Unit 2: Secure Networking - Practice Quiz

INT328 — Network Virtualization And Cloud Security 60 Questions
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1 What is the main purpose of an Azure Virtual Network (AVN)?

Azure Virtual Network (AVN) Easy
A. To manage user passwords
B. To connect Azure resources securely
C. To store application source code
D. To create database tables

2 Which component divides an Azure Virtual Network into smaller network sections?

Azure Virtual Network (AVN) Easy
A. Firewall
B. Security rule
C. Subnet
D. Route table

3 What type of address is commonly used for communication inside an Azure Virtual Network?

Azure Virtual Network (AVN) Easy
A. Private IP address
B. Storage account name
C. Email address
D. Public website address

4 What is the primary function of a Network Security Group (NSG)?

Network Security Groups (NSGs) Easy
A. To encrypt storage files
B. To create virtual machines
C. To monitor billing charges
D. To filter network traffic

5 Which type of traffic can an NSG rule control?

Network Security Groups (NSGs) Easy
A. Inbound and outbound traffic
B. Only encrypted traffic
C. Only database traffic
D. Only internet downloads

6 What does an NSG rule with an Allow action do?

Network Security Groups (NSGs) Easy
A. Deletes matching traffic
B. Permits matching traffic
C. Copies matching traffic
D. Encrypts matching traffic

7 What is a security group mainly used to manage?

Security groups Easy
A. Virtual machine disk size
B. Cloud subscription invoices
C. Application color settings
D. Access to network resources

8 Why are security groups useful in cloud environments?

Security groups Easy
A. They simplify permission management
B. They replace all network routes
C. They create operating systems
D. They increase monitor brightness

9 Which principle gives users only the access they need?

Security groups Easy
A. Least privilege
B. Open access
C. Default sharing
D. Maximum exposure

10 What is the purpose of a user-defined route?

User-defined routes Easy
A. To resize virtual networks
B. To customize traffic paths
C. To create user accounts
D. To scan files for viruses

11 Where are user-defined routes commonly applied in Azure?

User-defined routes Easy
A. To email inboxes
B. To subnets
C. To database columns
D. To user profiles

12 Which device can be selected as the next hop in a custom route?

User-defined routes Easy
A. Storage container
B. DNS record
C. Network virtual appliance
D. Web browser

13 What is the main purpose of a network firewall?

Firewall configuration Easy
A. To create software licenses
B. To format hard drives
C. To compress network cables
D. To control network access

14 Which rule would allow web traffic using HTTPS?

Firewall configuration Easy
A. Allow TCP port 25
B. Allow TCP port 21
C. Allow UDP port 53
D. Allow TCP port 443

15 What should a firewall usually do with traffic that violates its rules?

Firewall configuration Easy
A. Rename the traffic
B. Store the traffic
C. Block the traffic
D. Duplicate the traffic

16 What type of traffic does a Web Application Firewall (WAF) primarily protect?

Web Application Firewall (WAF) Easy
A. Operating system updates
B. Cloud billing traffic
C. Printer maintenance traffic
D. Web application traffic

17 Which attack can a WAF help detect and block?

Web Application Firewall (WAF) Easy
A. Keyboard failure
B. SQL injection
C. Power failure
D. Screen damage

18 At which layer does a WAF mainly inspect requests?

Web Application Firewall (WAF) Easy
A. Storage layer
B. Physical layer
C. Application layer
D. Power layer

19 What does DDoS stand for?

DDoS Protection Standard Easy
A. Distributed Database Operation System
B. Direct Data Operating System
C. Digital Domain Object Service
D. Distributed Denial of Service

20 What is the main goal of Azure DDoS Protection Standard?

DDoS Protection Standard Easy
A. To create private subnets
B. To manage application passwords
C. To protect public IP resources
D. To configure database schemas

21 Two Azure virtual networks must be connected through VNet peering. VNet-A uses 10.10.0.0/16, and VNet-B uses 10.10.20.0/24. What must be done before creating the peering?

Azure Virtual Network (AVN) Medium
A. Create matching subnets in both virtual networks
B. Change one virtual network to use a non-overlapping address range
C. Deploy an Azure Firewall in each virtual network
D. Add a default route to both virtual networks

22 VNet-A is peered with VNet-B, and VNet-B is peered with VNet-C. Without additional configuration, which communication path is available?

Azure Virtual Network (AVN) Medium
A. All three VNets automatically become fully transitive
B. VNet-A can communicate directly with VNet-B
C. VNet-A can communicate directly with VNet-C
D. VNet-C can communicate directly with every Azure VNet

23 An application in an Azure VNet must access Azure Storage without sending traffic through the public internet. The storage service may retain its public endpoint. Which feature should be enabled on the application subnet?

Azure Virtual Network (AVN) Medium
A. A route to an internet gateway
B. A cross-region VNet peering
C. A virtual network service endpoint
D. A public IP prefix

24 An NSG contains an inbound allow rule for TCP port 443 at priority 300 and an inbound deny rule for all TCP traffic at priority 200. What happens to an incoming HTTPS connection?

Network Security Groups (NSGs) Medium
A. It is denied because priority 200 is evaluated first
B. It is denied only when the source is the internet
C. It is allowed because port 443 is more specific
D. It is allowed because allow rules override deny rules

25 An NSG allows an outbound TCP connection from a virtual machine to a database. No explicit inbound rule permits the database's response packets. Why can the response still reach the virtual machine?

Network Security Groups (NSGs) Medium
A. NSGs are stateful and permit return traffic
B. Azure converts the response into outbound traffic
C. The virtual machine temporarily disables its NSG
D. NSGs automatically allow all inbound database traffic

26 A network interface has an NSG that allows SSH, while its subnet has an NSG that denies SSH from the same source. What is the effective result for traffic reaching that interface?

Network Security Groups (NSGs) Medium
A. SSH is denied only if both NSGs contain deny rules
B. SSH is allowed because interface rules are more specific
C. SSH is allowed because allow rules override deny rules
D. SSH is denied because both NSGs must allow it

27 A web tier must connect to a database tier whose instances are replaced frequently. Which security group rule best avoids maintaining individual IP addresses?

Security groups Medium
A. Allow the database port from the public internet
B. Allow the database port from every private subnet
C. Allow every port from the web tier's CIDR block
D. Allow the database port from the web tier's security group

28 Administrators need SSH access to private servers only through a bastion host. Which inbound security group rule should be applied to the private servers?

Security groups Medium
A. Allow TCP 22 from the bastion host's security group
B. Allow TCP 22 from the private servers themselves
C. Allow every TCP port from the administrator network
D. Allow TCP 22 from all addresses in the VNet

29 A security group currently permits inbound HTTPS from 0.0.0.0/0 to an internal reporting service used only by corporate employees. Which change best reduces exposure?

Security groups Medium
A. Permit HTTPS from all private IPv4 ranges
B. Replace HTTPS with HTTP for corporate users
C. Restrict HTTPS to the corporate VPN address range
D. Move the HTTPS rule to a lower priority

30 All outbound traffic from an application subnet must be inspected by a network virtual appliance at 10.0.4.4. Which user-defined route should be associated with the subnet?

User-defined routes Medium
A. 10.0.0.0/16 with next hop type None
B. 10.0.4.4/32 with next hop type Internet
C. 0.0.0.0/0 with next hop type Virtual appliance
D. 0.0.0.0/0 with next hop type Virtual network

31 A subnet route table contains 0.0.0.0/0 to a firewall and 10.20.0.0/16 to a VPN gateway. A packet is sent to 10.20.5.10. Which route is selected?

User-defined routes Medium
A. The route to the firewall
B. The route to the VPN gateway
C. The route added most recently
D. The default Azure system route

32 A user-defined route sends traffic to a network virtual appliance, but packets do not continue to the destination after reaching it. Which appliance setting should be checked first?

User-defined routes Medium
A. A public IP on every source interface
B. VNet peering on the destination subnet
C. IP forwarding on the appliance interface
D. Accelerated networking on the source VM

33 An Azure Firewall must publish an internal web server to internet clients while translating the firewall's public IP to the server's private IP. Which rule type is required?

Firewall configuration Medium
A. A DNAT rule
B. A network allow rule
C. An application rule
D. A user-defined route

34 Virtual machines should access only updates.example.com over HTTPS, regardless of changes to the site's IP addresses. Which Azure Firewall rule is most suitable?

Firewall configuration Medium
A. An application rule using the destination FQDN
B. An NSG rule using the destination hostname
C. A DNAT rule using the destination FQDN
D. A network rule using the current destination IP

35 A subnet has a default route to Azure Firewall, but the firewall has no rule allowing outbound DNS requests. What is the expected result?

Firewall configuration Medium
A. DNS requests are translated into HTTPS requests
B. DNS requests bypass the firewall automatically
C. DNS requests are allowed by the VNet route
D. DNS requests are denied by default

36 A public web application is being targeted with SQL injection and cross-site scripting payloads over HTTPS. Which control is designed to inspect and block these requests?

Web Application Firewall (WAF) Medium
A. A user-defined route table
B. A VNet peering configuration
C. A transport-layer DDoS policy
D. A Web Application Firewall policy

37 A WAF managed rule blocks a legitimate request because one JSON field resembles an attack signature. What is the most targeted corrective action?

Web Application Firewall (WAF) Medium
A. Allow all requests from the public internet
B. Exclude the affected field from the matching rule
C. Move the application to another Azure region
D. Disable the entire managed rule set permanently

38 A team wants to evaluate how a new WAF policy would affect production traffic without immediately blocking requests. Which mode should it use first?

Web Application Firewall (WAF) Medium
A. Detection mode
B. Prevention mode
C. Isolation mode
D. Translation mode

39 A company enables DDoS Protection Standard on a VNet containing public-facing services. What is a key advantage over relying only on basic platform protection?

DDoS Protection Standard Medium
A. Encryption of all traffic between Azure subnets
B. Automatic blocking of every malicious HTTP request
C. Adaptive mitigation policies tuned to protected public IPs
D. Replacement of NSGs with centralized access rules

40 A service uses DDoS Protection Standard but remains vulnerable to malicious HTTP requests that mimic legitimate users. Which additional control best addresses this gap?

DDoS Protection Standard Medium
A. Deploy a WAF in front of the application
B. Add a broader default route to the VNet
C. Create a peering connection to another VNet
D. Enable service endpoints on every subnet

41 VNet-A is peered with VNet-B, and VNet-B is peered with VNet-C. No VPN gateways or network virtual appliances are deployed. A VM in VNet-A must communicate privately with a VM in VNet-C. What change is required?

Azure Virtual Network (AVN) Hard
A. Enable gateway transit on the VNet-B peerings
B. Create direct peering between VNet-A and VNet-C
C. Enable forwarded traffic on the existing VNet peerings
D. Add matching NSG rules to VNet-A and VNet-C

42 An organization attempts to peer VNet-A (10.20.0.0/16) with VNet-B (10.20.128.0/17). Both VNets are in supported Azure regions. What prevents the peering?

Azure Virtual Network (AVN) Hard
A. The VNets use private addresses
B. The prefix lengths differ
C. The address spaces overlap
D. The VNets are in separate regions

43 A spoke VNet uses a remote gateway in a peered hub VNet. Which peering configuration is required for the spoke to use that gateway?

Azure Virtual Network (AVN) Hard
A. Both peers enable forwarded traffic without gateway transit
B. Both peers enable gateway transit and remote gateways
C. Hub enables gateway transit; spoke uses remote gateways
D. Hub uses remote gateways; spoke enables gateway transit

44 A VM NIC has an inbound NSG rule allowing TCP 443 from the Internet. Its subnet NSG denies TCP 443 from the Internet with a higher priority than the subnet's default rules. What happens to a new HTTPS connection?

Network Security Groups (NSGs) Hard
A. It is denied because both NSGs must allow it
B. It is allowed because the NIC rule is more specific
C. It is allowed because NIC NSGs override subnet NSGs
D. It is denied only if both NSGs contain explicit denies

45 An NSG initially permits a long-lived TCP session. An administrator then adds a higher-priority deny rule matching that session. What is the expected immediate effect?

Network Security Groups (NSGs) Hard
A. The established session is reset, and matching new sessions are denied
B. The established session can continue, but matching new sessions are denied
C. The session continues, and matching new sessions remain allowed
D. The session is reset, but matching new sessions remain allowed

46 An inbound NSG allows TCP 8443 from a client to a VM. No custom outbound rule permits the VM's return packets, but the default outbound Internet rule is removed by a higher-priority deny. Why can the response still return?

Network Security Groups (NSGs) Hard
A. NSGs automatically allow return traffic for an allowed stateful flow
B. Default virtual-network rules classify every response as internal traffic
C. Inbound rules are evaluated in reverse for all outbound packets
D. The Azure platform bypasses outbound NSGs for server responses

47 An NSG rule uses an Application Security Group named WebTier as its destination. A new VM is created in the same VNet and should receive the rule without editing the NSG. What should be changed?

Security groups Hard
A. Add the VM's private address to the NSG service tag
B. Associate WebTier directly with the VM's subnet
C. Add the VM's NIC IP configuration to WebTier
D. Assign the NSG rule to the VM's managed identity

48 A team tries to place NICs from VNet-A and VNet-B into one Azure Application Security Group so a single NSG rule can identify both application tiers. Why does the design fail?

Security groups Hard
A. Application Security Group membership is scoped to one VNet
B. Application Security Groups support only public IP addresses
C. Application Security Groups can contain only one NIC
D. Application Security Groups cannot be referenced by NSG rules

49 An NSG rule permits AppTier to reach DbTier on TCP 1433. A database VM has two NIC IP configurations, but only the secondary IP configuration belongs to DbTier. Which destination is matched by the rule?

Security groups Hard
A. Every private IP assigned within the database subnet
B. Only the secondary IP configuration in DbTier
C. Every IP configuration attached to the database VM
D. Only the primary IP configuration of the database VM

50 A subnet has a user-defined route 0.0.0.0/0 to a firewall. Azure also provides a system route 10.40.0.0/16 for the local VNet. A packet targets 10.40.5.10. Which route is selected?

User-defined routes Hard
A. Neither route because the sources conflict
B. The user-defined 0.0.0.0/0 route
C. Both routes using equal-cost forwarding
D. The system 10.40.0.0/16 route

51 For the same destination prefix, a subnet's effective routes contain a user-defined route, a BGP route, and a system route. Assuming all three are active and have identical prefix lengths, which route wins?

User-defined routes Hard
A. The system route
B. The user-defined route
C. The BGP route
D. The most recently created route

52 A UDR sends subnet traffic to a Linux NVA as a virtual-appliance next hop. The NVA receives packets but does not forward them. NSGs allow the traffic. Which configuration pair is essential?

User-defined routes Hard
A. Enable gateway transit and proxy ARP on the subnet
B. Enable service endpoints and destination NAT in Linux
C. Enable accelerated networking and source NAT in Linux
D. Enable Azure IP forwarding on the NIC and forwarding in Linux

53 Azure Firewall has a DNAT rule for its public IP and TCP 443, a network rule that could allow the translated flow, and an application rule for related HTTPS traffic. Which rule type is evaluated first for the inbound connection?

Firewall configuration Hard
A. DNAT rule
B. Network rule
C. Application rule
D. Threat-intelligence rule

54 Clients must access an external service over TCP 8443 using only its FQDN, and Azure Firewall must filter the traffic by hostname. Which rule design is appropriate when the protocol is HTTPS?

Firewall configuration Hard
A. Use an NSG rule with the target FQDN as destination
B. Use a network rule with only the target FQDN
C. Use an application rule with HTTPS and port 8443
D. Use a DNAT rule with HTTPS and port 8443

55 A subnet uses 0.0.0.0/0 to send traffic through Azure Firewall. Connectivity tests show asymmetric routing because return traffic reaches a workload through another path. What is the primary requirement for a stateful firewall design?

Firewall configuration Hard
A. Apply identical NSGs to the source and destination
B. Route only outbound packets through the firewall path
C. Disable connection tracking on the firewall policy
D. Route both directions of each flow through the same firewall path

56 An Azure WAF policy is in Detection mode and a managed rule identifies a SQL injection attempt. No custom rule blocks the request. What should occur?

Web Application Firewall (WAF) Hard
A. The source IP is added automatically to an NSG deny rule
B. The request is redirected automatically to a clean URL
C. The request is blocked and the client receives HTTP 403
D. The request is logged but normally continues to the backend

57 A TLS connection passes through Azure Application Gateway WAF, but the gateway is configured for end-to-end TLS with termination and re-encryption. Where can WAF inspect the HTTP request?

Web Application Firewall (WAF) Hard
A. Only when the backend connection uses unencrypted HTTP
B. Only after the backend server decrypts the request
C. After frontend TLS termination and before backend re-encryption
D. Before the client and gateway complete the TLS handshake

58 A WAF managed rule falsely flags a specific JSON field, but the same attack signature must remain active for all other request data. What is the narrowest appropriate change?

Web Application Firewall (WAF) Hard
A. Create a managed-rule exclusion for that field
B. Change the complete WAF policy to Detection mode
C. Add the client network to an NSG allow rule
D. Disable the entire managed rule set globally

59 A public web application is protected by both Azure DDoS Protection Standard and WAF. During an attack, which responsibility is primarily assigned to DDoS Protection rather than WAF?

DDoS Protection Standard Hard
A. Blocking SQL injection patterns in HTTP request bodies
B. Mitigating volumetric attacks against network and transport layers
C. Validating application cookies against managed HTTP rules
D. Rejecting cross-site scripting payloads in query parameters

60 A DDoS protection plan is enabled on VNet-A. A public-IP resource in VNet-B must receive the plan's adaptive protection. Peering exists between the VNets. What must be done?

DDoS Protection Standard Hard
A. Reference VNet-A's plan from VNet-B's NSG
B. Add VNet-B's prefix to VNet-A's route table
C. Enable forwarded traffic on both VNet peerings
D. Associate VNet-B with the DDoS protection plan