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Unit 5 - Practice Quiz

AGR117 50 Questions
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1 In the context of ruminant digestion, which compartment is referred to as the 'true stomach' because it secretes gastric juices and enzymes?

A. Rumen
B. Reticulum
C. Omasum
D. Abomasum

2 Which of the following compartments of the ruminant stomach has a mucosa resembling a honeycomb structure?

A. Rumen
B. Reticulum
C. Omasum
D. Abomasum

3 In poultry digestion, which organ is primarily responsible for the mechanical grinding of feed particles?

A. Crop
B. Proventriculus
C. Gizzard (Ventriculus)
D. Caeca

4 The primary site for the production of Volatile Fatty Acids (VFAs) in ruminants is the:

A. Small Intestine
B. Rumen
C. Abomasum
D. Large Intestine

5 Which organ in the poultry digestive tract is functionally analogous to the glandular stomach and secretes HCl and pepsin?

A. Crop
B. Proventriculus
C. Gizzard
D. Cloaca

6 According to the classification of feedstuffs, Roughages are defined as feed materials containing more than what percentage of Crude Fiber (CF)?

A. 10\%
B. 12\%
C. 18\%
D. 25\%

7 Concentrates are feeds that contain less than 18\% crude fiber and are usually high in:

A. Moisture
B. Total Digestible Nutrients (TDN)
C. Ash
D. Lignin

8 Which of the following is an example of a Succulent Roughage?

A. Wheat straw
B. Silage
C. Hay
D. Rice bran

9 In the Proximate Analysis (Weende System) of feed, the Ether Extract (EE) fraction primarily represents:

A. Minerals
B. Proteins
C. Fats/Lipids
D. Carbohydrates

10 When calculating Crude Protein (CP) from Nitrogen (N) content determined by the Kjeldahl method, what is the standard multiplication factor used?

A.
B.
C.
D.

11 Which component of the Proximate Analysis represents the inorganic mineral residue left after burning the sample at ?

A. Crude Fiber
B. Ether Extract
C. Ash
D. Nitrogen Free Extract

12 Nitrogen Free Extract (NFE) is calculated by difference and primarily represents:

A. Soluble Carbohydrates (Starches and Sugars)
B. Cellulose and Lignin
C. Crude Protein
D. Vitamins

13 Which VFA is produced in the highest proportion in the rumen of cattle fed on a high-forage (roughage) diet?

A. Propionic acid
B. Butyric acid
C. Acetic acid
D. Lactic acid

14 Which nutrient provides the highest amount of metabolic energy per gram?

A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Fats
D. Minerals

15 Milk Fever (Parturient Paresis) in high-yielding dairy cows is primarily caused by a deficiency or metabolic disorder of:

A. Iron
B. Magnesium
C. Calcium
D. Phosphorus

16 Grass Tetany (Hypomagnesemia) in cattle is associated with a deficiency of:

A. Calcium
B. Magnesium
C. Sodium
D. Potassium

17 Which of the following is considered the limiting amino acid in maise-soybean based poultry diets?

A. Lysine
B. Methionine
C. Tryptophan
D. Leucine

18 Curled Toe Paralysis in chicks is a deficiency symptom of which vitamin?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
C. Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)
D. Vitamin D

19 The anti-nutritional factor Gossypol is found in which feed ingredient?

A. Soybean meal
B. Groundnut cake
C. Cottonseed cake
D. Mustard cake

20 Which forage crop is known as the 'Queen of Forages' due to its high protein content and palatability?

A. Berseem
B. Lucerne (Alfalfa)
C. Oats
D. Maise

21 The process of ensiling (making silage) preserves fodder under which conditions?

A. Aerobic and Alkaline
B. Anaerobic and Acidic
C. Aerobic and Acidic
D. Anaerobic and Alkaline

22 Which of the following is an energy concentrate feed ingredient?

A. Soybean meal
B. Fish meal
C. Maise (Corn)
D. Groundnut cake

23 What is the optimal pH range for good quality silage?

A. 2.0 - 2.5
B. 3.5 - 4.2
C. 5.5 - 6.0
D. 7.0 - 7.5

24 The condition 'Pica' (chewing of bones, wood, etc.) in cattle is usually indicative of a deficiency in:

A. Vitamin A
B. Phosphorus
C. Iron
D. Iodine

25 Soybean meal must be heat-treated (toasted) before feeding to poultry to destroy which anti-nutritional factor?

A. Trypsin Inhibitor
B. Gossypol
C. Tannins
D. Mimosine

26 Which of the following is considered a Non-Protein Nitrogen (NPN) source used in ruminant feeding?

A. Fish meal
B. Urea
C. Gluten meal
D. Casein

27 What is the primary function of Grit in poultry feeding?

A. Source of Calcium
B. Source of Phosphorus
C. Grinding aid in the gizzard
D. Improve feather quality

28 Which vitamin is synthesized in the skin of animals upon exposure to sunlight?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K

29 The anti-nutritional factor Mimosine is associated with which fodder tree?

A. Subabul (Leucaena leucocephala)
B. Neem
C. Peepal
D. Acacia

30 Flushing is a feeding practice usually adopted for:

A. Dairy cows before calving
B. Sheep/Ewes before breeding
C. Poultry before laying
D. Pigs before slaughter

31 Feeding extra concentrate to a pregnant cow during the last 6–8 weeks of gestation is known as:

A. Flushing
B. Steaming up
C. Creep feeding
D. Phase feeding

32 What is Creep Feeding?

A. Feeding sick animals individually
B. Feeding young suckling animals in a separate enclosure
C. Feeding only roughages
D. Feeding birds at night

33 A Total Mixed Ration (TMR) is defined as:

A. Feeding forages in the morning and concentrates in the evening
B. A blend of all feed ingredients (forages, concentrates, minerals) mixed together
C. A liquid diet for calves
D. A pasture grazing system

34 Probiotics are defined as:

A. Non-digestible food ingredients that stimulate bacterial growth
B. Live microbial feed supplements which beneficially affect the host
C. Chemical compounds that kill bacteria
D. Synthetic hormones

35 Which of the following is a Prebiotic?

A. Lactobacillus
B. Mannan-oligosaccharides (MOS)
C. Penicillin
D. Phytase

36 The enzyme Phytase is often added to poultry and swine diets to improve the utilization of:

A. Protein
B. Fiber
C. Phosphorus
D. Starch

37 Which deficiency causes 'Crazy Chick Disease' (Encephalomalacia)?

A. Vitamin E
B. Vitamin K
C. Calcium
D. Zinc

38 Perosis (slipped tendon) in poultry is primarily caused by a deficiency of:

A. Calcium
B. Iron
C. Manganese
D. Copper

39 In feed classification, Basal Feeds are primarily sources of:

A. Energy
B. Protein
C. Vitamins
D. Minerals

40 What is the primary purpose of adding binders to poultry feed?

A. To increase protein content
B. To improve pellet quality and durability
C. To kill bacteria
D. To enhance color

41 Challenge Feeding is a practice usually applied to:

A. Dry cows
B. High-yielding dairy cows in early lactation
C. Beef cattle before slaughter
D. Poultry broilers

42 Which of the following is a protein supplement of animal origin?

A. Mustard Cake
B. Fish Meal
C. Soybean Meal
D. Wheat Bran

43 The water requirement of livestock is generally related to:

A. Dry Matter Intake (DMI)
B. Body color
C. Tail length
D. Hoof size

44 Which of the following describes 'Ad libitum' feeding?

A. Feeding a restricted amount
B. Feeding only once a day
C. Free-choice feeding where feed is available at all times
D. Feeding liquid diets only

45 In the context of proximate analysis, Crude Fiber (CF) consists mainly of:

A. Starch and Sugar
B. Cellulose, Hemicellulose, and Lignin
C. Fatty acids
D. Amino acids

46 What is the typical Crude Protein (CP) requirement for a broiler starter ration?

A. 10-12\%
B. 14-16\%
C. 22-23\%
D. 28-30\%

47 Which part of the plant cell wall is completely indigestible even to ruminants?

A. Cellulose
B. Hemicellulose
C. Lignin
D. Pectin

48 A feed ingredient containing 45\% Crude Protein would be classified as:

A. Energy Concentrate
B. Protein Supplement
C. Dry Roughage
D. Succulent Roughage

49 The use of Antibiotic Growth Promoters (AGPs) in feed has been banned or restricted in many countries due to concerns regarding:

A. Cost
B. Antimicrobial resistance
C. Animal obesity
D. Reduced palatability

50 Calculate the Dry Matter (DM) percentage of a feed sample if the moisture content is .

A.
B.
C.
D.
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