Unit 5 - Practice Quiz

AGR117 50 Questions
0 Correct 0 Wrong 50 Left
0/50

1 In the context of ruminant digestion, which compartment is referred to as the 'true stomach' because it secretes gastric juices and enzymes?

A. Abomasum
B. Omasum
C. Reticulum
D. Rumen

2 Which of the following compartments of the ruminant stomach has a mucosa resembling a honeycomb structure?

A. Reticulum
B. Abomasum
C. Omasum
D. Rumen

3 In poultry digestion, which organ is primarily responsible for the mechanical grinding of feed particles?

A. Proventriculus
B. Crop
C. Caeca
D. Gizzard (Ventriculus)

4 The primary site for the production of Volatile Fatty Acids (VFAs) in ruminants is the:

A. Small Intestine
B. Rumen
C. Abomasum
D. Large Intestine

5 Which organ in the poultry digestive tract is functionally analogous to the glandular stomach and secretes HCl and pepsin?

A. Proventriculus
B. Crop
C. Gizzard
D. Cloaca

6 According to the classification of feedstuffs, Roughages are defined as feed materials containing more than what percentage of Crude Fiber (CF)?

A. 18\%
B. 10\%
C. 25\%
D. 12\%

7 Concentrates are feeds that contain less than 18\% crude fiber and are usually high in:

A. Total Digestible Nutrients (TDN)
B. Ash
C. Lignin
D. Moisture

8 Which of the following is an example of a Succulent Roughage?

A. Rice bran
B. Hay
C. Wheat straw
D. Silage

9 In the Proximate Analysis (Weende System) of feed, the Ether Extract (EE) fraction primarily represents:

A. Carbohydrates
B. Minerals
C. Fats/Lipids
D. Proteins

10 When calculating Crude Protein (CP) from Nitrogen (N) content determined by the Kjeldahl method, what is the standard multiplication factor used?

A.
B.
C.
D.

11 Which component of the Proximate Analysis represents the inorganic mineral residue left after burning the sample at ?

A. Crude Fiber
B. Ether Extract
C. Nitrogen Free Extract
D. Ash

12 Nitrogen Free Extract (NFE) is calculated by difference and primarily represents:

A. Crude Protein
B. Soluble Carbohydrates (Starches and Sugars)
C. Cellulose and Lignin
D. Vitamins

13 Which VFA is produced in the highest proportion in the rumen of cattle fed on a high-forage (roughage) diet?

A. Propionic acid
B. Acetic acid
C. Butyric acid
D. Lactic acid

14 Which nutrient provides the highest amount of metabolic energy per gram?

A. Minerals
B. Carbohydrates
C. Fats
D. Proteins

15 Milk Fever (Parturient Paresis) in high-yielding dairy cows is primarily caused by a deficiency or metabolic disorder of:

A. Magnesium
B. Phosphorus
C. Iron
D. Calcium

16 Grass Tetany (Hypomagnesemia) in cattle is associated with a deficiency of:

A. Sodium
B. Magnesium
C. Potassium
D. Calcium

17 Which of the following is considered the limiting amino acid in maise-soybean based poultry diets?

A. Lysine
B. Tryptophan
C. Leucine
D. Methionine

18 Curled Toe Paralysis in chicks is a deficiency symptom of which vitamin?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
D. Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)

19 The anti-nutritional factor Gossypol is found in which feed ingredient?

A. Mustard cake
B. Groundnut cake
C. Soybean meal
D. Cottonseed cake

20 Which forage crop is known as the 'Queen of Forages' due to its high protein content and palatability?

A. Maise
B. Lucerne (Alfalfa)
C. Oats
D. Berseem

21 The process of ensiling (making silage) preserves fodder under which conditions?

A. Anaerobic and Acidic
B. Aerobic and Alkaline
C. Anaerobic and Alkaline
D. Aerobic and Acidic

22 Which of the following is an energy concentrate feed ingredient?

A. Groundnut cake
B. Maise (Corn)
C. Soybean meal
D. Fish meal

23 What is the optimal pH range for good quality silage?

A. 2.0 - 2.5
B. 7.0 - 7.5
C. 3.5 - 4.2
D. 5.5 - 6.0

24 The condition 'Pica' (chewing of bones, wood, etc.) in cattle is usually indicative of a deficiency in:

A. Phosphorus
B. Iron
C. Iodine
D. Vitamin A

25 Soybean meal must be heat-treated (toasted) before feeding to poultry to destroy which anti-nutritional factor?

A. Trypsin Inhibitor
B. Gossypol
C. Tannins
D. Mimosine

26 Which of the following is considered a Non-Protein Nitrogen (NPN) source used in ruminant feeding?

A. Gluten meal
B. Urea
C. Casein
D. Fish meal

27 What is the primary function of Grit in poultry feeding?

A. Source of Phosphorus
B. Grinding aid in the gizzard
C. Source of Calcium
D. Improve feather quality

28 Which vitamin is synthesized in the skin of animals upon exposure to sunlight?

A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin C

29 The anti-nutritional factor Mimosine is associated with which fodder tree?

A. Peepal
B. Neem
C. Subabul (Leucaena leucocephala)
D. Acacia

30 Flushing is a feeding practice usually adopted for:

A. Dairy cows before calving
B. Sheep/Ewes before breeding
C. Poultry before laying
D. Pigs before slaughter

31 Feeding extra concentrate to a pregnant cow during the last 6–8 weeks of gestation is known as:

A. Steaming up
B. Creep feeding
C. Phase feeding
D. Flushing

32 What is Creep Feeding?

A. Feeding sick animals individually
B. Feeding young suckling animals in a separate enclosure
C. Feeding only roughages
D. Feeding birds at night

33 A Total Mixed Ration (TMR) is defined as:

A. A blend of all feed ingredients (forages, concentrates, minerals) mixed together
B. A liquid diet for calves
C. Feeding forages in the morning and concentrates in the evening
D. A pasture grazing system

34 Probiotics are defined as:

A. Non-digestible food ingredients that stimulate bacterial growth
B. Live microbial feed supplements which beneficially affect the host
C. Chemical compounds that kill bacteria
D. Synthetic hormones

35 Which of the following is a Prebiotic?

A. Phytase
B. Penicillin
C. Mannan-oligosaccharides (MOS)
D. Lactobacillus

36 The enzyme Phytase is often added to poultry and swine diets to improve the utilization of:

A. Phosphorus
B. Starch
C. Fiber
D. Protein

37 Which deficiency causes 'Crazy Chick Disease' (Encephalomalacia)?

A. Calcium
B. Vitamin K
C. Vitamin E
D. Zinc

38 Perosis (slipped tendon) in poultry is primarily caused by a deficiency of:

A. Iron
B. Copper
C. Calcium
D. Manganese

39 In feed classification, Basal Feeds are primarily sources of:

A. Energy
B. Protein
C. Minerals
D. Vitamins

40 What is the primary purpose of adding binders to poultry feed?

A. To increase protein content
B. To enhance color
C. To kill bacteria
D. To improve pellet quality and durability

41 Challenge Feeding is a practice usually applied to:

A. Poultry broilers
B. Dry cows
C. Beef cattle before slaughter
D. High-yielding dairy cows in early lactation

42 Which of the following is a protein supplement of animal origin?

A. Soybean Meal
B. Wheat Bran
C. Mustard Cake
D. Fish Meal

43 The water requirement of livestock is generally related to:

A. Body color
B. Tail length
C. Hoof size
D. Dry Matter Intake (DMI)

44 Which of the following describes 'Ad libitum' feeding?

A. Feeding a restricted amount
B. Free-choice feeding where feed is available at all times
C. Feeding liquid diets only
D. Feeding only once a day

45 In the context of proximate analysis, Crude Fiber (CF) consists mainly of:

A. Fatty acids
B. Amino acids
C. Cellulose, Hemicellulose, and Lignin
D. Starch and Sugar

46 What is the typical Crude Protein (CP) requirement for a broiler starter ration?

A. 22-23\%
B. 14-16\%
C. 28-30\%
D. 10-12\%

47 Which part of the plant cell wall is completely indigestible even to ruminants?

A. Lignin
B. Hemicellulose
C. Pectin
D. Cellulose

48 A feed ingredient containing 45\% Crude Protein would be classified as:

A. Protein Supplement
B. Dry Roughage
C. Energy Concentrate
D. Succulent Roughage

49 The use of Antibiotic Growth Promoters (AGPs) in feed has been banned or restricted in many countries due to concerns regarding:

A. Reduced palatability
B. Antimicrobial resistance
C. Animal obesity
D. Cost

50 Calculate the Dry Matter (DM) percentage of a feed sample if the moisture content is .

A.
B.
C.
D.