Unit 4: Bank investments - Practice Quiz

FIN203 — Commercial Banking 60 Questions
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1 A bank's investment policy is primarily approved and reviewed by which body?

investment policy Easy
A. The individual depositors
B. The branch managers
C. The external auditors
D. The Board of Directors

2 Which of the following is a key objective of a bank's investment policy?

investment policy Easy
A. Maximising deposits only
B. Eliminating all forms of risk completely
C. Balancing profitability, safety, and liquidity
D. Avoiding all government securities

3 In India, SLR stands for which of the following?

statutory reserve requirements Easy
A. Statutory Liquidity Ratio
B. Standard Loan Reserve
C. Scheduled Liquidity Return
D. Secured Lending Rate

4 The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is maintained by banks with which institution?

statutory reserve requirements Easy
A. The commercial borrowers
B. The central bank (RBI)
C. The Ministry of Finance
D. The stock exchange

5 SLR is calculated as a percentage of a bank's:

statutory reserve requirements Easy
A. Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL)
B. Total share capital
C. Branch network size
D. Fixed assets

6 Which of the following is an example of a non-SLR investment?

non-SLR investments Easy
A. Government securities
B. Corporate bonds
C. State development loans
D. Treasury bills

7 Non-SLR investments are those securities that:

non-SLR investments Easy
A. Are always risk-free
B. Must be held till maturity only
C. Are issued only by the central government
D. Do not qualify for Statutory Liquidity Ratio maintenance

8 Which instrument is typically classified under non-SLR investments?

non-SLR investments Easy
A. Commercial paper
B. State government securities
C. Central government dated securities
D. Treasury bills

9 As per RBI norms, a bank's investment portfolio is classified into how many broad categories?

bank's investment classification Easy
A. Five
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

10 In investment classification, the abbreviation HTM stands for:

bank's investment classification Easy
A. Held to Maturity
B. Hedged Treasury Markets
C. Holding Trade Margin
D. High Term Money

11 Securities acquired by a bank with the intention of trading in the short term are classified as:

bank's investment classification Easy
A. Held for Trading (HFT)
B. Non-performing Investments
C. Held to Maturity (HTM)
D. Available for Sale (AFS)

12 The AFS category in a bank's investment portfolio stands for:

bank's investment classification Easy
A. Assets for Settlement
B. Advance Fund Scheme
C. Approved Financial Securities
D. Available for Sale

13 Securities under the Held to Maturity (HTM) category are generally valued at:

bank's investment valuation norms Easy
A. Market value
B. Face value only
C. Zero value
D. Acquisition cost

14 The practice of valuing securities at their current market price is called:

bank's investment valuation norms Easy
A. Marking to market
B. Amortisation
C. Depreciation
D. Capitalisation

15 Securities in the AFS and HFT categories are required to be:

bank's investment valuation norms Easy
A. Valued only at face value
B. Written off immediately
C. Marked to market
D. Never valued again after purchase

16 Credit risk in bank investments refers to the risk that:

credit risk Easy
A. The currency value will fall
B. The security cannot be sold quickly
C. The issuer fails to pay interest or principal
D. Interest rates will rise

17 Which type of investment generally carries the lowest credit risk?

credit risk Easy
A. Commercial paper
B. Central government securities
C. Unrated corporate bonds
D. Equity shares

18 Concentration risk arises when a bank:

concentration risk Easy
A. Holds only government securities
B. Keeps excess cash reserves
C. Invests too heavily in a single sector or issuer
D. Diversifies across many issuers

19 The best way for a bank to reduce concentration risk is to:

concentration risk Easy
A. Invest in one large company
B. Diversify its investment portfolio
C. Avoid government securities
D. Hold all assets as cash

20 Liquidity risk in investments refers to the risk that:

liquidity risk Easy
A. An asset cannot be sold quickly without loss
B. The bank will earn higher profits
C. Interest income will decline
D. The borrower will default

21 A commercial bank has Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) of crore. If the SLR is and the CRR is , what is the total amount the bank must maintain under both statutory reserve requirements combined?

statutory reserve requirements Medium
A. crore
B. crore
C. crore
D. crore

22 Which of the following best explains why CRR, unlike SLR, cannot be satisfied by holding government securities?

statutory reserve requirements Medium
A. CRR is maintained with other commercial banks in the form of deposits
B. CRR must be maintained as a cash balance with the RBI and does not earn interest
C. CRR can be held in approved corporate bonds instead of cash
D. CRR allows banks to hold gold up to a prescribed percentage of liabilities

23 A bank buys a government security with the clear intention of holding it till maturity to earn coupon income. Under the three-category classification framework, where should this security be placed?

bank's investment classification Medium
A. Held for Trading (HFT)
B. Held to Maturity (HTM)
C. Current Investments
D. Available for Sale (AFS)

24 A security kept in the Held for Trading (HFT) category must generally be sold within a prescribed time frame. What is this limit under the traditional norms?

bank's investment classification Medium
A. 30 days
B. 90 days
C. 180 days
D. 365 days

25 Under traditional valuation norms, how are investments classified under the Held to Maturity (HTM) category generally valued?

bank's investment valuation norms Medium
A. At face value regardless of the purchase price or market movements
B. At the lower of cost or market value, scrip-wise
C. At acquisition cost, with premium amortised over the remaining period to maturity
D. Marked to market daily with gains and losses taken to the profit and loss account

26 For securities under the Available for Sale (AFS) category, net depreciation in any classification group is recognised in the accounts while net appreciation is ignored. What accounting principle does this reflect?

bank's investment valuation norms Medium
A. Consistency principle
B. Conservatism (prudence)
C. Going concern assumption
D. Matching concept

27 A bank holds AFS securities in a group where some scrips show appreciation of crore and others show depreciation of crore. Under mark-to-market norms, what will the bank recognise?

bank's investment valuation norms Medium
A. No provision, since gains and losses offset to leave crore gain
B. A net depreciation of crore as a provision
C. A net appreciation of crore as income
D. A net depreciation of crore as a provision

28 Which of the following is an example of a non-SLR investment for a commercial bank?

non-SLR investments Medium
A. Corporate bonds and debentures
B. Central Government dated securities
C. Treasury Bills issued by the Government
D. State Development Loans

29 A bank wishes to improve yield by investing in non-SLR instruments. Which risk primarily increases as a result of this strategy compared to holding government securities?

non-SLR investments Medium
A. Settlement reversal risk
B. Credit (default) risk
C. Statutory compliance risk
D. Reserve maintenance risk

30 A bank's board-approved investment policy typically specifies exposure limits per issuer and per category. What is the main purpose of setting such limits?

investment policy Medium
A. To ensure all investments are made only in equity instruments
B. To eliminate interest rate risk from the investment portfolio entirely
C. To control concentration risk by preventing excessive exposure to a single issuer or sector
D. To avoid maintaining any statutory reserves with the RBI

31 Which of the following is NOT typically a component addressed in a bank's investment policy?

investment policy Medium
A. The daily closing price of the stock market index
B. Permissible categories of investment
C. Delegation of authority for investment decisions
D. Procedures for valuation and classification

32 A bank is comparing two corporate bonds with identical yields and maturities. Bond A is rated AAA and Bond B is rated BBB. In terms of credit risk, which statement is correct?

credit risk Medium
A. Bond A carries higher credit risk because higher-rated issuers borrow more
B. Bond B carries lower credit risk because it is cheaper to buy
C. Both bonds carry identical credit risk since yields are equal
D. Bond B carries higher credit risk because a lower rating signals greater default probability

33 Which measure most directly helps a bank mitigate the credit risk arising from its non-SLR investment portfolio?

credit risk Medium
A. Setting minimum credit rating thresholds for eligible instruments
B. Shortening the average maturity of government securities
C. Raising the proportion of HTM securities in the portfolio
D. Increasing the frequency of mark-to-market revaluation

34 A bank's investment book shows that of its corporate bond holdings are issued by companies in a single industry sector. This situation is a classic example of which risk?

concentration risk Medium
A. Liquidity risk
B. Off-balance sheet risk
C. Reserve requirement risk
D. Concentration risk

35 Which action would most effectively reduce concentration risk in a bank's investment portfolio?

concentration risk Medium
A. Marking the entire portfolio to market every trading day
B. Increasing total exposure to the single highest-yielding issuer
C. Holding only short-term treasury bills until all of them mature
D. Diversifying holdings across multiple issuers, sectors, and instrument types

36 A bank holds a large block of thinly traded corporate bonds. When it urgently needs cash, it can only sell them at a steep discount. This difficulty best illustrates which risk?

liquidity risk Medium
A. Concentration risk
B. Credit risk
C. Liquidity risk
D. Interest rate risk

37 Why are government securities generally preferred over corporate bonds when a bank wants to manage liquidity risk in its investment book?

liquidity risk Medium
A. They offer the highest coupon rates among all available instruments
B. They never fluctuate in price regardless of interest rate changes
C. They are exempt from all valuation and classification requirements
D. They have deep, active secondary markets making them easy to sell near fair value

38 A bank issues a large letter of credit on behalf of a client. The client defaults and the bank must honour the obligation. This exposure is an example of which type of risk?

off-balance sheet risk Medium
A. Mark-to-market valuation risk
B. Off-balance sheet risk
C. Classification risk
D. Statutory reserve risk

39 Which of the following instruments typically creates off-balance sheet risk for a commercial bank?

off-balance sheet risk Medium
A. Cash reserves maintained with the RBI
B. Treasury bills classified under HFT
C. Held-to-maturity government bonds
D. Interest rate swaps and forward contracts

40 A bank decides to shift a security from the HTM category to the AFS category. Which treatment typically applies to such a shift of investments between categories?

bank's investment classification Medium
A. It can be done freely at any time with no valuation or approval requirement
B. It is allowed only if the security has already matured
C. It is strictly prohibited once a security enters the HTM category
D. It is permitted but subject to board approval and valuation at the time of shifting, usually once a year

41 A bank has NDTL of crore. The SLR is and CRR is . The bank currently holds crore in SLR-eligible securities and crore as CRR balances. By how much is the bank short or in excess on its SLR obligation?

statutory reserve requirements Hard
A. Excess by crore
B. Exactly compliant with gap
C. Short by crore
D. Short by crore

42 Under RBI's three-category classification (HTM, AFS, HFT prior to the 2023 revised framework), which statement about shifting securities between categories is correct?

bank's investment classification Hard
A. Shifting to/from HTM is allowed once a year, normally at the beginning of the accounting year, with Board approval
B. Shifting from AFS to HFT requires prior RBI approval each time
C. Shifting to/from HTM is unrestricted and can be done daily
D. Securities in HFT can never be shifted to AFS under any condition

43 A security held in AFS was purchased at (face ). At the valuation date its market price is . Under the traditional valuation norms, how is this treated?

bank's investment valuation norms Hard
A. The security is revalued to and gain is credited to P&L
B. Net depreciation of in that classification/scrip group is provided for; appreciation is ignored
C. No adjustment, since AFS is carried at acquisition cost until sale
D. Appreciation of over face value is booked as income

44 HTM securities are carried at acquisition cost. If a security is purchased at a premium to face value, what is the correct accounting treatment?

bank's investment valuation norms Hard
A. The premium is carried unchanged until maturity, then expensed
B. The premium is written off immediately against P&L
C. The premium is marked to market every quarter
D. The premium is amortised over the remaining period to maturity

45 Which of the following instruments would count as a non-SLR investment for a commercial bank?

non-SLR investments Hard
A. State Development Loans (SDLs)
B. Treasury Bills issued by the Government of India
C. Corporate bonds and commercial paper
D. Central Government dated securities

46 A bank holds a crore corporate bond rated AA. The issuer is downgraded to BBB. Ignoring interest-rate moves, which risk has primarily materialised and what is the most direct balance-sheet consequence?

credit risk Hard
A. Credit risk; the bond's market value falls as the credit spread widens
B. Liquidity risk; the bond cannot be sold at all
C. Market risk only; the risk-free rate has changed
D. Operational risk; settlement will fail

47 A bank's non-SLR portfolio of crore has crore exposure to a single business group and crore to the real-estate sector. Which statement best captures the concern?

concentration risk Hard
A. Concentration risk only applies to the SLR portfolio
B. Both single-group () and sectoral () concentration breach prudent diversification norms, amplifying correlated losses
C. Only interest-rate risk is relevant since both are bonds
D. There is no concern because the total is diversified across two different categories

48 A large portion of a bank's HTM portfolio consists of long-dated G-Secs. During a sudden deposit run, why can this still pose liquidity risk despite G-Secs being high quality?

liquidity risk Hard
A. HTM securities legally cannot be sold at any time
B. G-Secs are not eligible as collateral in repo markets
C. G-Secs carry high default risk during a deposit run
D. Selling HTM securities before maturity may force realisation of losses and attract regulatory/accounting consequences, so quick liquidation is costly

49 A bank writes an interest-rate swap and issues several letters of credit and guarantees. Why do these create risk even though they are not recorded as on-balance-sheet assets?

off-balance sheet risk Hard
A. They only affect the bank's tax position, not its risk
B. They are fully insured by the central bank
C. They can convert into on-balance-sheet obligations/credit exposures if the counterparty or client defaults, creating contingent credit and market exposure
D. They have zero risk because no cash has changed hands

50 A well-structured bank investment policy must primarily balance which triad of objectives?

investment policy Hard
A. Growth, market share, and branding
B. Secrecy, speed, and leverage
C. Safety (of principal), liquidity, and yield/return
D. Taxation, dividends, and buybacks

51 A bank's AFS portfolio has three scrips: A shows appreciation of , B shows depreciation of , C shows depreciation of (all within the same classification group). What provision must be made?

bank's investment valuation norms Hard
A. No provision, as net position is positive
B. Provision of (sum of all depreciations, appreciation ignored)
C. Provision of (gross of all movements)
D. Provision of (net depreciation after netting appreciation of against depreciation)

52 Which statement correctly distinguishes CRR from SLR?

statutory reserve requirements Hard
A. Both CRR and SLR must be maintained as cash with the RBI
B. CRR and SLR are identical requirements under different names
C. SLR must be maintained as cash with the RBI; CRR can be held in securities
D. CRR is a cash balance maintained with the RBI and earns no interest; SLR can be held in approved securities that earn a yield

53 To mitigate credit risk in its non-SLR bond portfolio, a bank sets internal exposure caps based on external ratings. The most prudent structure would:

credit risk Hard
A. Permit larger exposures to higher-rated issuers and progressively tighter caps as rating quality declines
B. Base caps only on coupon rate, not rating
C. Allow unlimited exposure to unrated paper to boost yield
D. Permit equal exposure limits regardless of rating since all bonds carry risk

54 RBI prudential norms on non-SLR investments historically restricted banks' investment in unrated non-SLR debt securities primarily because:

non-SLR investments Hard
A. Unrated paper always offers lower yields than rated paper
B. Unrated paper lacks an independent credit assessment, raising the risk of hidden default and mispricing
C. Unrated securities cannot be dematerialised
D. Unrated securities are SLR-eligible and distort reserve calculations

55 A bank funds long-dated non-SLR corporate bonds largely with short-term wholesale deposits. Which risk does this maturity profile most directly create?

liquidity risk Hard
A. Liquidity (funding) risk from a maturity mismatch, as short-term funding must be rolled over to support long-term assets
B. Operational risk in settlement systems
C. No risk, since asset yields exceed funding costs
D. Only credit risk on the bonds

56 A security intended to be sold within days to profit from short-term price movements would most appropriately be classified under which category (pre-2023 framework)?

bank's investment classification Hard
A. Held to Maturity (HTM)
B. Held for Trading (HFT)
C. Available for Sale (AFS)
D. Any category at the dealer's discretion

57 In capital-adequacy computation, off-balance-sheet exposures are brought into risk-weighted assets using a credit conversion factor (CCF). The CCF primarily reflects:

off-balance sheet risk Hard
A. The maturity of the bank's deposits
B. The coupon payable on the underlying security
C. The bank's cost of funds
D. The likelihood that the contingent item will convert into an actual on-balance-sheet credit exposure

58 Which portfolio action would most effectively reduce concentration risk in a bank's investment book?

concentration risk Hard
A. Holding all securities in a single sector that is currently performing well
B. Spreading exposures across uncorrelated issuers, sectors, and geographies
C. Increasing the single-largest holding to capture its high yield
D. Replacing many small bonds with one large AAA bond

59 A bank's investment policy sets a duration ceiling on its bond portfolio. The primary purpose of this limit is to control:

investment policy Hard
A. Credit risk, since duration measures default probability
B. Operational risk in trade settlement
C. Interest-rate (market) risk, since higher duration means greater price sensitivity to rate changes
D. Concentration risk by issuer

60 A bank's NDTL rises sharply mid-fortnight due to large deposit inflows. Regarding CRR maintenance, which statement is correct?

statutory reserve requirements Hard
A. CRR is computed on net profit, not NDTL
B. CRR need only be met on the last day of the fortnight
C. CRR is maintained on an average daily basis over the reporting fortnight, with a prescribed minimum daily balance, allowing some intra-fortnight flexibility
D. CRR must be met exactly on every single day with no averaging