1What is a main characteristic of security implemented at the application layer?
Security at Application Layer
Easy
A.It protects a specific application
B.It assigns hardware addresses
C.It controls physical cable access
D.It replaces all network routers
Correct Answer: It protects a specific application
Explanation:
Application-layer security provides protection tailored to services such as email, web browsing, or file transfer.
Incorrect! Try again.
2Which protocol provides application-layer security for web communication?
Security at Application Layer
Easy
A.ICMP
B.HTTPS
C.DHCP
D.ARP
Correct Answer: HTTPS
Explanation:
HTTPS secures communication between web applications by using HTTP over TLS.
Incorrect! Try again.
3What does PGP stand for?
Email System and PGP
Easy
A.Pretty Good Privacy
B.Protected Gateway Protocol
C.Packet Guard Process
D.Private Group Permission
Correct Answer: Pretty Good Privacy
Explanation:
PGP stands for Pretty Good Privacy and is used to secure email messages and files.
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4Which security services are commonly provided by PGP?
Email System and PGP
Easy
A.Routing and address assignment
B.Compression and error correction
C.Encryption and digital signatures
D.Switching and traffic shaping
Correct Answer: Encryption and digital signatures
Explanation:
PGP uses encryption for confidentiality and digital signatures for authentication and integrity.
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5Which type of cryptography does PGP use to encrypt a session key for the recipient?
Email System and PGP
Easy
A.Public-key cryptography
B.Hash-only cryptography
C.Error-control coding
D.Analog signal encoding
Correct Answer: Public-key cryptography
Explanation:
PGP encrypts the session key using the recipient's public key so that only the recipient can recover it.
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6Transport-layer security mainly protects communication between which entities?
Security service at transport layer
Easy
A.Individual storage sectors
B.Adjacent network switches
C.Local hardware components
D.End-to-end applications
Correct Answer: End-to-end applications
Explanation:
Transport-layer security protects data exchanged between applications running on communicating hosts.
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7Which security property prevents transmitted data from being read by unauthorized parties?
Security service at transport layer
Easy
A.Fragmentation
B.Confidentiality
C.Addressing
D.Availability
Correct Answer: Confidentiality
Explanation:
Confidentiality uses encryption to keep transmitted information secret from unauthorized parties.
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8SSL operates between the application layer and which transport protocol?
SSL architecture
Easy
A.TCP
B.ICMP
C.ARP
D.Ethernet
Correct Answer: TCP
Explanation:
SSL is placed between application protocols and TCP to provide secure, reliable communication.
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9Which SSL component provides basic protection for higher-level SSL protocols?
SSL architecture
Easy
A.SSL Address Protocol
B.SSL Discovery Protocol
C.SSL Record Protocol
D.SSL Routing Protocol
Correct Answer: SSL Record Protocol
Explanation:
The SSL Record Protocol fragments, optionally compresses, authenticates, and encrypts application data.
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10Which SSL protocol negotiates algorithms and establishes session keys?
Four SSL protocols
Easy
A.Handshake Protocol
B.Alert Protocol
C.Record Protocol
D.Change Cipher Spec Protocol
Correct Answer: Handshake Protocol
Explanation:
The Handshake Protocol negotiates security parameters, authenticates parties, and establishes shared keys.
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11Which SSL protocol communicates warnings and error conditions?
Four SSL protocols
Easy
A.Record Protocol
B.Handshake Protocol
C.Change Cipher Spec Protocol
D.Alert Protocol
Correct Answer: Alert Protocol
Explanation:
The Alert Protocol reports SSL warnings, errors, and connection-closure notifications.
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12Which SSL protocol signals that newly negotiated security settings will now be used?
Four SSL protocols
Easy
A.Handshake Protocol
B.Alert Protocol
C.Change Cipher Spec Protocol
D.Record Protocol
Correct Answer: Change Cipher Spec Protocol
Explanation:
The Change Cipher Spec Protocol tells the peer to begin using the negotiated cipher suite and keys.
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13TLS is the standardized successor to which earlier security protocol?
Transport layer security
Easy
A.SSL
B.FTP
C.SMTP
D.ARP
Correct Answer: SSL
Explanation:
Transport Layer Security evolved from SSL and provides secure communication over a network.
Incorrect! Try again.
14Which protocol commonly uses TLS to secure web browsing?
Transport layer security
Easy
A.RIP
B.ARP
C.HTTPS
D.TFTP
Correct Answer: HTTPS
Explanation:
HTTPS is HTTP carried over TLS, providing confidentiality, integrity, and server authentication.
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15At which layer of the TCP/IP model does IPSec provide security?
IP Security (IPSec)
Easy
A.Application layer
B.Internet layer
C.Physical layer
D.Transport layer
Correct Answer: Internet layer
Explanation:
IPSec secures IP packets at the Internet layer, also called the network layer.
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16What are the two operating modes of IPSec?
Modes of IPSec
Easy
A.Transport mode and tunnel mode
B.Client mode and server mode
C.Active mode and passive mode
D.Simple mode and duplex mode
Correct Answer: Transport mode and tunnel mode
Explanation:
IPSec supports transport mode for protecting payloads and tunnel mode for protecting complete IP packets.
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17Which IPSec mode encapsulates and protects the entire original IP packet?
Modes of IPSec
Easy
A.Transport mode
B.Passive mode
C.Tunnel mode
D.Session mode
Correct Answer: Tunnel mode
Explanation:
Tunnel mode protects the complete original IP packet by placing it inside a new IP packet.
Incorrect! Try again.
18Which security service is provided by the IPSec Authentication Header?
AH security protocol
Easy
A.Confidentiality and compression
B.Routing and fragmentation
C.Addressing and retransmission
D.Integrity and authentication
Correct Answer: Integrity and authentication
Explanation:
AH provides data integrity, source authentication, and anti-replay protection, but not confidentiality.
Incorrect! Try again.
19Which IPSec protocol primarily provides confidentiality through encryption?
ESP security protocol
Easy
A.Authentication Header
B.Address Resolution Protocol
C.Encapsulating Security Payload
D.Internet Control Message Protocol
Correct Answer: Encapsulating Security Payload
Explanation:
ESP primarily provides confidentiality and can also provide integrity, authentication, and anti-replay protection.
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20What is a Security Association in IPSec?
Security associations
Easy
A.A physical network connection
B.A one-way secure relationship
C.A public email directory
D.A router discovery message
Correct Answer: A one-way secure relationship
Explanation:
An IPSec Security Association is a unidirectional relationship defining keys, algorithms, and other security parameters.
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21A company needs end-to-end protection for messages even when they pass through several untrusted mail relays. At which layer should the protection primarily be applied?
Security at Application Layer
Medium
A.Network layer
B.Data-link layer
C.Transport layer
D.Application layer
Correct Answer: Application layer
Explanation:
Application-layer security can protect message content from sender to recipient, independent of intermediate relays and lower-layer connections.
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22A web application uses TLS but directly inserts untrusted input into database queries. Which threat can still remain?
Security at Application Layer
Medium
A.Route spoofing
B.Frame collision
C.SQL injection
D.Packet replay
Correct Answer: SQL injection
Explanation:
TLS protects data in transit, but it does not validate application input or prevent SQL injection in database queries.
Incorrect! Try again.
23Alice wants Bob to verify that a PGP email came from her and was not modified. Which key should Alice use to create the digital signature?
Email System and PGP
Medium
A.Bob's private key
B.Alice's private key
C.Alice's public key
D.Bob's public key
Correct Answer: Alice's private key
Explanation:
Alice signs with her private key, and Bob verifies the signature using Alice's public key.
Incorrect! Try again.
24In PGP, why is a randomly generated session key commonly used to encrypt the email body?
Email System and PGP
Medium
A.Symmetric encryption is efficient for bulk data
B.Hashing cannot process long email messages
C.Public keys cannot be distributed securely
D.Digital signatures require symmetric encryption
Correct Answer: Symmetric encryption is efficient for bulk data
Explanation:
PGP uses fast symmetric encryption for the message and public-key encryption to protect the small session key.
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25A client opens two TLS connections to the same server. What does transport-layer security protect separately for each connection?
Security service at transport layer
Medium
A.Every DNS query made by the client
B.The connection's application data stream
C.Every packet routed through the server
D.All files stored by the application
Correct Answer: The connection's application data stream
Explanation:
Transport-layer security protects data carried by a particular connection, not unrelated traffic, stored data, or separate DNS activity.
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26A TLS connection provides confidentiality and integrity, but the client does not validate the server certificate. Which attack becomes more feasible?
Security service at transport layer
Medium
A.Physical cable interception
B.Operating-system deadlock
C.Database privilege escalation
D.Man-in-the-middle impersonation
Correct Answer: Man-in-the-middle impersonation
Explanation:
Without certificate validation, a client may establish an encrypted connection with an attacker who is impersonating the server.
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27In SSL architecture, which component fragments application data, optionally compresses it, adds protection, and passes it to TCP?
SSL architecture
Medium
A.SSL Record Protocol
B.SSL Change Cipher Spec Protocol
C.SSL Handshake Protocol
D.SSL Alert Protocol
Correct Answer: SSL Record Protocol
Explanation:
The SSL Record Protocol processes upper-layer data into protected records and transports those records over TCP.
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28An SSL session is resumed to avoid a full negotiation. Which item is normally associated with the session rather than one individual connection?
SSL architecture
Medium
A.Initialization vector
B.Sequence number
C.Record fragment
D.Master secret
Correct Answer: Master secret
Explanation:
The master secret belongs to reusable session state, while sequence numbers and record-specific values belong to individual connections or records.
Incorrect! Try again.
29Which SSL protocol negotiates algorithms, authenticates peers when required, and establishes shared keying material?
Four SSL protocols
Medium
A.Alert Protocol
B.Handshake Protocol
C.Change Cipher Spec Protocol
D.Record Protocol
Correct Answer: Handshake Protocol
Explanation:
The Handshake Protocol negotiates security parameters, performs authentication, and establishes shared secrets.
Incorrect! Try again.
30During an SSL exchange, which protocol sends a one-byte message indicating that subsequent records will use the newly negotiated cipher state?
Four SSL protocols
Medium
A.Record Protocol
B.Alert Protocol
C.Change Cipher Spec Protocol
D.Handshake Protocol
Correct Answer: Change Cipher Spec Protocol
Explanation:
Change Cipher Spec signals the transition from pending cryptographic parameters to the active cipher state.
Incorrect! Try again.
31A TLS receiver obtains a protected record with an invalid authentication tag. What should it conclude?
Transport layer security
Medium
A.The record's integrity check failed
B.The server's private key was disclosed
C.The certificate has necessarily expired
D.The TCP port is incorrectly configured
Correct Answer: The record's integrity check failed
Explanation:
An invalid tag means the record cannot be authenticated and may have been modified, corrupted, or forged.
Incorrect! Try again.
32Why are sequence numbers incorporated into TLS record authentication?
Transport layer security
Medium
A.To compress repeated record contents
B.To select the server's TCP port
C.To identify the certificate authority
D.To detect reordered or replayed records
Correct Answer: To detect reordered or replayed records
Explanation:
Authenticating sequence numbers binds each record to its expected position, helping detect duplication, omission, and reordering.
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33An organization wants security controls to apply transparently to many IP applications without modifying each application. Why is IPSec suitable?
IP Security (IPSec)
Medium
A.It validates application source code
B.It replaces all transport protocols
C.It encrypts only email attachments
D.It operates at the network layer
Correct Answer: It operates at the network layer
Explanation:
Because IPSec protects IP traffic at the network layer, applications can benefit without implementing their own security mechanisms.
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34A VPN must hide the original internal source and destination addresses while packets cross the public Internet. Which IPSec approach meets this requirement?
IP Security (IPSec)
Medium
A.AH in transport mode
B.AH without an SA
C.ESP in tunnel mode
D.ESP in transport mode
Correct Answer: ESP in tunnel mode
Explanation:
ESP tunnel mode encapsulates and encrypts the original IP packet, including its internal addresses, behind a new outer header.
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35Two hosts communicate directly using IPSec, and the original IP header must remain visible to routers. Which mode is most appropriate?
Modes of IPSec
Medium
A.Tunnel mode
B.Gateway mode
C.Session mode
D.Transport mode
Correct Answer: Transport mode
Explanation:
Transport mode protects the upper-layer payload while retaining the original IP header for normal routing between hosts.
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36In IPSec tunnel mode, what is added to route the encapsulated packet between tunnel endpoints?
Modes of IPSec
Medium
A.A second TCP header
B.A new application header
C.A new outer IP header
D.A duplicate Ethernet trailer
Correct Answer: A new outer IP header
Explanation:
Tunnel mode wraps the original IP packet and adds a new outer IP header containing the tunnel endpoint addresses.
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37Why does IPSec AH generally fail when a packet passes through conventional NAT?
AH security protocol
Medium
A.NAT cannot forward protocol number 51
B.NAT removes every transport-layer checksum
C.NAT changes authenticated IP header fields
D.NAT always fragments encrypted payloads
Correct Answer: NAT changes authenticated IP header fields
Explanation:
AH authenticates selected IP header fields, so NAT address changes cause the receiver's integrity verification to fail.
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38A security policy requires payload confidentiality and source authentication for selected IP traffic. Which IPSec protocol can provide both?
ESP security protocol
Medium
A.IKE without ESP
B.IP-in-IP alone
C.AH without ESP
D.ESP with authentication
Correct Answer: ESP with authentication
Explanation:
ESP can encrypt payload data for confidentiality and add integrity authentication when that service is selected.
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39An IPSec host receives a protected packet. Which combination is used to identify the inbound Security Association?
Security associations
Medium
A.SPI, destination address, and protocol
B.Source address, checksum, and TTL
C.Sequence number, cipher, and payload size
D.Source port, destination port, and nonce
Correct Answer: SPI, destination address, and protocol
Explanation:
An IPSec SA is identified by the Security Parameters Index, destination IP address, and security protocol, either AH or ESP.
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40An IPSec Security Policy Database rule matches outbound payroll traffic and marks it as "PROTECT." What should the system do next?
Security policy
Medium
A.Apply a suitable SA or establish one
B.Replace the packet with an IKE message
C.Forward the traffic without IPSec processing
D.Discard the traffic without checking an SA
Correct Answer: Apply a suitable SA or establish one
Explanation:
A PROTECT decision requires IPSec processing through a matching Security Association; if none exists, key management may establish one.
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41A distributed application digitally signs JSON objects, but intermediaries may reorder object members and alter insignificant whitespace. Which design best preserves verifiability without requiring byte-for-byte preservation during transit?
Security at Application Layer
Hard
A.Encrypt the complete object before allowing intermediaries to parse it
B.Sign the transport-layer ciphertext generated for each connection
C.Hash only the lengths of the individual JSON object members
D.Sign a canonical serialization of the security-relevant fields
Correct Answer: Sign a canonical serialization of the security-relevant fields
Explanation:
A deterministic canonical form removes irrelevant serialization differences while ensuring that modifications to signed fields invalidate the signature.
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42Alice uses PGP to sign and encrypt a message for Bob. Which processing order provides both signature verification over Alice's original message and efficient encryption?
Email System and PGP
Hard
A.Apply Radix-64, sign, compress, and encrypt with a session key
B.Compress, encrypt, sign the ciphertext, and apply Radix-64
C.Sign, compress, encrypt with a session key, and apply Radix-64
D.Encrypt, compress, sign the session key, and apply Radix-64
Correct Answer: Sign, compress, encrypt with a session key, and apply Radix-64
Explanation:
PGP normally signs the message first, compresses the signed data, encrypts it using a symmetric session key, and finally converts it to an email-safe representation.
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43A PGP message containing a 50 MB attachment is encrypted for 100 recipients. Which construction avoids encrypting the attachment 100 times?
Email System and PGP
Hard
A.Encrypt the attachment with each recipient's public key in parallel blocks
B.Use one session key and publish its plaintext value beside the ciphertext
C.Derive one session key directly from the recipients' public key identifiers
D.Use one session key and encrypt that key separately for every recipient
Correct Answer: Use one session key and encrypt that key separately for every recipient
Explanation:
PGP encrypts the data once with a symmetric session key, then creates a separate public-key-encrypted session-key packet for each recipient.
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44Bob has verified that a PGP public key belongs to Alice, but the key is later revoked because its private component was compromised. Which conclusion about an old message signed by that key is most defensible without a trusted timestamp?
Email System and PGP
Hard
A.The signature proves confidentiality because the revoked key identified Alice
B.The signature proves message integrity but not when it was created relative to compromise
C.The signature remains conclusive because it was mathematically verified once
D.The signature is automatically invalid because all revocations are retroactive
Correct Answer: The signature proves message integrity but not when it was created relative to compromise
Explanation:
Without trusted timing evidence, verification shows that the corresponding private key produced the signature, but not whether signing occurred before or after compromise.
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45A client establishes TLS to a reverse proxy, which decrypts the request and forwards it to an application server over a separate TLS connection. What security property is absent between the client process and the application server process?
Security service at transport layer
Hard
A.Confidentiality on the client-to-proxy network segment
B.Integrity on the proxy-to-server network segment
C.Application-to-application cryptographic continuity across the proxy
D.Server authentication for the client's connection to the proxy
Correct Answer: Application-to-application cryptographic continuity across the proxy
Explanation:
Each TLS connection protects only its endpoints. The proxy terminates the first protection context and can inspect or modify data before creating the second.
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46An SSL client resumes a previously established session by creating a new connection. Which state is expected to be reused, and which state must be newly derived?
SSL architecture
Hard
A.The server random is reused, while a new certificate chain is generated
B.The master secret is reused, while fresh connection keys and sequence numbers are established
C.The record sequence numbers are reused, while the master secret is regenerated
D.The pending cipher state is reused, while the session identifier is regenerated
Correct Answer: The master secret is reused, while fresh connection keys and sequence numbers are established
Explanation:
A resumable SSL session can retain the master secret and negotiated parameters, but each connection derives fresh key material from new random values and starts new sequence-number state.
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47An attacker modifies a cipher-suite offer in an SSL Handshake message while relaying the connection. Assuming the attacker cannot compute the master secret, which mechanism is designed to expose the transcript modification before application data is accepted?
Four SSL protocols
Hard
A.The sequence number contained in the Change Cipher Spec message
B.The checksum placed in the SSL record-layer fragmentation header
C.The verify data in the encrypted Finished messages
D.The description field contained in a close-notify alert
Correct Answer: The verify data in the encrypted Finished messages
Explanation:
The Finished value is derived from the master secret and the prior handshake transcript, so an undetected modification causes verification to fail.
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48What is the precise role of the SSL Change Cipher Spec protocol during a full handshake?
Four SSL protocols
Hard
A.It negotiates a stronger cipher suite when the selected suite is rejected
B.It copies the pending write state into the current write state
C.It verifies the peer's certificate before key derivation begins
D.It resets both peers' read states before the master secret is computed
Correct Answer: It copies the pending write state into the current write state
Explanation:
Change Cipher Spec signals that subsequently transmitted records use the negotiated pending parameters. The receiving side correspondingly activates its pending read state.
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49A TLS-over-TCP application treats an ordinary TCP FIN as a valid end of a protected response even though no authenticated close_notify alert was received. Which attack can this mistake enable?
Four SSL protocols
Hard
A.A truncation attack that removes a suffix of the protected response
B.A renegotiation attack that replaces the negotiated certificate chain
C.A reflection attack that converts server records into client records
D.A replay attack that resets the record sequence number to zero
Correct Answer: A truncation attack that removes a suffix of the protected response
Explanation:
An attacker can terminate the TCP connection early. Requiring an authenticated close_notify helps distinguish an orderly TLS shutdown from unauthenticated truncation.
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50In an SSL/TLS record epoch, an attacker captures an authenticated record and inserts the same bytes again later in the same connection. Why will record authentication normally fail even though the copied MAC bytes are unchanged?
Four SSL protocols
Hard
A.The receiver includes its expected implicit sequence number in MAC verification
B.The receiver hashes the current TCP acknowledgment number into every record
C.The sender changes the negotiated cipher suite after transmitting each record
D.The copied record necessarily contains an expired certificate validation result
Correct Answer: The receiver includes its expected implicit sequence number in MAC verification
Explanation:
The record MAC incorporates a per-direction sequence number. A replay at another position is checked using a different expected number and therefore fails authentication.
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51A TLS 1.2 implementation uses a CBC cipher suite with MAC-then-encrypt. Which operation order correctly describes protection of a record fragment?
Transport layer security
Hard
A.Encrypt the fragment, append its MAC, and then append random padding
B.Add CBC padding, encrypt the fragment, and append a plaintext MAC
C.Compute a MAC over ciphertext, prepend padding, and encrypt only the MAC
D.Append the MAC, add CBC padding, and encrypt the resulting plaintext
Correct Answer: Append the MAC, add CBC padding, and encrypt the resulting plaintext
Explanation:
Traditional CBC suites in TLS 1.2 compute the MAC over record metadata and plaintext, append the MAC, add padding, and encrypt the complete result.
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52A payment API permits TLS 1.3 early data and processes POST /transfer immediately. Even when encryption and server authentication are sound, what additional control is required?
Transport layer security
Hard
A.A second Change Cipher Spec message sent after processing the transfer
B.A replay-resistant application token or rejection of early data for transfers
C.A static Diffie-Hellman key shared by every server handling the endpoint
D.A longer certificate chain containing at least two intermediate authorities
Correct Answer: A replay-resistant application token or rejection of early data for transfers
Explanation:
TLS 1.3 zero-round-trip early data lacks general replay protection. Non-idempotent operations require application-level anti-replay controls or delayed processing.
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53An organization configures ESP encryption but disables integrity protection. A block cipher mode hides the plaintext but allows controlled ciphertext modification. Which IPSec objective is consequently not assured?
IP Security (IPSec)
Hard
A.Routing of tunnel packets between security gateways
B.Confidentiality of the encrypted upper-layer payload
C.Protocol identification using the outer IP header
D.Resistance to active modification of protected packet contents
Correct Answer: Resistance to active modification of protected packet contents
Explanation:
Encryption alone does not necessarily detect tampering. ESP authentication or an authenticated-encryption algorithm is needed to provide integrity and origin authentication.
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54Two security gateways protect traffic between private networks, and internal source and destination addresses must be concealed from the public network. Which IPSec arrangement is appropriate?
Modes of IPSec
Hard
A.AH transport mode with the private addresses retained in the visible header
B.ESP tunnel mode with a new outer header naming the security gateways
C.ESP transport mode applied independently by the two security gateways
D.AH tunnel mode with the complete inner packet transmitted in plaintext
Correct Answer: ESP tunnel mode with a new outer header naming the security gateways
Explanation:
ESP tunnel mode encapsulates and encrypts the original IP packet, including its private addresses, while a new outer header routes traffic between the gateways.
Incorrect! Try again.
55A host uses AH transport mode, and a conventional NAT device changes the packet's source address while forwarding it. Why does the receiver normally reject the packet?
AH security protocol
Hard
A.AH encrypts the source address, so the NAT cannot calculate a replacement value
B.AH requires the outer source address to equal the receiver's destination address
C.AH authenticates the source address, so the NAT modification invalidates the ICV
D.AH places the TCP port numbers in an encrypted tunnel-mode header
Correct Answer: AH authenticates the source address, so the NAT modification invalidates the ICV
Explanation:
AH authenticates immutable or predictable IP-header fields, including addresses. NAT changes an authenticated field without being able to recompute the keyed integrity check.
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56For ESP transport mode with integrity enabled, which portion of an IPv4 packet is outside ESP's integrity-protected region?
ESP security protocol
Hard
A.The ESP header containing the SPI and sequence number
B.The original IP header preceding the ESP header
C.The encrypted transport payload and ESP trailer
D.The ESP authentication data used to carry the ICV
Correct Answer: The original IP header preceding the ESP header
Explanation:
ESP transport mode protects the upper-layer payload, ESP header, and trailer as defined by its integrity processing, but it does not authenticate the preceding IP header.
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57Host A and Host B require bidirectional ESP protection using the same algorithms. What is the minimum number of IPSec security associations required?
Security associations
Hard
A.Two SAs because each association protects one traffic direction
B.Four SAs because encryption and integrity always use separate associations
C.Three SAs because ESP requires a separate association for key exchange
D.One SA because an ESP association is inherently bidirectional
Correct Answer: Two SAs because each association protects one traffic direction
Explanation:
An IPSec SA is simplex. Bidirectional protection therefore requires one outbound SA from A to B and another outbound SA from B to A.
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58An inbound IPSec packet arrives with SPI . Which information is normally used with to identify the applicable security association unambiguously?
Security associations
Hard
A.The destination TCP port and the current anti-replay window size
B.The source IP address and the packet's application payload length
C.The source TCP port and the negotiated cipher block size
D.The destination IP address and security protocol identifier
Correct Answer: The destination IP address and security protocol identifier
Explanation:
An SA is conventionally identified by the tuple consisting of the SPI, destination IP address, and security protocol such as AH or ESP.
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59An ESP SA uses a replay window of size . The highest authenticated sequence number is 500, and every number from 437 through 500 has already been received. A packet with sequence number 436 arrives with a valid ICV. What should the receiver do?
Security policy
Hard
A.Accept it and move the right edge of the replay window back to 499
B.Reject it because its sequence number lies to the left of the window
C.Accept it because successful ICV verification overrides the replay window
D.Reject it only if another packet with sequence number 436 was recorded
Correct Answer: Reject it because its sequence number lies to the left of the window
Explanation:
With highest sequence number 500 and a 64-packet window, the active range is 437 through 500. Sequence number 436 is too old and is rejected.
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60An inbound ESP packet passes cryptographic verification under an existing SA, but its decrypted traffic selectors do not match any policy permitting that SA to carry the packet. What is the correct policy action?
Security policy
Hard
A.Create a new outbound SA using the selectors found in the packet
B.Accept it because successful ESP authentication supersedes policy checks
C.Bypass IPSec and deliver it as an ordinary unauthenticated IP packet
D.Discard it because cryptographic validity does not imply policy authorization
Correct Answer: Discard it because cryptographic validity does not imply policy authorization
Explanation:
The SAD supplies cryptographic processing state, while the SPD determines whether the resulting traffic is authorized. A valid packet that violates policy must still be discarded.
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