Unit 2: Chromosomal architecture, cell division and genetic principles - Practice Quiz

GPB203 — Principles Of Genetics 60 Questions
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1 What are chromosomes primarily composed of?

Architecture of chromosomes Easy
A. Lipids and proteins
B. RNA and lipids
C. DNA and proteins
D. Sugars and minerals

2 What is each identical half of a duplicated chromosome called?

Architecture of chromosomes Easy
A. Chromomere
B. Chromatid
C. Nucleosome
D. Centrosome

3 What is a chromonema?

Chromonemata Easy
A. A protein that separates homologous chromosomes during meiosis
B. A coiled thread within a chromatid
C. A structure that forms the spindle poles
D. A membrane surrounding the chromosome

4 What does the chromosome matrix surround?

Chromosome matrix Easy
A. Spindle fibers
B. Centrioles
C. Ribosomes
D. Chromonemata

5 How do chromomeres appear along a chromonema?

Chromomeres Easy
A. As long spindle fibers
B. As hollow membrane sacs
C. As bead-like thickenings
D. As enzymes that copy DNA before cell division

6 What is the main function of the centromere?

Centromere Easy
A. It synthesizes ribosomal RNA
B. It joins sister chromatids
C. It produces spindle fibers
D. It protects chromosome ends

7 Which chromosome has its centromere near the middle?

Centromere Easy
A. Telocentric chromosome
B. Metacentric chromosome
C. A chromosome with a centromere located very close to one end
D. Acrocentric chromosome

8 Where are telomeres located?

Secondary constriction and telomere Easy
A. At spindle poles
B. At chromosome ends
C. Within the nucleolus
D. Inside centromeres

9 Which structure is commonly associated with the formation of the nucleolus?

Secondary constriction and telomere Easy
A. Cell plate
B. Spindle apparatus
C. Secondary constriction
D. Primary constriction

10 Which special chromosomes are unusually large and found in some insect salivary glands?

Special types of chromosomes Easy
A. Metacentric chromosomes
B. Lampbrush chromosomes
C. Polytene chromosomes
D. Chromosomes that remain completely uncoiled throughout every stage of division

11 Lampbrush chromosomes are commonly observed in which cells?

Special types of chromosomes Easy
A. Growing oocytes
B. Bacterial cells
C. Muscle fibers
D. Mature red blood cells

12 According to the chromosomal theory of inheritance, genes are located on:

Chromosomal theory of inheritance Easy
A. Lysosomes
B. Cell membranes
C. Chromosomes
D. Ribosomes

13 Who are credited with independently proposing the chromosomal theory of inheritance?

Chromosomal theory of inheritance Easy
A. Scientists who first described the structure of the cell membrane
B. Darwin and Wallace
C. Watson and Crick
D. Sutton and Boveri

14 During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

Cell cycle Easy
A. G2 phase
B. G1 phase
C. M phase
D. S phase

15 Which part of the cell cycle includes G1, S, and G2 phases?

Cell cycle Easy
A. Prophase
B. A stage in which homologous chromosomes pair and exchange segments
C. Interphase
D. Cytokinesis

16 During which stage of mitosis do chromosomes align at the cell equator?

Mitosis Easy
A. Metaphase
B. Telophase
C. Anaphase
D. Prophase

17 What separates during anaphase of mitosis?

Mitosis Easy
A. Homologous pairs
B. Nuclear membranes
C. Chromosome segments exchanged during crossing over
D. Sister chromatids

18 How many daughter cells are normally produced by one mitotic division?

Mitosis Easy
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

19 What is the usual result of meiosis from one diploid parent cell?

Meiosis Easy
A. Two haploid cells
B. Four genetically identical diploid cells that retain every homologous pair
C. Four haploid cells
D. Two diploid cells

20 During which stage of meiosis does crossing over usually occur?

Meiosis Easy
A. Telophase I
B. Metaphase II
C. Prophase I
D. Anaphase II

21 A chromosome is most compactly organized during metaphase. Which structural arrangement best explains this condensation?

Architecture of chromosomes Medium
A. RNA replaces most of the chromosomal DNA
B. The nuclear membrane compresses the chromosome
C. DNA is loosely associated with ribosomes
D. DNA is coiled around histones and further folded

22 A researcher observes thin, coiled threads within a chromosome during early prophase. These threads are most likely the:

Chromonemata Medium
A. Nuclear pores
B. Spindle fibers
C. Centrioles
D. Chromonemata

23 If the protein framework supporting chromatin organization were disrupted, which chromosome component would be most directly affected?

Chromosome matrix Medium
A. Cell wall
B. Nucleolus
C. Chromosome matrix
D. Plasma membrane

24 Bead-like thickenings are visible along a chromosome thread during early prophase. What is the most appropriate interpretation?

Chromomeres Medium
A. They are centromeres formed at every chromosome segment
B. They are chromomeres formed by local condensation
C. They are nucleoli formed outside the nucleus
D. They are telomeres attached to spindle fibers

25 A chromosome has its centromere positioned near one end, producing one very short arm and one long arm. Which chromosome type does this describe?

Centromere Medium
A. Telocentric chromosome
B. Acrocentric chromosome
C. Submetacentric chromosome
D. Metacentric chromosome

26 A chromosome fails to move toward either pole during anaphase because spindle microtubules cannot attach properly. Which region is most likely defective?

Centromere Medium
A. Telomere
B. Centromere
C. Chromomere
D. Nucleolus organizer

27 A chromosome displays a secondary constriction associated with the formation of the nucleolus. This region is commonly called the:

Secondary constriction and telomere Medium
A. Replication fork
B. Kinetochore
C. Nucleolar organizer region
D. Spindle checkpoint

28 A cell line shows progressive chromosome shortening after repeated divisions. Which chromosome structure is most directly associated with protection from end-to-end fusion?

Secondary constriction and telomere Medium
A. Secondary constriction
B. Chromomere
C. Telomere
D. Centromere

29 Polytene chromosomes in certain insect tissues are unusually large and show distinct banding patterns because they result from:

Special types of chromosomes Medium
A. Repeated DNA replication without chromosome separation
B. Repeated chromosome separation without DNA replication
C. Fusion of chromosomes from different species
D. Loss of chromatin during meiotic division

30 Lampbrush chromosomes are especially useful for studying gene activity in oocytes because they possess:

Special types of chromosomes Medium
A. Completely absent telomeres
B. Highly extended lateral loops
C. Unreplicated circular DNA molecules
D. Multiple centromeres per chromatid

31 Which observation provides the strongest cytological support for the chromosomal theory of inheritance?

Chromosomal theory of inheritance Medium
A. Genes are found only in the cytoplasm
B. All chromosomes contain identical genes in every cell
C. Homologous chromosomes separate during meiosis like allele pairs
D. Chromosomes disappear permanently after mitosis

32 In a diploid organism, one homolog carries allele and the other carries allele . During meiosis, what happens to these alleles under normal segregation?

Chromosomal theory of inheritance Medium
A. Only the dominant allele enters gametes
B. Both alleles enter every gamete
C. Each gamete receives either or
D. The alleles combine before gamete formation

33 A cell contains twice as much DNA as it had in early , but its chromosome number has not changed. Which stage has it most likely completed?

Cell cycle Medium
A. phase
B. phase
C. phase
D. phase

34 A drug blocks formation of functional spindle fibers. At which cell-cycle stage would cells most directly fail to proceed normally?

Cell cycle Medium
A. phase
B. phase
C. phase
D. M phase

35 A diploid cell with undergoes mitosis. How many chromosomes should each daughter cell contain after cytokinesis?

Mitosis Medium
A. 4 chromosomes
B. 2 chromosomes
C. 8 chromosomes
D. 16 chromosomes

36 Sister chromatids are moving toward opposite poles of a dividing cell. Which event is occurring?

Mitosis Medium
A. Anaphase separation
B. Homologous pairing
C. Nuclear envelope formation
D. Chromosome replication

37 A mutation prevents the cell from forming two separate nuclei after chromosome segregation. Which mitotic stage is most directly affected?

Mitosis Medium
A. Metaphase
B. Anaphase
C. Telophase
D. Prophase

38 A meiotic cell has chromosomes. How many chromosomes and chromatids are present in each cell immediately after meiosis I, before meiosis II?

Meiosis Medium
A. 6 chromosomes and 6 chromatids
B. 12 chromosomes and 12 chromatids
C. 12 chromosomes and 24 chromatids
D. 6 chromosomes and 12 chromatids

39 Crossing over occurs between nonsister chromatids of homologous chromosomes. What is its main genetic consequence?

Meiosis Medium
A. Prevention of chromosome pairing
B. Reduction of chromosome number
C. Duplication of the entire genome
D. Creation of new allele combinations

40 If homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis I, the resulting gametes may contain abnormal chromosome numbers. This error is called:

Meiosis Medium
A. Crossing over
B. Nondisjunction
C. Synapsis
D. Cytokinesis

41 A chromosome is experimentally treated so that its DNA remains intact but its histone proteins are removed. Which structural consequence is most likely?

Architecture of chromosomes Hard
A. The chromosome separates into two chromatids at every locus
B. The chromosome converts its centromere into a secondary constriction
C. The chromosome retains its normal metaphase width and compaction
D. The chromosome becomes less condensed and loses much of its organized folding

42 A researcher observes a thin, coiled thread within a developing chromosome that becomes progressively more condensed during prophase. Which interpretation best fits this structure?

Chromonemata Hard
A. It is a nucleolus organizer that separates sister chromatids
B. It is a chromonema whose coiling contributes to chromosome condensation
C. It is a telomere that initiates homologous chromosome pairing
D. It is a centromeric disc that synthesizes spindle microtubules

43 Suppose a chromosome matrix-associated protein is selectively disrupted during metaphase, while DNA replication and centromere function remain normal. Which outcome is most directly expected?

Chromosome matrix Hard
A. Loss of chromosome organization despite retained DNA sequence
B. Permanent activation of all chromosome telomerases
C. Conversion of homologous chromosomes into sister chromatids
D. Failure of DNA synthesis during the preceding S phase

44 A meiotic prophase chromosome displays a reproducible series of bead-like thickenings along its length. Two homologues show matching bead positions, but one region contains an unusually large bead. What is the best inference?

Chromomeres Hard
A. The pattern demonstrates that the homologues replicate at different times
B. The pattern indicates that crossing over has occurred at every bead
C. The pattern proves that one homologue lacks a functional centromere
D. The pattern reflects chromomeres and may reveal a structural heterozygosity

45 A chromosome contains a functional kinetochore at an internal position but has a large DNA deletion on one arm. During mitosis, it segregates normally. Which conclusion is most justified?

Centromere Hard
A. Centromeres function only after homologous chromosomes synapse
B. Equal chromosome-arm lengths are required for spindle attachment
C. Kinetochore activity depends primarily on centromeric identity, not arm length
D. The deleted arm must contain the chromosome's only replication origin

46 A dicentric chromosome forms after a reciprocal exchange between two chromosomes. Which event most strongly predicts its breakage during anaphase?

Centromere Hard
A. Its telomeres become shorter during interphase
B. Both homologues replicate during the same S phase
C. Opposite spindle poles attach to its two active centromeres
D. Its secondary constriction becomes transcriptionally active

47 A chromosome has a secondary constriction near one end that is associated with nucleolar formation. Which statement distinguishes this region from a telomere?

Secondary constriction and telomere Hard
A. The constriction always attaches spindle fibers, whereas the telomere duplicates DNA
B. The constriction can contain ribosomal RNA genes, whereas the telomere caps a chromosome end
C. The constriction joins sister chromatids, whereas the telomere joins homologous chromosomes
D. The constriction is present only after DNA replication, whereas the telomere is absent in mitosis

48 A chromosome end loses its telomeric repeats but retains a functional centromere. Which cellular consequence is most likely over successive cell divisions?

Secondary constriction and telomere Hard
A. Formation of an additional nucleolus organizer region
B. Precise segregation caused by increased kinetochore strength
C. Immediate failure of homologous chromosome synapsis in meiosis I
D. End-to-end fusion followed by breakage-fusion-bridge cycles

49 A giant chromosome from an insect salivary gland shows many aligned homologues, visible bands, and repeated DNA replication without cell division. Which combination best explains these features?

Special types of chromosomes Hard
A. B-chromosome accumulation and nondisjunction
B. Lampbrush looping and meiotic crossing over
C. Polyteny and somatic pairing
D. Centromere inactivation and telomere fusion

50 In an amphibian oocyte, a chromosome displays numerous lateral loops extending from a central axis. The loops are especially prominent during active RNA synthesis. What does this indicate?

Special types of chromosomes Hard
A. A holocentric chromosome with diffuse kinetochores
B. A polytene chromosome with replicated chromatids
C. A B chromosome lacking essential genes
D. A lampbrush chromosome with transcriptionally active loops

51 A plant population contains an extra small chromosome that varies in number among individuals, carries mostly repetitive DNA, and is not required for normal survival. Which classification is most appropriate?

Special types of chromosomes Hard
A. A B chromosome showing accessory, nonessential inheritance
B. A lampbrush chromosome produced during oocyte growth
C. A polytene chromosome produced by endoreduplication
D. An A chromosome carrying a constitutive centromere

52 A diploid organism has genotype at one locus and produces gametes in which and occur in equal proportions. Which chromosomal event provides the direct cytological basis for this result?

Chromosomal theory of inheritance Hard
A. Separation of sister chromatids during mitotic anaphase
B. Duplication of both alleles during premeiotic S phase
C. Pairing of nonhomologous chromosomes during pachytene
D. Separation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis I

53 Genes and are linked on the same chromosome, but recombinant gametes are detected. Which conclusion follows most directly from the chromosomal theory?

Chromosomal theory of inheritance Hard
A. Linkage prevents homologues from pairing during meiotic prophase
B. Independent assortment requires genes to lie on the same chromatid
C. Crossing over can exchange chromosome segments between homologues
D. Recombination occurs when sister chromatids separate in mitosis

54 A cell has completed DNA replication but has not yet entered mitosis. Which description is correct?

Cell cycle Hard
A. DNA content is unchanged, but chromosome number is doubled
B. DNA content is doubled, but chromosome number based on centromeres is unchanged
C. Both homologues and sister chromatids have separated into daughter nuclei
D. DNA content and chromosome number are both exactly doubled

55 A cell with irreparable DNA damage continues from G1 into S phase because a checkpoint pathway is defective. Which immediate risk is most likely?

Cell cycle Hard
A. Formation of tetrads before homologous chromosome pairing
B. Restoration of telomeres by automatic centromere duplication
C. Reduction of chromosome number through premature meiosis
D. Replication of damaged templates and propagation of mutations

56 A mitotic cell is treated with a drug that prevents kinetochore microtubules from attaching to chromosomes. Which checkpoint response should occur?

Mitosis Hard
A. Completion of anaphase followed by normal chromosome segregation
B. Premature separation of homologues during prophase
C. Immediate cytokinesis because chromosomes are already replicated
D. Persistent metaphase arrest due to an unsatisfied spindle checkpoint

57 A diploid cell with undergoes mitosis. How many chromosomes and chromatids are present in one daughter nucleus immediately after telophase and cytokinesis?

Mitosis Hard
A. 4 chromosomes and 8 chromatids
B. 8 chromosomes and 16 chromatids
C. 16 chromosomes and 16 chromatids
D. 8 chromosomes and 8 chromatids

58 A diploid organism has . At metaphase I, how many bivalents and chromatids are present in the nucleus?

Meiosis Hard
A. 10 bivalents and 10 chromatids
B. 5 bivalents and 20 chromatids
C. 5 bivalents and 10 chromatids
D. 10 bivalents and 20 chromatids

59 Nondisjunction of one homologous pair occurs during meiosis I, while meiosis II proceeds normally. What gamete chromosome numbers are expected for that chromosome?

Meiosis Hard
A. One gamete with , one with , and two normal gametes
B. Four gametes with
C. Two gametes with and two with
D. Two normal gametes and two gametes with

60 A crossover occurs between two loci on one pair of homologous chromosomes during prophase I. Which products are expected if no additional crossover occurs between those loci?

Meiosis Hard
A. Two parental chromatids and two recombinant chromatids
B. Two duplicated chromatids and two chromosome-free products
C. Four recombinant chromatids with no parental combinations
D. Four identical chromatids because crossing over affects only centromeres