Unit 6 - Practice Quiz

AGR117 50 Questions
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1 Which of the following terms describes a disease that can be transmitted naturally between vertebrate animals and humans?

A. Metabolic disease
B. Contagious disease
C. Infectious disease
D. Zoonotic disease

2 What is the primary causative agent of Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) in cattle?

A. Fungi (Aspergillus)
B. Bacteria (Pasteurella multocida)
C. Virus (Apthovirus)
D. Protozoa (Babesia)

3 Which metabolic disease in dairy cattle is caused by a sudden deficiency of Calcium () in the blood, usually occurring shortly after calving?

A. Milk Fever (Parturient Paresis)
B. Ketosis
C. Acidosis
D. Bloat

4 Ranikhet disease in poultry is also known as:

A. Marek's Disease
B. Infectious Bursal Disease
C. Fowl Pox
D. Newcastle Disease

5 Identify the bacterial disease in cattle characterized by high fever and a crepitating (crackling) swelling in the heavy muscles, such as the hip or shoulder.

A. Brucellosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Black Quarter (BQ)
D. Haemorrhagic Septicemia (HS)

6 At what age is the primary vaccination for Marek's Disease usually administered to poultry?

A. Week 4
B. Day 1 (at hatchery)
C. Week 8
D. Week 12

7 Which test is commonly performed at the farm level to detect sub-clinical Mastitis in dairy cattle?

A. Agglutination Test
B. California Mastitis Test (CMT)
C. Tuberculin Test
D. Rose Bengal Plate Test

8 What is the typical vaccination schedule frequency for Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) in India?

A. Monthly
B. Once in a lifetime
C. Once every 3 years
D. Twice a year (Biannually)

9 Which of the following is a symptom of Coccidiosis in poultry?

A. Bloody diarrhea
B. Paralysis of legs
C. Warts on the comb
D. Respiratory gasping

10 The process of separating animals that are newly acquired or suspected of carrying a disease from the healthy herd is known as:

A. Culling
B. Vaccination
C. Quarantine
D. Sanitation

11 Which organism causes Anthrax, a peracute disease resulting in sudden death and oozing of tarry blood from natural orifices?

A. Clostridium chauvoei
B. Pasteurella multocida
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Brucella abortus

12 In the context of livestock diseases, what does morbidity refer to?

A. The number of animals sick/affected in a population
B. The number of deaths in a population
C. The reproductive rate of the pathogen
D. The cost of treatment

13 Which disease in goats is also known as 'Goat Plague'?

A. Blue Tongue
B. Contagious Caprine Pleuropneumonia
C. Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR)
D. Goat Pox

14 The Brucellosis vaccination (Strain 19) is typically administered to:

A. Pregnant cows
B. Female calves aged 4-8 months
C. Adult bulls only
D. All animals every year

15 What is the intermediate host for the Liver Fluke (Fasciola hepatica)?

A. Housefly
B. Tick
C. Freshwater Snail
D. Mosquito

16 Which viral disease in poultry specifically targets the Bursa of Fabricius?

A. Infectious Bursal Disease (Gumboro)
B. Ranikhet Disease
C. Marek's Disease
D. Infectious Bronchitis

17 What is the causative agent of Haemorrhagic Septicemia (HS) in cattle and buffaloes?

A. Brucella abortus
B. Salmonella spp.
C. Pasteurella multocida
D. Mycobacterium bovis

18 Blue Tongue disease in sheep is primarily transmitted by:

A. Aerosol
B. Direct contact
C. Vectors (Culicoides midges)
D. Contaminated water

19 The 'F1' strain vaccine is used for which poultry disease?

A. Duck Plague
B. Coccidiosis
C. Newcastle Disease (Ranikhet)
D. Fowl Pox

20 Which of the following is a sign of Ketosis in cattle?

A. Swelling of the throat
B. Sweetish/acetone smell of breath and milk
C. Blisters on the tongue
D. Bloody urine

21 Bloat (Ruminal Tympany) is primarily caused by:

A. Accumulation of gas in the rumen
B. Virus infection
C. Calcium deficiency
D. Magnesium deficiency

22 Which disinfectant is commonly used in a footbath at the entry of a poultry farm for biosecurity?

A. Distilled water
B. Normal saline
C. Glucose solution
D. Potassium Permanganate () or Formalin

23 Bird Flu is technically known as:

A. Avian Leucosis
B. Coryza
C. Avian Influenza
D. Fowl Cholera

24 Which livestock disease was globally declared 'eradicated' by the OIE (now WOAH) in 2011?

A. Rabies
B. Anthrax
C. FMD
D. Rinderpest

25 The swelling of the throat region causing a gurgling sound during respiration is a characteristic symptom of which disease in cattle?

A. Brucellosis
B. Theileriosis
C. Mastitis
D. Haemorrhagic Septicemia (HS)

26 What is the recommended route of administration for the Fowl Pox vaccine?

A. Wing web puncture (stick method)
B. Intramuscular injection
C. Eye drop
D. Drinking water

27 Babesiosis (Red water disease) in cattle is transmitted by:

A. Fleas
B. Ticks
C. Mites
D. Lice

28 The Strip Cup test is used for:

A. Measuring milk fat
B. Vaccinating calves
C. Testing for bacteria in blood
D. Detecting physical abnormalities in milk (clots/flakes)

29 Vaccination against Haemorrhagic Septicemia (HS) is usually done:

A. Pre-monsoon (May-June)
B. Only when disease outbreaks
C. During winter
D. Post-monsoon

30 Enterotoxemia in sheep and goats is popularly known as:

A. Pulpy Kidney Disease
B. Wooden Tongue
C. Wool Sorters Disease
D. Lumpy Jaw

31 Which of the following is an ectoparasite?

A. Tapeworm
B. Roundworm
C. Fluke
D. Mite

32 The condition 'Storm of Abortion' in a cattle herd is highly suggestive of:

A. Mastitis
B. FMD
C. Tuberculosis
D. Brucellosis

33 Which vitamin deficiency causes Nutritional Roup (discharge from eyes and nostrils) in poultry?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K

34 The standard temperature for pasteurization (HTST method) helps kill pathogens like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. What is the temperature and time?

A. for 15 seconds
B. for 5 minutes
C. for 10 minutes
D. for 30 minutes

35 What is the primary method to control Lice infestation in poultry?

A. De-worming
B. Dipping or dusting with insecticides
C. Antibiotics
D. Vaccination

36 Which disease is characterized by 'pock lesions' (warts) on the unfeathered parts of the bird's head?

A. Ranikhet Disease
B. Coccidiosis
C. Fowl Pox
D. Marek's Disease

37 Ring Vaccination is a strategy used to:

A. Vaccinate animals in a circular pattern on the body
B. Vaccinate only ring-horned animals
C. Contain an outbreak by vaccinating animals in a zone surrounding the infected area
D. Vaccinate animals every year in a cycle

38 The causative agent of Strangles in horses (often included in general livestock disease units) is:

A. E. coli
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Salmonella
D. Streptococcus equi

39 Which of the following is a metabolic disease?

A. Rabies
B. Ketosis
C. FMD
D. Anthrax

40 The Cold Chain is essential for:

A. Transporting milk
B. Maintaining potency of vaccines during storage and transport
C. Cooling cattle sheds
D. Freezing meat

41 In poultry, the 'LaSota' strain is a type of vaccine for:

A. Typhoid
B. Fowl Cholera
C. Newcastle Disease
D. Pullorum

42 Which internal parasite is commonly known as the 'Barber's Pole Worm' in sheep?

A. Ascaris
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Moniezia
D. Haemonchus contortus

43 The first milk produced by a cow after calving, which is rich in antibodies, is called:

A. Toned milk
B. Colostrum
C. Skim milk
D. Whole milk

44 Actinobacillosis in cattle is commonly known as:

A. Wooden Tongue
B. Red Water
C. Black Leg
D. Lumpy Jaw

45 What is the typical route of administration for the RDVF (Ranikhet Disease Vaccine F-strain) in day-old chicks?

A. Intra-ocular (Eye drop) or Intranasal
B. Intravenous
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intramuscular

46 Trypanosomiasis (Surra) in livestock is caused by a:

A. Bacterium
B. Virus
C. Fungus
D. Protozoan

47 In the context of disease prevention, 'Biosecurity' refers to:

A. Giving antibiotics daily
B. Buying insurance for livestock
C. Using armed guards at the farm gate
D. Measures to prevent the entry and spread of pathogens on a farm

48 Bacillary White Diarrhea (Pullorum Disease) in chicks is caused by:

A. E. coli
B. Salmonella pullorum
C. Pasteurella multocida
D. Mycoplasma

49 Which of the following is NOT a viral disease?

A. Rinderpest
B. PPR
C. Foot and Mouth Disease
D. Mastitis

50 An accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, often associated with parasitic burden or liver damage, is called:

A. Gastritis
B. Pleurisy
C. Mastitis
D. Ascites