Unit 6 - Practice Quiz

AGR117 50 Questions
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1 Which of the following terms describes a disease that can be transmitted naturally between vertebrate animals and humans?

A. Contagious disease
B. Zoonotic disease
C. Infectious disease
D. Metabolic disease

2 What is the primary causative agent of Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) in cattle?

A. Bacteria (Pasteurella multocida)
B. Virus (Apthovirus)
C. Protozoa (Babesia)
D. Fungi (Aspergillus)

3 Which metabolic disease in dairy cattle is caused by a sudden deficiency of Calcium () in the blood, usually occurring shortly after calving?

A. Ketosis
B. Milk Fever (Parturient Paresis)
C. Bloat
D. Acidosis

4 Ranikhet disease in poultry is also known as:

A. Fowl Pox
B. Newcastle Disease
C. Marek's Disease
D. Infectious Bursal Disease

5 Identify the bacterial disease in cattle characterized by high fever and a crepitating (crackling) swelling in the heavy muscles, such as the hip or shoulder.

A. Haemorrhagic Septicemia (HS)
B. Black Quarter (BQ)
C. Brucellosis
D. Tuberculosis

6 At what age is the primary vaccination for Marek's Disease usually administered to poultry?

A. Day 1 (at hatchery)
B. Week 4
C. Week 8
D. Week 12

7 Which test is commonly performed at the farm level to detect sub-clinical Mastitis in dairy cattle?

A. California Mastitis Test (CMT)
B. Tuberculin Test
C. Rose Bengal Plate Test
D. Agglutination Test

8 What is the typical vaccination schedule frequency for Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) in India?

A. Once in a lifetime
B. Once every 3 years
C. Twice a year (Biannually)
D. Monthly

9 Which of the following is a symptom of Coccidiosis in poultry?

A. Paralysis of legs
B. Bloody diarrhea
C. Respiratory gasping
D. Warts on the comb

10 The process of separating animals that are newly acquired or suspected of carrying a disease from the healthy herd is known as:

A. Sanitation
B. Quarantine
C. Vaccination
D. Culling

11 Which organism causes Anthrax, a peracute disease resulting in sudden death and oozing of tarry blood from natural orifices?

A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Clostridium chauvoei
C. Pasteurella multocida
D. Brucella abortus

12 In the context of livestock diseases, what does morbidity refer to?

A. The number of deaths in a population
B. The number of animals sick/affected in a population
C. The cost of treatment
D. The reproductive rate of the pathogen

13 Which disease in goats is also known as 'Goat Plague'?

A. Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR)
B. Blue Tongue
C. Contagious Caprine Pleuropneumonia
D. Goat Pox

14 The Brucellosis vaccination (Strain 19) is typically administered to:

A. Adult bulls only
B. Female calves aged 4-8 months
C. Pregnant cows
D. All animals every year

15 What is the intermediate host for the Liver Fluke (Fasciola hepatica)?

A. Mosquito
B. Tick
C. Freshwater Snail
D. Housefly

16 Which viral disease in poultry specifically targets the Bursa of Fabricius?

A. Marek's Disease
B. Infectious Bronchitis
C. Infectious Bursal Disease (Gumboro)
D. Ranikhet Disease

17 What is the causative agent of Haemorrhagic Septicemia (HS) in cattle and buffaloes?

A. Pasteurella multocida
B. Brucella abortus
C. Mycobacterium bovis
D. Salmonella spp.

18 Blue Tongue disease in sheep is primarily transmitted by:

A. Direct contact
B. Contaminated water
C. Vectors (Culicoides midges)
D. Aerosol

19 The 'F1' strain vaccine is used for which poultry disease?

A. Fowl Pox
B. Newcastle Disease (Ranikhet)
C. Coccidiosis
D. Duck Plague

20 Which of the following is a sign of Ketosis in cattle?

A. Sweetish/acetone smell of breath and milk
B. Bloody urine
C. Swelling of the throat
D. Blisters on the tongue

21 Bloat (Ruminal Tympany) is primarily caused by:

A. Virus infection
B. Accumulation of gas in the rumen
C. Calcium deficiency
D. Magnesium deficiency

22 Which disinfectant is commonly used in a footbath at the entry of a poultry farm for biosecurity?

A. Glucose solution
B. Normal saline
C. Potassium Permanganate () or Formalin
D. Distilled water

23 Bird Flu is technically known as:

A. Avian Influenza
B. Avian Leucosis
C. Fowl Cholera
D. Coryza

24 Which livestock disease was globally declared 'eradicated' by the OIE (now WOAH) in 2011?

A. FMD
B. Rinderpest
C. Anthrax
D. Rabies

25 The swelling of the throat region causing a gurgling sound during respiration is a characteristic symptom of which disease in cattle?

A. Haemorrhagic Septicemia (HS)
B. Mastitis
C. Brucellosis
D. Theileriosis

26 What is the recommended route of administration for the Fowl Pox vaccine?

A. Intramuscular injection
B. Wing web puncture (stick method)
C. Drinking water
D. Eye drop

27 Babesiosis (Red water disease) in cattle is transmitted by:

A. Lice
B. Mites
C. Ticks
D. Fleas

28 The Strip Cup test is used for:

A. Detecting physical abnormalities in milk (clots/flakes)
B. Measuring milk fat
C. Testing for bacteria in blood
D. Vaccinating calves

29 Vaccination against Haemorrhagic Septicemia (HS) is usually done:

A. Post-monsoon
B. Pre-monsoon (May-June)
C. During winter
D. Only when disease outbreaks

30 Enterotoxemia in sheep and goats is popularly known as:

A. Pulpy Kidney Disease
B. Wooden Tongue
C. Lumpy Jaw
D. Wool Sorters Disease

31 Which of the following is an ectoparasite?

A. Tapeworm
B. Roundworm
C. Mite
D. Fluke

32 The condition 'Storm of Abortion' in a cattle herd is highly suggestive of:

A. Brucellosis
B. Mastitis
C. FMD
D. Tuberculosis

33 Which vitamin deficiency causes Nutritional Roup (discharge from eyes and nostrils) in poultry?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K

34 The standard temperature for pasteurization (HTST method) helps kill pathogens like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. What is the temperature and time?

A. for 30 minutes
B. for 15 seconds
C. for 10 minutes
D. for 5 minutes

35 What is the primary method to control Lice infestation in poultry?

A. De-worming
B. Vaccination
C. Dipping or dusting with insecticides
D. Antibiotics

36 Which disease is characterized by 'pock lesions' (warts) on the unfeathered parts of the bird's head?

A. Fowl Pox
B. Marek's Disease
C. Ranikhet Disease
D. Coccidiosis

37 Ring Vaccination is a strategy used to:

A. Vaccinate animals in a circular pattern on the body
B. Contain an outbreak by vaccinating animals in a zone surrounding the infected area
C. Vaccinate only ring-horned animals
D. Vaccinate animals every year in a cycle

38 The causative agent of Strangles in horses (often included in general livestock disease units) is:

A. Streptococcus equi
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. E. coli
D. Salmonella

39 Which of the following is a metabolic disease?

A. Anthrax
B. Ketosis
C. FMD
D. Rabies

40 The Cold Chain is essential for:

A. Transporting milk
B. Maintaining potency of vaccines during storage and transport
C. Freezing meat
D. Cooling cattle sheds

41 In poultry, the 'LaSota' strain is a type of vaccine for:

A. Newcastle Disease
B. Fowl Cholera
C. Pullorum
D. Typhoid

42 Which internal parasite is commonly known as the 'Barber's Pole Worm' in sheep?

A. Haemonchus contortus
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Moniezia
D. Ascaris

43 The first milk produced by a cow after calving, which is rich in antibodies, is called:

A. Whole milk
B. Colostrum
C. Skim milk
D. Toned milk

44 Actinobacillosis in cattle is commonly known as:

A. Lumpy Jaw
B. Wooden Tongue
C. Black Leg
D. Red Water

45 What is the typical route of administration for the RDVF (Ranikhet Disease Vaccine F-strain) in day-old chicks?

A. Intramuscular
B. Intra-ocular (Eye drop) or Intranasal
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intravenous

46 Trypanosomiasis (Surra) in livestock is caused by a:

A. Bacterium
B. Virus
C. Protozoan
D. Fungus

47 In the context of disease prevention, 'Biosecurity' refers to:

A. Giving antibiotics daily
B. Measures to prevent the entry and spread of pathogens on a farm
C. Buying insurance for livestock
D. Using armed guards at the farm gate

48 Bacillary White Diarrhea (Pullorum Disease) in chicks is caused by:

A. Salmonella pullorum
B. E. coli
C. Pasteurella multocida
D. Mycoplasma

49 Which of the following is NOT a viral disease?

A. Foot and Mouth Disease
B. Rinderpest
C. Mastitis
D. PPR

50 An accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, often associated with parasitic burden or liver damage, is called:

A. Ascites
B. Pleurisy
C. Gastritis
D. Mastitis