all traffic between browser and server
B. It stores the website's private key for backup
C. It digitally signs the certificate to vouch for the site's identity
D. It generates session keys for each connection

38 An administrator needs to immediately invalidate a certificate because its private key was compromised. Which PKI mechanism allows clients to check whether a certificate is still valid?

Public Key Infrastructure Medium
A. Certificate Signing Request (CSR)
B. Certificate Revocation List (CRL)
C. Registration Authority (RA)
D. Key Escrow

39 In asymmetric cryptography, if Alice wants to send a confidential message that only Bob can read, which key should she use to encrypt it?

Public Key Infrastructure Medium
A. Bob's public key
B. Alice's private key
C. Alice's public key
D. Bob's private key

40 A company encrypts all data stored on its laptop hard drives so that information remains protected if a device is lost or stolen. Which cryptographic solution does this describe?

Cryptographic Solutions Medium
A. Steganography
B. Transport Layer Security (data in transit)
C. Perfect forward secrecy
D. Full disk encryption (data at rest)

41 An organization implements a system where a user's actions are cryptographically signed and logged such that the user cannot later deny performing them. However, an auditor notes that the signing keys are stored in a shared location accessible by three administrators. Which core security goal is most undermined by this configuration?

Security Concepts Hard
A. Integrity, because the logs can be modified by any administrator
B. Confidentiality, because the logs can be read by multiple administrators
C. Availability, because key sharing creates a single point of failure
D. Non-repudiation, because shared key access breaks the binding between an action and a single identity

42 A company deploys the following after a breach: an IDS alert rule, a disciplinary policy for the responsible employee, mandatory security awareness training, and a restored backup. Classify these four measures by control function in the order listed.

Security Controls Hard
A. Detective, Deterrent, Preventive, Corrective
B. Preventive, Corrective, Preventive, Detective
C. Deterrent, Corrective, Detective, Preventive
D. Detective, Corrective, Preventive, Corrective

43 A threat actor exhibits the following profile: substantial funding, long dwell times, custom zero-day tooling, and objectives aligned with geopolitical intelligence gathering rather than financial gain. During analysis, which attribute best distinguishes this actor from an organized crime group with similar resources?

Threat Actors Hard
A. The presence of substantial funding to sustain operations
B. The primary motivation being espionage/strategic advantage rather than monetary profit
C. The ability to maintain persistence inside a network for long periods
D. The use of zero-day exploits, which only this actor type can develop

44 A microservices application exposes 12 internal APIs through a single API gateway, 3 of which are also published externally. A security team wants to minimize the attack surface without reducing functionality. Which action yields the greatest reduction?

Attack Surfaces Hard
A. Enabling verbose logging on the 3 external APIs for better monitoring
B. Adding rate limiting to all 12 APIs behind the gateway
C. Rotating the TLS certificates used by the API gateway more frequently
D. Restricting the 9 internal-only APIs to the service mesh so they are unreachable from the gateway's external interface

45 An attacker calls an employee claiming to be from IT, references a real ongoing system migration, creates urgency about a deadline, and asks the employee to "verify" their credentials on a lookalike portal. Which combination of principles is the attacker primarily exploiting?

Social Engineering Hard
A. Intimidation, consensus, and typosquatting only
B. Familiarity, liking, and watering hole targeting
C. Scarcity, consensus, and tailgating
D. Authority, urgency, and pretexting with a credential-harvesting vishing component

46 A developer must encrypt 500 GB of archived data at rest and wants both strong confidentiality and integrity verification with minimal key management overhead. Which choice is most appropriate?

Cryptographic Algorithms Hard
A. RSA-4096 to directly encrypt the entire 500 GB archive
B. SHA-256 applied to the archive to encrypt and verify it simultaneously
C. AES-256 in ECB mode for maximum throughput on large blocks
D. AES-256 in GCM mode, which provides authenticated encryption with associated data

47 A client receives a server certificate chain. The leaf certificate is valid and signed by an intermediate CA, but the intermediate's certificate was revoked by the root CA this morning. The client has a cached OCSP response for the intermediate from yesterday indicating "good." What is the correct security outcome?

Public Key Infrastructure Hard
A. The connection succeeds because the leaf certificate itself is still valid and not revoked
B. The connection should fail once a fresh revocation check reveals the intermediate is revoked, invalidating the entire chain below it
C. The connection fails only if the root certificate is also revoked
D. The connection succeeds because a cached "good" OCSP response remains authoritative until its nextUpdate

48 Two parties want to establish a shared symmetric key over an insecure channel while ensuring that compromise of a long-term private key in the future does not expose past session keys. Which property and mechanism satisfy this?

Cryptographic Solutions Hard
A. Integrity via HMAC applied to the long-term key
B. Confidentiality via reusing a single pre-shared key for all sessions
C. Perfect forward secrecy via ephemeral Diffie-Hellman (DHE/ECDHE) key exchange
D. Non-repudiation via static RSA key transport

49 A system uses a 128-bit symmetric cipher. An analyst claims that a quantum adversary running Grover's algorithm reduces its effective security. What is the resulting effective security strength, and what is the standard mitigation?

Cryptographic Algorithms Hard
A. Effective strength drops to about 64 bits; mitigate by moving to a 256-bit key
B. Effective strength drops to about 32 bits; mitigate by using ECB mode
C. Effective strength drops to 0 bits; mitigate by switching to RSA
D. Effective strength is unchanged at 128 bits; no mitigation needed

50 An organization adopts a Zero Trust model. A legacy application grants a user full database access for 8 hours after a single login. Which Zero Trust principle is most directly violated?

Security Concepts Hard
A. Defense in depth, since only one firewall protects the database
B. Separation of duties, since one user performs all database tasks
C. Least privilege with continuous verification, since access should be minimal and re-evaluated per request
D. Security through obscurity, since the application is legacy

51 A regulated company cannot patch a vulnerable legacy server due to vendor constraints. To meet audit requirements, they isolate it on a segmented VLAN with strict ACLs and enhanced monitoring. In control terminology, how is this best described?

Security Controls Hard
A. A compensating control that offsets risk when the primary control cannot be applied
B. A corrective control that permanently removes the vulnerability
C. A directive control that mandates how the server must be used
D. A preventive physical control that blocks all network access

52 An insider with legitimate privileged access gradually exfiltrates data over months, matching normal access patterns to avoid detection. Which attribute pairing best characterizes the difficulty of defending against this actor compared to an external attacker?

Threat Actors Hard
A. External reconnaissance combined with social engineering, which exploits public-facing services
B. Low sophistication combined with automated tooling, which generates high alert volume
C. High funding combined with zero-day usage, which outpaces patching cycles
D. Authorized access combined with knowledge of internal controls, which bypasses perimeter defenses and blends with normal behavior

53 A company moves on-prem workloads to IaaS. Which statement correctly reflects how the attack surface and responsibility change under the shared responsibility model?

Attack Surfaces Hard
A. The attack surface shrinks to zero because physical access is now controlled by the provider
B. The customer remains responsible for OS, application, and data security, so misconfigured guest OS and storage become key attack surface elements
C. The cloud provider secures everything, eliminating the customer's attack surface entirely
D. Only the provider's hypervisor represents attack surface the customer must manage

54 An attacker compromises a popular niche industry forum that target-company engineers frequent, planting a drive-by exploit. No individual is directly contacted. Which attack type is this, and what makes it effective against security-aware targets?

Social Engineering Hard
A. A spear phishing attack; it uses a personalized email to a specific engineer
B. A watering hole attack; it exploits trust in a legitimate, frequently visited site rather than relying on the victim clicking a suspicious message
C. A pharming attack; it poisons DNS to redirect all users to a fake bank site
D. A whaling attack; it targets senior executives through impersonated vendors

55 A protocol designer wants to hash passwords for storage. They compare SHA-256, bcrypt, and MD5. Which choice and rationale is correct for resisting modern offline cracking?

Cryptographic Algorithms Hard
A. SHA-256 with no salt, because its collision resistance alone prevents cracking
B. MD5, because its speed allows rapid rehashing to detect tampering
C. SHA-256, because its 256-bit output makes it computationally infeasible to reverse
D. bcrypt, because its adjustable work factor and built-in salting slow down brute-force and rainbow-table attacks

56 An administrator wants certificate revocation checking that avoids the privacy leak of a client contacting the CA for every connection and avoids large CRL downloads. Which mechanism satisfies both goals?

Public Key Infrastructure Hard
A. Disabling revocation checking and relying on short certificate lifetimes only
B. OCSP stapling, where the server attaches a time-stamped, CA-signed OCSP response during the TLS handshake
C. Publishing a larger, more frequently updated CRL for clients to download
D. Having each client query the CA's OCSP responder directly on every handshake

57 A messaging app needs confidentiality, integrity, authentication of sender, and non-repudiation for each message. Which cryptographic construction set correctly provides all four?

Cryptographic Solutions Hard
A. Encrypt with the sender's private key so only the sender can have produced it
B. Encrypt and sign both with the same shared symmetric key for all four properties
C. Hash the message with SHA-256 and send the hash alongside the plaintext
D. Encrypt with the recipient's public key for confidentiality and sign the message with the sender's private key for integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation

58 A developer implements AES-CTR mode but reuses the same key and nonce for two different plaintext messages. What is the critical consequence?

Cryptographic Solutions Hard
A. The ciphertexts become identical, so an attacker learns the shared key directly
B. XOR of the two ciphertexts equals the XOR of the two plaintexts, leaking relationships and potentially recovering both messages
C. Integrity is lost but confidentiality remains fully intact
D. Nothing, because CTR mode is immune to nonce reuse

59 A security architect must balance the CIA triad for a stock-trading platform where millisecond availability is critical but transaction integrity is legally mandated. During a DDoS attack, which design decision reflects the correct prioritization trade-off?

Security Concepts Hard
A. Take the platform fully offline to guarantee integrity until the attack ends
B. Disable integrity checks temporarily to maximize throughput during the attack
C. Shed excess traffic to preserve availability for authenticated sessions while still cryptographically validating every executed transaction's integrity
D. Prioritize confidentiality by encrypting all traffic even if it drops transaction throughput

60 During certificate enrollment, a subscriber generates a key pair locally and submits a CSR. An auditor asks why the private key never appears in the CSR. Which explanation is correct?

Public Key Infrastructure Hard
A. The CSR contains the public key and is signed with the private key to prove possession, so the private key itself never needs to leave the subscriber
B. The CA generates the private key and inserts it into the issued certificate later
C. The private key is omitted only to reduce the CSR file size for transmission
D. The CSR includes an encrypted copy of the private key that only the CA can decrypt