Unit 5: Cognitive Dysfunction and Psychological Testing - Practice Quiz

PSY291 — Psychological Testing 50 Questions
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1 Which of the following best defines cognitive dysfunction?

A. A personality disorder characterized by unstable moods
B. A deficit in intellectual and mental processes such as memory, attention, and executive function
C. A temporary emotional disturbance caused by stress
D. A physical inability to control voluntary muscle movements due to spinal cord injury

2 In the context of cognitive dysfunction, what does the term agnosia refer to?

A. Loss of long-term memory
B. Inability to recognize or identify objects despite intact sensory function
C. Inability to carry out motor activities despite intact motor function
D. Inability to articulate speech

3 Which cognitive domain is primarily assessed by the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST)?

A. Auditory processing speed
B. Executive function, specifically set-shifting and abstract reasoning
C. Visuospatial construction skills
D. Long-term semantic memory

4 Which of the following is considered a screening tool rather than a comprehensive neuropsychological battery?

A. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
B. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS-IV)
C. Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery
D. Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery

5 What is the maximum possible score on the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)?

A. 30
B. 50
C. 100
D. 20

6 Which condition is characterized by an acute, fluctuating disturbance in attention and awareness, often reversible?

A. Delirium
B. Mild Cognitive Impairment (MCI)
C. Vascular Dementia
D. Alzheimer's Disease

7 The Stroop Color and Word Test is primarily used to assess which cognitive process?

A. Motor dexterity
B. Visuospatial memory
C. Phonological loop
D. Cognitive inhibition and selective attention

8 In the assessment of cognitive dysfunction, what does 'premorbid functioning' refer to?

A. The current level of cognitive functioning during a psychotic episode
B. The predicted decline in cognitive function over the next 5 years
C. The genetic predisposition to neurological disorders
D. The level of cognitive ability a patient had before the onset of injury or illness

9 Which of the following is a key ethical consideration when testing an individual with severe dementia?

A. Ensuring the test takes at least 4 hours to be thorough
B. Obtaining informed consent, often involving a legal proxy or guardian
C. Using only tests designed for children
D. Refusing to share results with the family to maintain total secrecy

10 Which test requires a patient to connect numbered circles in a sequence (Part A) and alternate between numbers and letters (Part B)?

A. Digit Span Test
B. Tower of London
C. Trail Making Test
D. Boston Naming Test

11 The Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA) is generally considered more sensitive than the MMSE for detecting:

A. Acute Coma
B. Mild Cognitive Impairment (MCI)
C. Profound Intellectual Disability
D. Severe Alzheimer's Disease

12 Which type of cognitive dysfunction is primarily associated with chronic alcoholism and thiamine deficiency?

A. Huntington's Disease
B. Lewy Body Dementia
C. Korsakoff's Syndrome
D. Pick's Disease

13 What is apraxia?

A. A loss of motivation
B. A language disorder affecting grammar
C. A deficit in motor planning and executing learned purposeful movements
D. A visual field cut

14 The Bender-Gestalt II is widely used to assess:

A. Auditory attention span
B. Visual-motor integration and visual perception
C. Logical deduction
D. Verbal fluency and vocabulary

15 Which statistical concept is crucial when determining if a patient's score on a cognitive test represents a significant deficit?

A. The mode of the population
B. The raw score only
C. Standard deviation and Z-scores relative to normative data
D. The correlation coefficient between two different tests

16 Which part of the brain is most associated with the deficits measured by the Tower of London test?

A. Occipital Lobe
B. Cerebellum
C. Temporal Lobe
D. Prefrontal Cortex

17 The Boston Naming Test is specifically designed to assess:

A. Confrontation naming and word-retrieval abilities
B. Sentence construction
C. Writing speed
D. Reading comprehension

18 What is the primary characteristic of Vascular Dementia?

A. Slow, insidious onset with primary memory loss
B. Step-wise decline in cognitive function related to cerebrovascular events (strokes)
C. Choreiform movements and psychosis
D. Early onset personality changes and loss of social inhibition

19 Which of the following describes ecological validity in the context of cognitive testing?

A. The extent to which test results predict real-world functioning
B. The correlation between the test and MRI findings
C. The use of environmentally friendly testing materials
D. The statistical reliability of the test across different cultures

20 The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery is notable for:

A. Testing emotional intelligence exclusively
B. Being a fixed battery used to detect brain damage and lateralization of defects
C. Its heavy reliance on qualitative observation only
D. Being a quick 10-minute screen

21 In the assessment of memory, anterograde amnesia refers to:

A. Loss of memories formed before the injury
B. Loss of procedural memory only
C. A temporary memory loss due to fatigue
D. Inability to form new memories after the injury

22 What is a Symptom Validity Test (SVT) used for in cognitive assessment?

A. To detect malingering or insufficient effort
B. To validate the credentials of the psychologist
C. To diagnose schizophrenia
D. To measure the severity of a stroke

23 Which subtest of the WAIS-IV measures Working Memory?

A. Matrix Reasoning
B. Block Design
C. Symbol Search
D. Digit Span

24 The Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure Test assesses which combination of skills?

A. Social cognition and empathy
B. Auditory discrimination and pitch
C. Verbal memory and language
D. Visuospatial construction and non-verbal memory

25 Which of the following causes of cognitive dysfunction is typically considered degenerative?

A. Viral Encephalitis
B. Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
C. Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)
D. Alzheimer's Disease

26 When assessing a patient from a different cultural background, a psychologist must be wary of cultural bias. This refers to:

A. The lack of translation services
B. The test being too short
C. The patient disliking the psychologist
D. The test items measuring cultural knowledge rather than cognitive ability

27 Which of the following is a symptom of Frontotemporal Dementia (FTD)?

A. Severe tremors
B. Visual hallucinations early in the disease
C. Significant changes in personality, behavior, and language
D. Early loss of episodic memory

28 What is confabulation?

A. Refusal to speak
B. Repeating words spoken by others
C. The production of fabricated, distorted, or misinterpreted memories without the conscious intention to deceive
D. Deliberate lying to hide a crime

29 The Clock Drawing Test is a simple tool used to screen for:

A. Reading speed
B. Hearing loss
C. Visuospatial and executive dysfunction
D. Color blindness

30 Which of the following is an application of cognitive assessment in a legal setting?

A. Measuring physical strength
B. Assessing competency to stand trial
C. Determining the correct medication dosage
D. Identifying suitable hobbies for the patient

31 Which neurotransmitter is most significantly depleted in Alzheimer's Disease, leading to the use of cholinesterase inhibitors?

A. Dopamine
B. GABA
C. Serotonin
D. Acetylcholine

32 The Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery differs from the Halstead-Reitan in that it:

A. Is flexible and allows for qualitative analysis alongside quantitative scoring
B. Does not measure motor skills
C. Is much longer to administer
D. Is only for children

33 What is the phenomenon called when a patient with a disability is unaware of their own deficits?

A. Anosognosia
B. Aphasia
C. Alexia
D. Prosopagnosia

34 In the context of Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI), a coup-contrecoup injury refers to:

A. Injury to the spinal cord only
B. A penetrating injury from a bullet
C. A purely chemical injury
D. Injury at the site of impact and on the opposite side of the brain due to rebound

35 Which assessment focuses on the speed of information processing and visual scanning?

A. Symbol Digit Modalities Test (SDMT)
B. Hooper Visual Organization Test
C. California Verbal Learning Test
D. Boston Diagnostic Aphasia Examination

36 Pseudo-dementia refers to cognitive deficits caused by:

A. Brain Tumor
B. Severe Depression
C. Stroke
D. Meningitis

37 When providing feedback on cognitive tests to a patient with mild impairment, an ethical psychologist should:

A. Lie about the results to prevent patient anxiety
B. Use complex medical jargon to maintain professionalism
C. Provide the feedback in clear, understandable language and discuss implications
D. Mail the results without explanation to save time

38 The Wechsler Memory Scale (WMS-IV) typically includes indices for:

A. Kinesthetic processing
B. Auditory Memory, Visual Memory, Visual Working Memory
C. Emotional Stability and Agreeableness
D. Verbal Comprehension and Perceptual Reasoning

39 Which of the following is an example of a Verbal Fluency task?

A. Naming as many animals as possible in one minute
B. Reading a paragraph aloud
C. Defining the word 'Procrastinate'
D. Reciting the alphabet backwards

40 Which area of the brain is primarily assessed by tasks requiring the patient to distinguish between right and left, and calculate simple math problems?

A. Right Temporal Lobe
B. Left Parietal Lobe
C. Frontal Lobe
D. Brainstem

41 In cognitive testing, crystallized intelligence refers to:

A. Short-term memory capacity
B. Accumulated knowledge and verbal skills
C. Processing speed
D. The ability to solve novel problems

42 If a patient scores on a memory test, what percentile range does this roughly correspond to?

A. High Average (84th percentile)
B. Average (50th percentile)
C. Low Average (16th percentile)
D. Extremely Low (< 1st percentile)

43 The Rivermead Behavioural Memory Test is designed to:

A. Measure IQ
B. Predict everyday memory problems
C. Assess unconscious desires
D. Test reflex speed

44 A specific learning disability affecting reading accuracy, fluency, and comprehension is known as:

A. Dysgraphia
B. Dyspraxia
C. Dyslexia
D. Dyscalculia

45 When assessing an elderly patient, the practice effect refers to:

A. The anxiety caused by the testing environment
B. The benefit of practicing relaxation techniques
C. The decline in scores due to fatigue
D. Improvement in test scores due to prior exposure to the test

46 Which of the following describes Broca's Aphasia?

A. Non-fluent, effortful speech with relatively preserved comprehension
B. Inability to write
C. Total loss of ability to understand language
D. Fluent speech that lacks meaning (word salad)

47 The Glaser Coma Scale (GCS) is used to:

A. Diagnose depression
B. Assess long-term memory
C. Measure intelligence in comatose patients
D. Assess the level of consciousness after acute brain injury

48 In rehabilitation planning, cognitive assessment helps to:

A. Prescribe psychiatric medication
B. Determine if the patient should be institutionalized immediately
C. Diagnose physical broken bones
D. Identify spared cognitive strengths to compensate for deficits

49 What is the primary cognitive deficit in Huntington's Disease?

A. Rapid memory loss
B. Visual agnosia
C. Aphasia
D. Psychomotor slowing and executive dysfunction

50 The Continuous Performance Test (CPT) is most often used to assist in the diagnosis of:

A. ADHD (Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder)
B. Dyslexia
C. Anxiety
D. Bipolar Disorder