1Which of the following terms describes a disease that can be transmitted naturally between vertebrate animals and humans?
A.Metabolic disease
B.Contagious disease
C.Infectious disease
D.Zoonotic disease
Correct Answer: Zoonotic disease
Explanation:
Zoonotic diseases (or zoonoses) are infectious diseases that are transmissible under natural conditions from vertebrate animals to humans (e.g., Rabies, Brucellosis).
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2What is the primary causative agent of Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) in cattle?
A.Fungi (Aspergillus)
B.Bacteria (Pasteurella multocida)
C.Virus (Apthovirus)
D.Protozoa (Babesia)
Correct Answer: Virus (Apthovirus)
Explanation:
FMD is a highly contagious viral disease caused by an Apthovirus of the family Picornaviridae. It affects cloven-hoofed animals.
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3Which metabolic disease in dairy cattle is caused by a sudden deficiency of Calcium () in the blood, usually occurring shortly after calving?
A.Milk Fever (Parturient Paresis)
B.Ketosis
C.Acidosis
D.Bloat
Correct Answer: Milk Fever (Parturient Paresis)
Explanation:
Milk Fever is a metabolic disorder caused by hypocalcemia (low blood calcium) when the demand for calcium for colostrum production exceeds the body's ability to mobilize calcium reserves.
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4Ranikhet disease in poultry is also known as:
A.Marek's Disease
B.Infectious Bursal Disease
C.Fowl Pox
D.Newcastle Disease
Correct Answer: Newcastle Disease
Explanation:
Newcastle Disease is commonly known as Ranikhet disease in India. It is a highly contagious viral infection affecting poultry.
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5Identify the bacterial disease in cattle characterized by high fever and a crepitating (crackling) swelling in the heavy muscles, such as the hip or shoulder.
A.Brucellosis
B.Tuberculosis
C.Black Quarter (BQ)
D.Haemorrhagic Septicemia (HS)
Correct Answer: Black Quarter (BQ)
Explanation:
Black Quarter (BQ), caused by Clostridium chauvoei, is characterized by emphysematous swelling (gas accumulation) in muscles which produces a crepitating sound upon palpation.
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6At what age is the primary vaccination for Marek's Disease usually administered to poultry?
A.Week 4
B.Day 1 (at hatchery)
C.Week 8
D.Week 12
Correct Answer: Day 1 (at hatchery)
Explanation:
Vaccination for Marek's Disease is typically administered on Day 1 via subcutaneous injection at the hatchery to provide early immunity.
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7Which test is commonly performed at the farm level to detect sub-clinical Mastitis in dairy cattle?
A.Agglutination Test
B.California Mastitis Test (CMT)
C.Tuberculin Test
D.Rose Bengal Plate Test
Correct Answer: California Mastitis Test (CMT)
Explanation:
The California Mastitis Test (CMT) is a rapid, cow-side test used to detect somatic cells in milk, indicating sub-clinical mastitis.
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8What is the typical vaccination schedule frequency for Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) in India?
A.Monthly
B.Once in a lifetime
C.Once every 3 years
D.Twice a year (Biannually)
Correct Answer: Twice a year (Biannually)
Explanation:
Due to the nature of immunity provided by the FMD vaccine, it is generally recommended to vaccinate cattle twice a year (usually roughly 6 months apart, often pre-monsoon and post-winter).
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9Which of the following is a symptom of Coccidiosis in poultry?
A.Bloody diarrhea
B.Paralysis of legs
C.Warts on the comb
D.Respiratory gasping
Correct Answer: Bloody diarrhea
Explanation:
Coccidiosis, caused by the protozoan Eimeria, damages the intestinal lining, leading to characteristic bloody diarrhea or droppings.
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10The process of separating animals that are newly acquired or suspected of carrying a disease from the healthy herd is known as:
A.Culling
B.Vaccination
C.Quarantine
D.Sanitation
Correct Answer: Quarantine
Explanation:
Quarantine involves the isolation of animals (usually for 30 days) to observe for signs of disease before introducing them into the main herd.
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11Which organism causes Anthrax, a peracute disease resulting in sudden death and oozing of tarry blood from natural orifices?
A.Clostridium chauvoei
B.Pasteurella multocida
C.Bacillus anthracis
D.Brucella abortus
Correct Answer: Bacillus anthracis
Explanation:
Anthrax is caused by the spore-forming bacterium Bacillus anthracis. Post-mortem examination is usually forbidden due to the risk of spore dispersal.
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12In the context of livestock diseases, what does morbidity refer to?
A.The number of animals sick/affected in a population
B.The number of deaths in a population
C.The reproductive rate of the pathogen
D.The cost of treatment
Correct Answer: The number of animals sick/affected in a population
Explanation:
Morbidity refers to the incidence of illness or the number of animals affected by a disease within a population, whereas mortality refers to the number of deaths.
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13Which disease in goats is also known as 'Goat Plague'?
A.Blue Tongue
B.Contagious Caprine Pleuropneumonia
C.Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR)
D.Goat Pox
Correct Answer: Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR)
Explanation:
Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR) is a highly contagious viral disease of small ruminants, commonly referred to as Goat Plague.
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14The Brucellosis vaccination (Strain 19) is typically administered to:
A.Pregnant cows
B.Female calves aged 4-8 months
C.Adult bulls only
D.All animals every year
Correct Answer: Female calves aged 4-8 months
Explanation:
The Brucella abortus Strain 19 vaccine is typically given once to female calves (heifers) between 4 to 8 months of age to confer lifetime immunity.
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15What is the intermediate host for the Liver Fluke (Fasciola hepatica)?
A.Housefly
B.Tick
C.Freshwater Snail
D.Mosquito
Correct Answer: Freshwater Snail
Explanation:
The life cycle of the Liver Fluke involves a freshwater snail (genus Lymnaea) as an intermediate host before infecting livestock.
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16Which viral disease in poultry specifically targets the Bursa of Fabricius?
Infectious Bursal Disease (IBD), also known as Gumboro disease, targets the Bursa of Fabricius, causing immunosuppression in young chickens.
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17What is the causative agent of Haemorrhagic Septicemia (HS) in cattle and buffaloes?
A.Brucella abortus
B.Salmonella spp.
C.Pasteurella multocida
D.Mycobacterium bovis
Correct Answer: Pasteurella multocida
Explanation:
Haemorrhagic Septicemia is an acute bacterial disease caused by Pasteurella multocida, usually associated with wet/monsoon seasons.
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18Blue Tongue disease in sheep is primarily transmitted by:
A.Aerosol
B.Direct contact
C.Vectors (Culicoides midges)
D.Contaminated water
Correct Answer: Vectors (Culicoides midges)
Explanation:
Blue Tongue is an insect-borne viral disease transmitted primarily by biting midges of the genus Culicoides.
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19The 'F1' strain vaccine is used for which poultry disease?
A.Duck Plague
B.Coccidiosis
C.Newcastle Disease (Ranikhet)
D.Fowl Pox
Correct Answer: Newcastle Disease (Ranikhet)
Explanation:
The F1 (or LaSota) strain is a live lentogenic vaccine used for the immunization of poultry against Newcastle Disease (Ranikhet).
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20Which of the following is a sign of Ketosis in cattle?
A.Swelling of the throat
B.Sweetish/acetone smell of breath and milk
C.Blisters on the tongue
D.Bloody urine
Correct Answer: Sweetish/acetone smell of breath and milk
Explanation:
Ketosis (acetonemia) is characterized by the presence of ketone bodies in body fluids, leading to a characteristic sweet or acetone-like smell in the breath and milk.
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21Bloat (Ruminal Tympany) is primarily caused by:
A.Accumulation of gas in the rumen
B.Virus infection
C.Calcium deficiency
D.Magnesium deficiency
Correct Answer: Accumulation of gas in the rumen
Explanation:
Bloat is the over-distension of the rumen and reticulum with gases of fermentation, often caused by eating too much leguminous green fodder.
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22Which disinfectant is commonly used in a footbath at the entry of a poultry farm for biosecurity?
A.Distilled water
B.Normal saline
C.Glucose solution
D.Potassium Permanganate () or Formalin
Correct Answer: Potassium Permanganate () or Formalin
Explanation:
Footbaths typically contain disinfectants like Potassium Permanganate, Phenol, or Formalin to kill pathogens on footwear before entering the farm.
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23Bird Flu is technically known as:
A.Avian Leucosis
B.Coryza
C.Avian Influenza
D.Fowl Cholera
Correct Answer: Avian Influenza
Explanation:
Bird Flu is the common name for Avian Influenza, a viral disease caused by Type A influenza viruses (e.g., H5N1).
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24Which livestock disease was globally declared 'eradicated' by the OIE (now WOAH) in 2011?
A.Rabies
B.Anthrax
C.FMD
D.Rinderpest
Correct Answer: Rinderpest
Explanation:
Rinderpest (Cattle Plague) is the only livestock disease that has been successfully eradicated globally.
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25The swelling of the throat region causing a gurgling sound during respiration is a characteristic symptom of which disease in cattle?
A.Brucellosis
B.Theileriosis
C.Mastitis
D.Haemorrhagic Septicemia (HS)
Correct Answer: Haemorrhagic Septicemia (HS)
Explanation:
In Haemorrhagic Septicemia (HS), edematous swelling of the throat leads to difficulty in breathing and a characteristic gurgling sound.
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26What is the recommended route of administration for the Fowl Pox vaccine?
A.Wing web puncture (stick method)
B.Intramuscular injection
C.Eye drop
D.Drinking water
Correct Answer: Wing web puncture (stick method)
Explanation:
The Fowl Pox vaccine is typically administered via the wing web puncture (stick) method.
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27Babesiosis (Red water disease) in cattle is transmitted by:
A.Fleas
B.Ticks
C.Mites
D.Lice
Correct Answer: Ticks
Explanation:
Babesiosis is a protozoan disease transmitted by ticks. It causes destruction of red blood cells, leading to hemoglobinuria (red urine).
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28The Strip Cup test is used for:
A.Measuring milk fat
B.Vaccinating calves
C.Testing for bacteria in blood
D.Detecting physical abnormalities in milk (clots/flakes)
Correct Answer: Detecting physical abnormalities in milk (clots/flakes)
Explanation:
A Strip Cup is used before milking to check the foremilk for clots, flakes, or discoloration, which are clinical signs of mastitis.
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29Vaccination against Haemorrhagic Septicemia (HS) is usually done:
A.Pre-monsoon (May-June)
B.Only when disease outbreaks
C.During winter
D.Post-monsoon
Correct Answer: Pre-monsoon (May-June)
Explanation:
Since HS outbreaks are common during the rainy season, vaccination is scheduled pre-monsoon (typically May-June) to ensure immunity.
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30Enterotoxemia in sheep and goats is popularly known as:
A.Pulpy Kidney Disease
B.Wooden Tongue
C.Wool Sorters Disease
D.Lumpy Jaw
Correct Answer: Pulpy Kidney Disease
Explanation:
Enterotoxemia, caused by Clostridium perfringens type D, is commonly known as Pulpy Kidney Disease due to the rapid decomposition of the kidneys post-mortem.
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31Which of the following is an ectoparasite?
A.Tapeworm
B.Roundworm
C.Fluke
D.Mite
Correct Answer: Mite
Explanation:
Mites live on the surface of the host (skin/hair), making them ectoparasites. Tapeworms, roundworms, and flukes are endoparasites.
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32The condition 'Storm of Abortion' in a cattle herd is highly suggestive of:
A.Mastitis
B.FMD
C.Tuberculosis
D.Brucellosis
Correct Answer: Brucellosis
Explanation:
Brucellosis (Bang's disease) often causes abortion in the last trimester of pregnancy. When many cows abort simultaneously, it is called a 'storm of abortion'.
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33Which vitamin deficiency causes Nutritional Roup (discharge from eyes and nostrils) in poultry?
A.Vitamin A
B.Vitamin C
C.Vitamin D
D.Vitamin K
Correct Answer: Vitamin A
Explanation:
Deficiency of Vitamin A affects the mucous membranes, leading to Nutritional Roup, characterized by ocular discharge and cheesy material in the eyes.
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34The standard temperature for pasteurization (HTST method) helps kill pathogens like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. What is the temperature and time?
A. for 15 seconds
B. for 5 minutes
C. for 10 minutes
D. for 30 minutes
Correct Answer: for 15 seconds
Explanation:
HTST (High Temperature Short Time) pasteurization uses for 15 seconds.
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35What is the primary method to control Lice infestation in poultry?
A.De-worming
B.Dipping or dusting with insecticides
C.Antibiotics
D.Vaccination
Correct Answer: Dipping or dusting with insecticides
Explanation:
Lice are ectoparasites. Control involves dipping or dusting the birds with appropriate insecticides (e.g., pyrethroids).
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36Which disease is characterized by 'pock lesions' (warts) on the unfeathered parts of the bird's head?
A.Ranikhet Disease
B.Coccidiosis
C.Fowl Pox
D.Marek's Disease
Correct Answer: Fowl Pox
Explanation:
The cutaneous form of Fowl Pox causes wart-like nodules (pock lesions) on the comb, wattle, and other unfeathered areas.
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37Ring Vaccination is a strategy used to:
A.Vaccinate animals in a circular pattern on the body
B.Vaccinate only ring-horned animals
C.Contain an outbreak by vaccinating animals in a zone surrounding the infected area
D.Vaccinate animals every year in a cycle
Correct Answer: Contain an outbreak by vaccinating animals in a zone surrounding the infected area
Explanation:
Ring vaccination creates a barrier of immune animals around an infected zone to prevent the spread of the disease to the wider population.
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38The causative agent of Strangles in horses (often included in general livestock disease units) is:
A.E. coli
B.Staphylococcus aureus
C.Salmonella
D.Streptococcus equi
Correct Answer: Streptococcus equi
Explanation:
Strangles is a highly contagious bacterial infection of the upper respiratory tract in horses caused by Streptococcus equi.
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39Which of the following is a metabolic disease?
A.Rabies
B.Ketosis
C.FMD
D.Anthrax
Correct Answer: Ketosis
Explanation:
Ketosis is a disorder of metabolism (carbohydrate/fat metabolism), whereas the others are infectious diseases caused by pathogens.
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40The Cold Chain is essential for:
A.Transporting milk
B.Maintaining potency of vaccines during storage and transport
C.Cooling cattle sheds
D.Freezing meat
Correct Answer: Maintaining potency of vaccines during storage and transport
Explanation:
The Cold Chain refers to the temperature-controlled supply chain required to maintain the quality and potency of vaccines from manufacture to administration.
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41In poultry, the 'LaSota' strain is a type of vaccine for:
A.Typhoid
B.Fowl Cholera
C.Newcastle Disease
D.Pullorum
Correct Answer: Newcastle Disease
Explanation:
LaSota is a lentogenic strain of the Newcastle Disease virus used for secondary vaccination (boosters) in poultry.
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42Which internal parasite is commonly known as the 'Barber's Pole Worm' in sheep?
A.Ascaris
B.Fasciola hepatica
C.Moniezia
D.Haemonchus contortus
Correct Answer: Haemonchus contortus
Explanation:
Haemonchus contortus is a blood-sucking nematode found in the abomasum of sheep/goats, appearing striped like a barber's pole.
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43The first milk produced by a cow after calving, which is rich in antibodies, is called:
A.Toned milk
B.Colostrum
C.Skim milk
D.Whole milk
Correct Answer: Colostrum
Explanation:
Colostrum is the first milk. It provides essential immunoglobulins (antibodies) to the calf, conferring passive immunity.
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44Actinobacillosis in cattle is commonly known as:
A.Wooden Tongue
B.Red Water
C.Black Leg
D.Lumpy Jaw
Correct Answer: Wooden Tongue
Explanation:
Actinobacillosis affects soft tissues, particularly the tongue, causing it to become hard and swollen, hence the name Wooden Tongue.
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45What is the typical route of administration for the RDVF (Ranikhet Disease Vaccine F-strain) in day-old chicks?
A.Intra-ocular (Eye drop) or Intranasal
B.Intravenous
C.Subcutaneous
D.Intramuscular
Correct Answer: Intra-ocular (Eye drop) or Intranasal
Explanation:
The F-strain vaccine for Ranikhet disease is typically given to young chicks via eye drops (intra-ocular) or nose drops.
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46Trypanosomiasis (Surra) in livestock is caused by a:
A.Bacterium
B.Virus
C.Fungus
D.Protozoan
Correct Answer: Protozoan
Explanation:
Surra is caused by Trypanosoma evansi, which is a protozoan blood parasite transmitted by biting flies.
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47In the context of disease prevention, 'Biosecurity' refers to:
A.Giving antibiotics daily
B.Buying insurance for livestock
C.Using armed guards at the farm gate
D.Measures to prevent the entry and spread of pathogens on a farm
Correct Answer: Measures to prevent the entry and spread of pathogens on a farm
Explanation:
Biosecurity encompasses all procedures (sanitation, isolation, traffic control) used to prevent the introduction and spread of disease-causing organisms.
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48Bacillary White Diarrhea (Pullorum Disease) in chicks is caused by:
A.E. coli
B.Salmonella pullorum
C.Pasteurella multocida
D.Mycoplasma
Correct Answer: Salmonella pullorum
Explanation:
Pullorum disease, characterized by white diarrhea in chicks, is caused by the bacterium Salmonella pullorum.
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49Which of the following is NOT a viral disease?
A.Rinderpest
B.PPR
C.Foot and Mouth Disease
D.Mastitis
Correct Answer: Mastitis
Explanation:
Mastitis is primarily a bacterial infection (though can be fungal/mycoplasmal), whereas FMD, Rinderpest, and PPR are viral.
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50An accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, often associated with parasitic burden or liver damage, is called:
A.Gastritis
B.Pleurisy
C.Mastitis
D.Ascites
Correct Answer: Ascites
Explanation:
Ascites (water belly) is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal (peritoneal) cavity, seen in conditions like congestive heart failure or severe parasitic liver damage.