1A bank's investment policy is primarily approved and reviewed by which body?
investment policy
Easy
A.The individual depositors
B.The branch managers
C.The external auditors
D.The Board of Directors
Correct Answer: The Board of Directors
Explanation:
A bank's investment policy is framed and periodically reviewed by the Board of Directors, which sets the overall framework and limits for investment activities.
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2Which of the following is a key objective of a bank's investment policy?
investment policy
Easy
A.Maximising deposits only
B.Eliminating all forms of risk completely
C.Balancing profitability, safety, and liquidity
D.Avoiding all government securities
Correct Answer: Balancing profitability, safety, and liquidity
Explanation:
An investment policy aims to balance earnings (profitability) with the safety of funds and adequate liquidity to meet obligations.
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3In India, SLR stands for which of the following?
statutory reserve requirements
Easy
A.Statutory Liquidity Ratio
B.Standard Loan Reserve
C.Scheduled Liquidity Return
D.Secured Lending Rate
Correct Answer: Statutory Liquidity Ratio
Explanation:
SLR stands for Statutory Liquidity Ratio, the minimum percentage of net demand and time liabilities a bank must maintain in liquid assets.
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4The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is maintained by banks with which institution?
statutory reserve requirements
Easy
A.The commercial borrowers
B.The central bank (RBI)
C.The Ministry of Finance
D.The stock exchange
Correct Answer: The central bank (RBI)
Explanation:
CRR is the portion of deposits that banks must keep as reserves with the Reserve Bank of India (the central bank).
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5SLR is calculated as a percentage of a bank's:
statutory reserve requirements
Easy
A.Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL)
B.Total share capital
C.Branch network size
D.Fixed assets
Correct Answer: Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL)
Explanation:
SLR is maintained as a percentage of a bank's Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL).
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6Which of the following is an example of a non-SLR investment?
non-SLR investments
Easy
A.Government securities
B.Corporate bonds
C.State development loans
D.Treasury bills
Correct Answer: Corporate bonds
Explanation:
Non-SLR investments include instruments like corporate bonds, commercial paper, and shares, which are not eligible for SLR purposes.
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7Non-SLR investments are those securities that:
non-SLR investments
Easy
A.Are always risk-free
B.Must be held till maturity only
C.Are issued only by the central government
D.Do not qualify for Statutory Liquidity Ratio maintenance
Correct Answer: Do not qualify for Statutory Liquidity Ratio maintenance
Explanation:
Non-SLR investments are securities that cannot be counted towards meeting the SLR requirement.
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8Which instrument is typically classified under non-SLR investments?
non-SLR investments
Easy
A.Commercial paper
B.State government securities
C.Central government dated securities
D.Treasury bills
Correct Answer: Commercial paper
Explanation:
Commercial paper is a short-term corporate instrument classified as a non-SLR investment.
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9As per RBI norms, a bank's investment portfolio is classified into how many broad categories?
bank's investment classification
Easy
A.Five
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
Correct Answer: Three
Explanation:
Banks classify investments into three categories: Held to Maturity (HTM), Available for Sale (AFS), and Held for Trading (HFT).
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10In investment classification, the abbreviation HTM stands for:
bank's investment classification
Easy
A.Held to Maturity
B.Hedged Treasury Markets
C.Holding Trade Margin
D.High Term Money
Correct Answer: Held to Maturity
Explanation:
HTM stands for Held to Maturity, securities a bank intends to hold until they mature.
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11Securities acquired by a bank with the intention of trading in the short term are classified as:
bank's investment classification
Easy
A.Held for Trading (HFT)
B.Non-performing Investments
C.Held to Maturity (HTM)
D.Available for Sale (AFS)
Correct Answer: Held for Trading (HFT)
Explanation:
Held for Trading (HFT) securities are those bought to take advantage of short-term price movements.
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12The AFS category in a bank's investment portfolio stands for:
bank's investment classification
Easy
A.Assets for Settlement
B.Advance Fund Scheme
C.Approved Financial Securities
D.Available for Sale
Correct Answer: Available for Sale
Explanation:
AFS stands for Available for Sale, a residual category for securities not under HTM or HFT.
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13Securities under the Held to Maturity (HTM) category are generally valued at:
bank's investment valuation norms
Easy
A.Market value
B.Face value only
C.Zero value
D.Acquisition cost
Correct Answer: Acquisition cost
Explanation:
HTM securities are carried at acquisition cost and are not marked to market under normal norms.
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14The practice of valuing securities at their current market price is called:
bank's investment valuation norms
Easy
A.Marking to market
B.Amortisation
C.Depreciation
D.Capitalisation
Correct Answer: Marking to market
Explanation:
Marking to market means valuing investments at prevailing market prices to reflect their fair value.
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15Securities in the AFS and HFT categories are required to be:
bank's investment valuation norms
Easy
A.Valued only at face value
B.Written off immediately
C.Marked to market
D.Never valued again after purchase
Correct Answer: Marked to market
Explanation:
AFS and HFT securities are marked to market so that their value reflects current market conditions.
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16Credit risk in bank investments refers to the risk that:
credit risk
Easy
A.The currency value will fall
B.The security cannot be sold quickly
C.The issuer fails to pay interest or principal
D.Interest rates will rise
Correct Answer: The issuer fails to pay interest or principal
Explanation:
Credit risk is the risk of loss arising from the issuer's failure to meet its payment obligations (default).
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17Which type of investment generally carries the lowest credit risk?
credit risk
Easy
A.Commercial paper
B.Central government securities
C.Unrated corporate bonds
D.Equity shares
Correct Answer: Central government securities
Explanation:
Central government securities are considered virtually free of credit risk because they are backed by the government.
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18Concentration risk arises when a bank:
concentration risk
Easy
A.Holds only government securities
B.Keeps excess cash reserves
C.Invests too heavily in a single sector or issuer
D.Diversifies across many issuers
Correct Answer: Invests too heavily in a single sector or issuer
Explanation:
Concentration risk results from excessive exposure to a single borrower, issuer, sector, or geography.
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19The best way for a bank to reduce concentration risk is to:
concentration risk
Easy
A.Invest in one large company
B.Diversify its investment portfolio
C.Avoid government securities
D.Hold all assets as cash
Correct Answer: Diversify its investment portfolio
Explanation:
Diversification spreads exposure across issuers and sectors, reducing concentration risk.
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20Liquidity risk in investments refers to the risk that:
liquidity risk
Easy
A.An asset cannot be sold quickly without loss
B.The bank will earn higher profits
C.Interest income will decline
D.The borrower will default
Correct Answer: An asset cannot be sold quickly without loss
Explanation:
Liquidity risk is the risk of being unable to convert an investment into cash promptly without a significant price concession.
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21A commercial bank has Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) of crore. If the SLR is and the CRR is , what is the total amount the bank must maintain under both statutory reserve requirements combined?
statutory reserve requirements
Medium
A. crore
B. crore
C. crore
D. crore
Correct Answer: crore
Explanation:
SLR requirement crore and CRR requirement crore. Combined crore.
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22Which of the following best explains why CRR, unlike SLR, cannot be satisfied by holding government securities?
statutory reserve requirements
Medium
A.CRR is maintained with other commercial banks in the form of deposits
B.CRR must be maintained as a cash balance with the RBI and does not earn interest
C.CRR can be held in approved corporate bonds instead of cash
D.CRR allows banks to hold gold up to a prescribed percentage of liabilities
Correct Answer: CRR must be maintained as a cash balance with the RBI and does not earn interest
Explanation:
CRR is a portion of NDTL that banks must keep as cash reserves with the RBI, whereas SLR can be met using cash, gold, or approved securities including government securities.
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23A bank buys a government security with the clear intention of holding it till maturity to earn coupon income. Under the three-category classification framework, where should this security be placed?
bank's investment classification
Medium
A.Held for Trading (HFT)
B.Held to Maturity (HTM)
C.Current Investments
D.Available for Sale (AFS)
Correct Answer: Held to Maturity (HTM)
Explanation:
Securities acquired with the intention of being held up to maturity are classified under HTM. AFS and HFT are used for securities meant for sale or short-term trading.
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24A security kept in the Held for Trading (HFT) category must generally be sold within a prescribed time frame. What is this limit under the traditional norms?
bank's investment classification
Medium
A.30 days
B.90 days
C.180 days
D.365 days
Correct Answer: 90 days
Explanation:
Securities under HFT are intended to be sold within 90 days; if not sold within this period, they are typically reclassified into AFS.
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25Under traditional valuation norms, how are investments classified under the Held to Maturity (HTM) category generally valued?
bank's investment valuation norms
Medium
A.At face value regardless of the purchase price or market movements
B.At the lower of cost or market value, scrip-wise
C.At acquisition cost, with premium amortised over the remaining period to maturity
D.Marked to market daily with gains and losses taken to the profit and loss account
Correct Answer: At acquisition cost, with premium amortised over the remaining period to maturity
Explanation:
HTM securities are carried at acquisition cost. If acquired above face value, the premium is amortised over the remaining maturity; they are not marked to market.
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26For securities under the Available for Sale (AFS) category, net depreciation in any classification group is recognised in the accounts while net appreciation is ignored. What accounting principle does this reflect?
bank's investment valuation norms
Medium
A.Consistency principle
B.Conservatism (prudence)
C.Going concern assumption
D.Matching concept
Correct Answer: Conservatism (prudence)
Explanation:
Recognising losses but ignoring unrealised gains reflects the conservatism principle, under which anticipated losses are provided for but anticipated profits are not booked.
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27A bank holds AFS securities in a group where some scrips show appreciation of crore and others show depreciation of crore. Under mark-to-market norms, what will the bank recognise?
bank's investment valuation norms
Medium
A.No provision, since gains and losses offset to leave crore gain
B.A net depreciation of crore as a provision
C.A net appreciation of crore as income
D.A net depreciation of crore as a provision
Correct Answer: A net depreciation of crore as a provision
Explanation:
Within a group, appreciation and depreciation are netted. Here net depreciation is crore, which must be provided for; net appreciation would be ignored.
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28Which of the following is an example of a non-SLR investment for a commercial bank?
non-SLR investments
Medium
A.Corporate bonds and debentures
B.Central Government dated securities
C.Treasury Bills issued by the Government
D.State Development Loans
Correct Answer: Corporate bonds and debentures
Explanation:
SLR investments are mainly government and other RBI-approved securities. Corporate bonds and debentures are non-SLR instruments as they do not qualify for SLR purposes.
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29A bank wishes to improve yield by investing in non-SLR instruments. Which risk primarily increases as a result of this strategy compared to holding government securities?
non-SLR investments
Medium
A.Settlement reversal risk
B.Credit (default) risk
C.Statutory compliance risk
D.Reserve maintenance risk
Correct Answer: Credit (default) risk
Explanation:
Non-SLR instruments like corporate bonds carry the risk that the issuer may default, so credit risk rises relative to sovereign-backed government securities which are considered default-free.
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30A bank's board-approved investment policy typically specifies exposure limits per issuer and per category. What is the main purpose of setting such limits?
investment policy
Medium
A.To ensure all investments are made only in equity instruments
B.To eliminate interest rate risk from the investment portfolio entirely
C.To control concentration risk by preventing excessive exposure to a single issuer or sector
D.To avoid maintaining any statutory reserves with the RBI
Correct Answer: To control concentration risk by preventing excessive exposure to a single issuer or sector
Explanation:
Exposure limits diversify the portfolio and prevent over-concentration in any single counterparty or sector, thereby managing concentration risk.
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31Which of the following is NOT typically a component addressed in a bank's investment policy?
investment policy
Medium
A.The daily closing price of the stock market index
B.Permissible categories of investment
C.Delegation of authority for investment decisions
D.Procedures for valuation and classification
Correct Answer: The daily closing price of the stock market index
Explanation:
An investment policy sets permissible instruments, exposure limits, authority delegation, and valuation/classification procedures. Daily market index levels are external data, not policy components.
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32A bank is comparing two corporate bonds with identical yields and maturities. Bond A is rated AAA and Bond B is rated BBB. In terms of credit risk, which statement is correct?
credit risk
Medium
A.Bond A carries higher credit risk because higher-rated issuers borrow more
B.Bond B carries lower credit risk because it is cheaper to buy
C.Both bonds carry identical credit risk since yields are equal
D.Bond B carries higher credit risk because a lower rating signals greater default probability
Correct Answer: Bond B carries higher credit risk because a lower rating signals greater default probability
Explanation:
Credit ratings reflect default likelihood. A BBB rating indicates higher default probability than AAA, so Bond B has greater credit risk despite equal yield.
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33Which measure most directly helps a bank mitigate the credit risk arising from its non-SLR investment portfolio?
credit risk
Medium
A.Setting minimum credit rating thresholds for eligible instruments
B.Shortening the average maturity of government securities
C.Raising the proportion of HTM securities in the portfolio
D.Increasing the frequency of mark-to-market revaluation
Correct Answer: Setting minimum credit rating thresholds for eligible instruments
Explanation:
Requiring a minimum credit rating filters out low-quality, high-default-risk issuers, directly reducing credit risk in the non-SLR book.
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34A bank's investment book shows that of its corporate bond holdings are issued by companies in a single industry sector. This situation is a classic example of which risk?
concentration risk
Medium
A.Liquidity risk
B.Off-balance sheet risk
C.Reserve requirement risk
D.Concentration risk
Correct Answer: Concentration risk
Explanation:
Heavy exposure to one sector means a downturn in that sector could cause large losses. This lack of diversification is concentration risk.
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35Which action would most effectively reduce concentration risk in a bank's investment portfolio?
concentration risk
Medium
A.Marking the entire portfolio to market every trading day
B.Increasing total exposure to the single highest-yielding issuer
C.Holding only short-term treasury bills until all of them mature
D.Diversifying holdings across multiple issuers, sectors, and instrument types
Correct Answer: Diversifying holdings across multiple issuers, sectors, and instrument types
Explanation:
Spreading investments across many issuers and sectors ensures that the failure of any one does not disproportionately harm the portfolio, reducing concentration risk.
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36A bank holds a large block of thinly traded corporate bonds. When it urgently needs cash, it can only sell them at a steep discount. This difficulty best illustrates which risk?
liquidity risk
Medium
A.Concentration risk
B.Credit risk
C.Liquidity risk
D.Interest rate risk
Correct Answer: Liquidity risk
Explanation:
Liquidity risk is the inability to convert an asset into cash quickly without a significant price concession. Thinly traded bonds that must be sold at a discount illustrate this directly.
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37Why are government securities generally preferred over corporate bonds when a bank wants to manage liquidity risk in its investment book?
liquidity risk
Medium
A.They offer the highest coupon rates among all available instruments
B.They never fluctuate in price regardless of interest rate changes
C.They are exempt from all valuation and classification requirements
D.They have deep, active secondary markets making them easy to sell near fair value
Correct Answer: They have deep, active secondary markets making them easy to sell near fair value
Explanation:
Government securities trade in large, liquid markets, so a bank can sell them quickly without a large price discount, making them effective for managing liquidity risk.
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38A bank issues a large letter of credit on behalf of a client. The client defaults and the bank must honour the obligation. This exposure is an example of which type of risk?
off-balance sheet risk
Medium
A.Mark-to-market valuation risk
B.Off-balance sheet risk
C.Classification risk
D.Statutory reserve risk
Correct Answer: Off-balance sheet risk
Explanation:
Letters of credit, guarantees, and derivative commitments are off-balance sheet items. They create contingent liabilities that can become actual losses, representing off-balance sheet risk.
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39Which of the following instruments typically creates off-balance sheet risk for a commercial bank?
off-balance sheet risk
Medium
A.Cash reserves maintained with the RBI
B.Treasury bills classified under HFT
C.Held-to-maturity government bonds
D.Interest rate swaps and forward contracts
Correct Answer: Interest rate swaps and forward contracts
Explanation:
Derivatives such as swaps and forwards are off-balance sheet commitments whose exposures are not recorded as on-balance sheet assets or liabilities, creating off-balance sheet risk.
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40A bank decides to shift a security from the HTM category to the AFS category. Which treatment typically applies to such a shift of investments between categories?
bank's investment classification
Medium
A.It can be done freely at any time with no valuation or approval requirement
B.It is allowed only if the security has already matured
C.It is strictly prohibited once a security enters the HTM category
D.It is permitted but subject to board approval and valuation at the time of shifting, usually once a year
Correct Answer: It is permitted but subject to board approval and valuation at the time of shifting, usually once a year
Explanation:
Shifting between categories is allowed but regulated — it generally requires board approval, is typically restricted to the beginning of the accounting year, and the security is valued at the time of transfer with depreciation provided for.
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41A bank has NDTL of crore. The SLR is and CRR is . The bank currently holds crore in SLR-eligible securities and crore as CRR balances. By how much is the bank short or in excess on its SLR obligation?
statutory reserve requirements
Hard
A.Excess by crore
B.Exactly compliant with gap
C.Short by crore
D.Short by crore
Correct Answer: Short by crore
Explanation:
Required SLR crore. The bank holds only crore, so it is short by crore. CRR is a separate requirement and is not netted against SLR.
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42Under RBI's three-category classification (HTM, AFS, HFT prior to the 2023 revised framework), which statement about shifting securities between categories is correct?
bank's investment classification
Hard
A.Shifting to/from HTM is allowed once a year, normally at the beginning of the accounting year, with Board approval
B.Shifting from AFS to HFT requires prior RBI approval each time
C.Shifting to/from HTM is unrestricted and can be done daily
D.Securities in HFT can never be shifted to AFS under any condition
Correct Answer: Shifting to/from HTM is allowed once a year, normally at the beginning of the accounting year, with Board approval
Explanation:
Shifting into or out of HTM was permitted only once a year, typically at the start of the accounting year, and required Board approval. Transfers between AFS and HFT were allowed more freely subject to depreciation recognition, but HTM movements were tightly restricted.
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43A security held in AFS was purchased at (face ). At the valuation date its market price is . Under the traditional valuation norms, how is this treated?
bank's investment valuation norms
Hard
A.The security is revalued to and gain is credited to P&L
B.Net depreciation of in that classification/scrip group is provided for; appreciation is ignored
C.No adjustment, since AFS is carried at acquisition cost until sale
D.Appreciation of over face value is booked as income
Correct Answer: Net depreciation of in that classification/scrip group is provided for; appreciation is ignored
Explanation:
AFS and HFT are marked to market. Depreciation (loss) of is recognised and provided for on a net basis within the classification/scrip group, while net appreciation is ignored (not booked), consistent with prudence.
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44HTM securities are carried at acquisition cost. If a security is purchased at a premium to face value, what is the correct accounting treatment?
bank's investment valuation norms
Hard
A.The premium is carried unchanged until maturity, then expensed
B.The premium is written off immediately against P&L
C.The premium is marked to market every quarter
D.The premium is amortised over the remaining period to maturity
Correct Answer: The premium is amortised over the remaining period to maturity
Explanation:
For HTM, any premium paid over face value must be amortised over the remaining life to maturity so the book value converges to face value at redemption. Discounts are generally not accreted. HTM is not marked to market.
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45Which of the following instruments would count as a non-SLR investment for a commercial bank?
non-SLR investments
Hard
A.State Development Loans (SDLs)
B.Treasury Bills issued by the Government of India
C.Corporate bonds and commercial paper
D.Central Government dated securities
Correct Answer: Corporate bonds and commercial paper
Explanation:
SLR investments are government and other RBI-approved securities (G-Secs, T-Bills, SDLs). Non-SLR investments include corporate bonds, debentures, commercial paper, mutual fund units, and equity—instruments not eligible to meet the SLR requirement.
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46A bank holds a crore corporate bond rated AA. The issuer is downgraded to BBB. Ignoring interest-rate moves, which risk has primarily materialised and what is the most direct balance-sheet consequence?
credit risk
Hard
A.Credit risk; the bond's market value falls as the credit spread widens
B.Liquidity risk; the bond cannot be sold at all
C.Market risk only; the risk-free rate has changed
D.Operational risk; settlement will fail
Correct Answer: Credit risk; the bond's market value falls as the credit spread widens
Explanation:
A downgrade reflects deteriorating creditworthiness. The credit spread demanded by investors widens, lowering the bond's price even if risk-free rates are unchanged. This is a credit-risk (migration/spread) event, not a liquidity or pure interest-rate event.
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47A bank's non-SLR portfolio of crore has crore exposure to a single business group and crore to the real-estate sector. Which statement best captures the concern?
concentration risk
Hard
A.Concentration risk only applies to the SLR portfolio
C.Only interest-rate risk is relevant since both are bonds
D.There is no concern because the total is diversified across two different categories
Correct Answer: Both single-group () and sectoral () concentration breach prudent diversification norms, amplifying correlated losses
Explanation:
Single-group exposure of and sectoral exposure of are both high. Concentration risk means losses are correlated—distress in one group or sector can hit a large share of the portfolio simultaneously, so both limits matter.
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48A large portion of a bank's HTM portfolio consists of long-dated G-Secs. During a sudden deposit run, why can this still pose liquidity risk despite G-Secs being high quality?
liquidity risk
Hard
A.HTM securities legally cannot be sold at any time
B.G-Secs are not eligible as collateral in repo markets
C.G-Secs carry high default risk during a deposit run
D.Selling HTM securities before maturity may force realisation of losses and attract regulatory/accounting consequences, so quick liquidation is costly
Correct Answer: Selling HTM securities before maturity may force realisation of losses and attract regulatory/accounting consequences, so quick liquidation is costly
Explanation:
G-Secs have negligible credit risk, but HTM holdings are meant to be held to maturity. Early sale can trigger mark-to-market losses and reclassification issues, and dumping long-dated paper in stress depresses prices—so converting them to cash quickly is costly, creating liquidity risk.
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49A bank writes an interest-rate swap and issues several letters of credit and guarantees. Why do these create risk even though they are not recorded as on-balance-sheet assets?
off-balance sheet risk
Hard
A.They only affect the bank's tax position, not its risk
B.They are fully insured by the central bank
C.They can convert into on-balance-sheet obligations/credit exposures if the counterparty or client defaults, creating contingent credit and market exposure
D.They have zero risk because no cash has changed hands
Correct Answer: They can convert into on-balance-sheet obligations/credit exposures if the counterparty or client defaults, creating contingent credit and market exposure
Explanation:
Off-balance-sheet items (guarantees, LCs, derivatives) are contingent commitments. If a client fails to pay or a swap counterparty defaults, the bank must honour the obligation or absorb the exposure, converting a contingent item into a real loss—hence capital charges via credit-conversion factors.
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50A well-structured bank investment policy must primarily balance which triad of objectives?
investment policy
Hard
A.Growth, market share, and branding
B.Secrecy, speed, and leverage
C.Safety (of principal), liquidity, and yield/return
D.Taxation, dividends, and buybacks
Correct Answer: Safety (of principal), liquidity, and yield/return
Explanation:
The classic investment-policy triad is safety, liquidity, and profitability (yield). These objectives conflict—higher yield usually means lower safety or liquidity—so the policy sets limits and asset-mix targets to balance them within the bank's risk appetite.
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51A bank's AFS portfolio has three scrips: A shows appreciation of , B shows depreciation of , C shows depreciation of (all within the same classification group). What provision must be made?
bank's investment valuation norms
Hard
A.No provision, as net position is positive
B.Provision of (sum of all depreciations, appreciation ignored)
C.Provision of (gross of all movements)
D.Provision of (net depreciation after netting appreciation of against depreciation)
Correct Answer: Provision of (net depreciation after netting appreciation of against depreciation)
Explanation:
Within a classification/scrip category, net depreciation is provided for. Total depreciation ; appreciation of in the same group offsets it, giving net depreciation of . Net appreciation (if any) would be ignored.
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52Which statement correctly distinguishes CRR from SLR?
statutory reserve requirements
Hard
A.Both CRR and SLR must be maintained as cash with the RBI
B.CRR and SLR are identical requirements under different names
C.SLR must be maintained as cash with the RBI; CRR can be held in securities
D.CRR is a cash balance maintained with the RBI and earns no interest; SLR can be held in approved securities that earn a yield
Correct Answer: CRR is a cash balance maintained with the RBI and earns no interest; SLR can be held in approved securities that earn a yield
Explanation:
CRR is a percentage of NDTL kept as cash with the RBI (traditionally non-interest-bearing). SLR is maintained in approved assets—cash, gold, and government/approved securities—that generally earn a return. Both are computed on NDTL but serve different purposes.
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53To mitigate credit risk in its non-SLR bond portfolio, a bank sets internal exposure caps based on external ratings. The most prudent structure would:
credit risk
Hard
A.Permit larger exposures to higher-rated issuers and progressively tighter caps as rating quality declines
B.Base caps only on coupon rate, not rating
C.Allow unlimited exposure to unrated paper to boost yield
D.Permit equal exposure limits regardless of rating since all bonds carry risk
Correct Answer: Permit larger exposures to higher-rated issuers and progressively tighter caps as rating quality declines
Explanation:
Credit risk rises as ratings fall. A rating-linked limit framework assigns higher exposure ceilings to safer (higher-rated) issuers and tighter caps to lower-rated/unrated ones, aligning concentration with default probability and loss-given-default.
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54RBI prudential norms on non-SLR investments historically restricted banks' investment in unrated non-SLR debt securities primarily because:
non-SLR investments
Hard
A.Unrated paper always offers lower yields than rated paper
B.Unrated paper lacks an independent credit assessment, raising the risk of hidden default and mispricing
C.Unrated securities cannot be dematerialised
D.Unrated securities are SLR-eligible and distort reserve calculations
Correct Answer: Unrated paper lacks an independent credit assessment, raising the risk of hidden default and mispricing
Explanation:
Without an external rating, the issuer's creditworthiness is not independently assessed, making default risk harder to gauge and the security prone to mispricing. RBI therefore capped or discouraged investment in unrated non-SLR debt to protect banks' balance sheets.
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55A bank funds long-dated non-SLR corporate bonds largely with short-term wholesale deposits. Which risk does this maturity profile most directly create?
liquidity risk
Hard
A.Liquidity (funding) risk from a maturity mismatch, as short-term funding must be rolled over to support long-term assets
B.Operational risk in settlement systems
C.No risk, since asset yields exceed funding costs
D.Only credit risk on the bonds
Correct Answer: Liquidity (funding) risk from a maturity mismatch, as short-term funding must be rolled over to support long-term assets
Explanation:
Funding long-term assets with short-term liabilities creates a maturity mismatch. If wholesale funding cannot be rolled over (or only at punitive rates) during stress, the bank faces a funding gap—classic liquidity risk, independent of the bonds' credit quality.
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56A security intended to be sold within days to profit from short-term price movements would most appropriately be classified under which category (pre-2023 framework)?
bank's investment classification
Hard
A.Held to Maturity (HTM)
B.Held for Trading (HFT)
C.Available for Sale (AFS)
D.Any category at the dealer's discretion
Correct Answer: Held for Trading (HFT)
Explanation:
HFT is for securities acquired with the intent to trade and profit from short-term price/rate movements, typically expected to be sold within days. HTM is for intent-to-hold-to-maturity; AFS is the residual category for neither pure trading nor hold-to-maturity intent.
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57In capital-adequacy computation, off-balance-sheet exposures are brought into risk-weighted assets using a credit conversion factor (CCF). The CCF primarily reflects:
off-balance sheet risk
Hard
A.The maturity of the bank's deposits
B.The coupon payable on the underlying security
C.The bank's cost of funds
D.The likelihood that the contingent item will convert into an actual on-balance-sheet credit exposure
Correct Answer: The likelihood that the contingent item will convert into an actual on-balance-sheet credit exposure
Explanation:
A CCF estimates the proportion of an off-balance-sheet commitment likely to become an on-balance-sheet exposure (e.g., a guarantee being invoked). The notional amount is multiplied by the CCF and then risk-weighted, so riskier/likelier conversions attract higher capital.
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58Which portfolio action would most effectively reduce concentration risk in a bank's investment book?
concentration risk
Hard
A.Holding all securities in a single sector that is currently performing well
B.Spreading exposures across uncorrelated issuers, sectors, and geographies
C.Increasing the single-largest holding to capture its high yield
D.Replacing many small bonds with one large AAA bond
Correct Answer: Spreading exposures across uncorrelated issuers, sectors, and geographies
Explanation:
Concentration risk is reduced by diversification—distributing exposure across issuers, sectors, and geographies whose defaults are not strongly correlated. Concentrating into one large holding or one sector, even a high-quality one, increases correlated-loss risk.
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59A bank's investment policy sets a duration ceiling on its bond portfolio. The primary purpose of this limit is to control:
investment policy
Hard
A.Credit risk, since duration measures default probability
B.Operational risk in trade settlement
C.Interest-rate (market) risk, since higher duration means greater price sensitivity to rate changes
D.Concentration risk by issuer
Correct Answer: Interest-rate (market) risk, since higher duration means greater price sensitivity to rate changes
Explanation:
Duration measures a bond's price sensitivity to interest-rate changes: price change . A duration ceiling caps how much the portfolio value can swing when rates move, directly controlling interest-rate/market risk—not credit or operational risk.
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60A bank's NDTL rises sharply mid-fortnight due to large deposit inflows. Regarding CRR maintenance, which statement is correct?
statutory reserve requirements
Hard
A.CRR is computed on net profit, not NDTL
B.CRR need only be met on the last day of the fortnight
C.CRR is maintained on an average daily basis over the reporting fortnight, with a prescribed minimum daily balance, allowing some intra-fortnight flexibility
D.CRR must be met exactly on every single day with no averaging
Correct Answer: CRR is maintained on an average daily basis over the reporting fortnight, with a prescribed minimum daily balance, allowing some intra-fortnight flexibility
Explanation:
CRR is maintained as an average over the reporting fortnight, subject to a prescribed minimum daily balance (a percentage of the requirement). This averaging gives banks flexibility to manage day-to-day liquidity while still meeting the fortnightly requirement computed on NDTL.
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