Introduction to Identity and Access management
Easy
A.The physical servers in a data center
B.Who can access resources and what they can do
C.The speed of your network connection
D.The billing cycle of your account
Correct Answer: Who can access resources and what they can do
Explanation:
IAM (Identity and Access Management) controls authentication (who can sign in) and authorization (what actions they are allowed to perform) for AWS resources.
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2Which of the following is an IAM identity used to group users and assign common permissions?
Introduction to Identity and Access management
Easy
A.IAM Group
B.IAM Gateway
C.IAM Region
D.IAM Zone
Correct Answer: IAM Group
Explanation:
An IAM Group is a collection of IAM users, letting you attach a single set of permissions to many users at once.
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3What is the best practice regarding the AWS account root user?
Protecting AWS credentials
Easy
A.Share it with all team members
B.Disable all logging for it
C.Use it for all daily operations
D.Avoid using it for everyday tasks and enable MFA
Correct Answer: Avoid using it for everyday tasks and enable MFA
Explanation:
The root user has unrestricted access, so it should be protected with MFA and reserved for only the few tasks that require it.
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4What does MFA stand for in the context of securing AWS credentials?
Protecting AWS credentials
Easy
A.Multiple File Access
B.Managed Firewall Access
C.Multi-Factor Authentication
D.Monitored Function Audit
Correct Answer: Multi-Factor Authentication
Explanation:
MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication) adds an extra verification step beyond a password, improving credential security.
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5Fine-grained authorization in AWS is primarily achieved using which element?
Fine-grained Authorization
Easy
A.S3 buckets
B.IAM policies
C.VPC subnets
D.EC2 instances
Correct Answer: IAM policies
Explanation:
IAM policies define specific permissions, allowing fine-grained control over which actions can be performed on which resources.
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6In an IAM policy, what does the Effect element typically specify?
Fine-grained Authorization
Easy
A.The cost of the action
B.The region of the request
C.Whether to Allow or Deny access
D.The size of the resource
Correct Answer: Whether to Allow or Deny access
Explanation:
The Effect element in an IAM policy statement is set to either Allow or Deny to determine the outcome of a request.
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7What is the purpose of an IAM permission boundary?
Permission Boundaries
Easy
A.To grant unlimited access to a user
B.To store encryption keys
C.To delete unused IAM roles
D.To set the maximum permissions an identity can have
Correct Answer: To set the maximum permissions an identity can have
Explanation:
A permission boundary defines the maximum permissions an IAM entity can be granted; actual access is the intersection of the boundary and its policies.
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8A permission boundary is attached to which type of IAM entity?
Permission Boundaries
Easy
A.S3 objects
B.IAM users and roles
C.CloudWatch alarms
D.VPC gateways
Correct Answer: IAM users and roles
Explanation:
Permission boundaries are advanced features applied to IAM users and roles to limit their maximum permissions.
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9What is a key characteristic of an IAM role?
Roles
Easy
A.It stores billing information
B.It uses a permanent password only
C.It can only be used by the root user
D.It provides temporary credentials and can be assumed
Correct Answer: It provides temporary credentials and can be assumed
Explanation:
IAM roles grant temporary security credentials and can be assumed by users, applications, or AWS services as needed.
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10Which scenario is a common use of an IAM role?
Roles
Easy
A.Allowing an EC2 instance to access an S3 bucket
B.Increasing the CPU of a server
C.Changing the AWS region
D.Paying the monthly AWS bill
Correct Answer: Allowing an EC2 instance to access an S3 bucket
Explanation:
IAM roles let AWS services like EC2 obtain temporary credentials to access other services such as S3 without storing long-term keys.
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11Which policy type is used to centrally manage permissions across accounts in an AWS Organization?
Enforcing Service-Level Protection
Easy
A.Route tables
B.Launch templates
C.Service Control Policies (SCPs)
D.Security Group rules
Correct Answer: Service Control Policies (SCPs)
Explanation:
Service Control Policies (SCPs) set permission guardrails that apply across accounts within an AWS Organization.
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12What is the main goal of detective controls in cloud security?
Detective Controls
Easy
A.To physically build data centers
B.To identify and log security events
C.To write application code
D.To design website layouts
Correct Answer: To identify and log security events
Explanation:
Detective controls monitor, log, and alert on activity so that security issues can be identified and investigated.
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13What does AWS CloudTrail primarily record?
CloudTrail
Easy
A.The color of the console
B.Website visitor demographics
C.API calls and account activity
D.The temperature of servers
Correct Answer: API calls and account activity
Explanation:
CloudTrail logs API calls and account activity, providing an audit trail of who did what and when in your AWS account.
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14Amazon CloudWatch Logs is mainly used to:
CloudWatch Logs
Easy
A.Launch EC2 instances
B.Create IAM users
C.Collect and store log data from resources
D.Encrypt S3 buckets automatically
Correct Answer: Collect and store log data from resources
Explanation:
CloudWatch Logs centralizes log data from AWS resources and applications for monitoring, storage, and analysis.
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15Amazon Athena allows you to query data stored in Amazon S3 using which language?
searching Logs with Athena
Easy
A.YAML
B.Python only
C.Standard SQL
D.HTML
Correct Answer: Standard SQL
Explanation:
Athena is a serverless, interactive query service that lets you analyze data in S3 (such as logs) using standard SQL.
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16Which AWS service is used to assess, audit, and track resource configurations over time?
Auditing Resource Configuration
Easy
A.Amazon Route 53
B.AWS Config
C.Amazon SNS
D.AWS Lambda
Correct Answer: AWS Config
Explanation:
AWS Config records and evaluates the configuration of your AWS resources, helping with auditing and compliance.
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17What is Amazon GuardDuty?
Amazon GaurdDuty
Easy
A.A threat detection service
B.A content delivery network
C.A database engine
D.A code editor
Correct Answer: A threat detection service
Explanation:
Amazon GuardDuty is a managed threat detection service that continuously monitors for malicious activity and unauthorized behavior.
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18Amazon Inspector is primarily used to:
Amazon Inspector
Easy
A.Store large files
B.Manage DNS records
C.Send email notifications
D.Scan workloads for software vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: Scan workloads for software vulnerabilities
Explanation:
Amazon Inspector automatically scans EC2 instances and container images for software vulnerabilities and unintended network exposure.
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19What is the main purpose of Amazon Detective?
Amazon Detective
Easy
A.To provision virtual networks
B.To analyze and investigate security findings
C.To compress data
D.To host static websites
Correct Answer: To analyze and investigate security findings
Explanation:
Amazon Detective helps you analyze, investigate, and identify the root cause of security findings and suspicious activities.
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20AWS Security Hub provides which of the following?
Security Hub
Easy
A.A central view of security alerts and compliance status
B.A managed relational database
C.A tool to design user interfaces
D.A video streaming platform
Correct Answer: A central view of security alerts and compliance status
Explanation:
Security Hub aggregates security findings from multiple AWS services into a single, centralized dashboard.
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21A developer needs to grant an application running on an EC2 instance temporary access to an S3 bucket without embedding long-term credentials. Which IAM feature best fits this requirement?
Introduction to Identity and Access management
Medium
A.Add the instance to an IAM group with S3 permissions
B.Attach an IAM role to the EC2 instance
C.Create an IAM user and store its access keys on the instance
D.Enable MFA on the root account
Correct Answer: Attach an IAM role to the EC2 instance
Explanation:
IAM roles provide temporary, automatically rotated credentials to EC2 instances, eliminating the need to store long-term access keys. This is the recommended pattern for application access to AWS services.
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22An organization wants to reduce the risk associated with the AWS account root user. Which combination of actions is the most appropriate best practice?
Protecting AWS credentials
Medium
A.Delete the root user after creating admin IAM users
B.Create long-term root access keys for automation scripts
C.Share the root password among senior admins and disable MFA
D.Enable MFA on the root user and use IAM users/roles for daily tasks
Correct Answer: Enable MFA on the root user and use IAM users/roles for daily tasks
Explanation:
The root user should be protected with MFA and used only for tasks that require it. Daily operations should use IAM users or roles with least-privilege permissions. The root user cannot be deleted.
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23You want an IAM policy to allow a user to access only objects within an S3 prefix matching their username. Which IAM feature enables this dynamic condition?
Fine-grained Authorization
Medium
A.Policy variables such as ${aws:username}
B.Resource-based bucket ACLs
C.An IAM group hierarchy
D.A permissions boundary
Correct Answer: Policy variables such as ${aws:username}
Explanation:
IAM policy variables let you insert request context values (like ${aws:username}) into resource ARNs, enabling fine-grained, per-user authorization within a single policy.
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24A team lead attaches a permissions boundary allowing only S3 and DynamoDB actions to an IAM user. The user also has an identity policy granting full EC2 access. What can the user actually do?
Permission Boundaries
Medium
A.All S3, DynamoDB, and EC2 actions combined
B.Full EC2 access, because identity policies override boundaries
C.Only S3 and DynamoDB actions, since effective permissions are the intersection
D.Nothing, because the two policies conflict
Correct Answer: Only S3 and DynamoDB actions, since effective permissions are the intersection
Explanation:
A permissions boundary sets the maximum permissions an identity can have. The effective permissions are the intersection of the identity policy and the boundary, so only S3 and DynamoDB actions are allowed.
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25An application in Account A needs to read data from an S3 bucket in Account B. What is the standard AWS mechanism to achieve this cross-account access?
Roles
Medium
A.Account B creates a role that Account A's principal can assume via STS
B.Both accounts enable the root user access keys
C.Account A shares its IAM user credentials with Account B
D.Account B copies its IAM users into Account A
Correct Answer: Account B creates a role that Account A's principal can assume via STS
Explanation:
Cross-account access is implemented by creating a role in the resource account (B) with a trust policy allowing the principal in Account A to assume it. The principal uses sts:AssumeRole to obtain temporary credentials.
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26Which AWS Organizations feature lets you centrally restrict the maximum permissions available to all IAM users and roles across member accounts?
Enforcing Service-Level Protection
Medium
A.Service Control Policies (SCPs)
B.IAM identity policies
C.Resource-based policies
D.Access control lists (ACLs)
Correct Answer: Service Control Policies (SCPs)
Explanation:
SCPs are applied at the organization or OU level and define the maximum available permissions for accounts. They act as a guardrail but do not themselves grant permissions.
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27A security team wants to detect suspicious activity after it occurs, rather than preventing it. Which category of controls are they implementing?
Detective Controls
Medium
A.Corrective controls
B.Preventive controls
C.Deterrent controls
D.Detective controls
Correct Answer: Detective controls
Explanation:
Detective controls identify and record security events as or after they occur, enabling investigation and response. Examples include CloudTrail, Config, and GuardDuty.
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28An auditor needs to determine which API call deleted a specific EC2 instance and who made it. Which service provides this information?
CloudTrail
Medium
A.AWS Config rules
B.AWS CloudTrail
C.Amazon Inspector
D.Amazon CloudWatch metrics
Correct Answer: AWS CloudTrail
Explanation:
CloudTrail records API activity across the account, capturing the identity of the caller, the action, the time, and the affected resources—ideal for auditing who performed a specific operation.
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29You want to trigger an alarm when the word ERROR appears more than 5 times per minute in your application logs. Which CloudWatch Logs feature should you use?
CloudWatch Logs
Medium
A.An Athena saved query
B.An S3 lifecycle policy
C.A metric filter that converts log events into a CloudWatch metric
D.A CloudTrail trail with log file validation
Correct Answer: A metric filter that converts log events into a CloudWatch metric
Explanation:
CloudWatch Logs metric filters extract values or count occurrences of patterns (like ERROR) and publish them as metrics, which can then trigger CloudWatch alarms.
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30A company stores large volumes of CloudTrail logs in S3 and wants to run ad-hoc SQL queries over them without provisioning servers. Which service is most appropriate?
searching Logs with Athena
Medium
A.Amazon Athena
B.AWS Glue DataBrew
C.Amazon RDS
D.Amazon Redshift Spectrum clusters
Correct Answer: Amazon Athena
Explanation:
Athena is a serverless, interactive query service that uses standard SQL to analyze data directly in S3, making it ideal for ad-hoc querying of CloudTrail logs without managing infrastructure.
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31A compliance officer wants to be notified whenever an S3 bucket is changed to allow public access, and to see how its configuration evolved over time. Which service best meets this need?
Auditing Resource Configuration
Medium
A.Amazon Macie
B.AWS Config
C.Amazon GuardDuty
D.AWS CloudTrail
Correct Answer: AWS Config
Explanation:
AWS Config continuously records resource configurations and evaluates them against rules. It maintains a configuration history and can alert on non-compliant changes such as a bucket becoming public.
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32Which data sources does Amazon GuardDuty analyze to detect threats such as crypto-mining or communication with malicious IPs?
Amazon GaurdDuty
Medium
A.Only CloudWatch custom metrics
B.EC2 instance memory dumps
C.VPC Flow Logs, DNS logs, and CloudTrail events
D.S3 object contents directly
Correct Answer: VPC Flow Logs, DNS logs, and CloudTrail events
Explanation:
GuardDuty continuously analyzes VPC Flow Logs, DNS query logs, and CloudTrail management/data events using machine learning and threat intelligence to detect malicious or unauthorized behavior.
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33A DevOps team wants automated scanning of EC2 instances and container images for software vulnerabilities (CVEs) and unintended network exposure. Which service should they enable?
Amazon Inspector
Medium
A.Amazon GuardDuty
B.Amazon Detective
C.Amazon Inspector
D.AWS Config
Correct Answer: Amazon Inspector
Explanation:
Amazon Inspector automatically assesses EC2 instances, container images in ECR, and Lambda functions for known software vulnerabilities (CVEs) and unintended network reachability.
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34After GuardDuty raises a finding, an analyst needs to visualize linked events and understand the root cause across resources. Which service is purpose-built for this investigation?
Amazon Detective
Medium
A.Amazon Inspector
B.Amazon Detective
C.AWS Trusted Advisor
D.AWS Config
Correct Answer: Amazon Detective
Explanation:
Amazon Detective automatically collects and correlates log data to build visualizations that help analysts investigate the root cause and scope of security findings, such as those from GuardDuty.
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35An organization uses GuardDuty, Inspector, and Macie and wants a single dashboard that aggregates findings and checks against standards like CIS AWS Foundations. Which service provides this?
Security Hub
Medium
A.AWS Security Hub
B.AWS Config
C.Amazon Detective
D.Amazon CloudWatch
Correct Answer: AWS Security Hub
Explanation:
Security Hub aggregates and normalizes findings from multiple AWS security services and performs automated compliance checks against standards such as the CIS AWS Foundations Benchmark, all in one place.
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36A web server in a public subnet must accept HTTPS traffic but should not initiate outbound connections except for OS updates. Which statement about security groups is correct for this design?
Protecting Network Boundaries
Medium
A.Security groups filter traffic at the subnet level
B.Security groups are stateless and require explicit outbound rules for responses
C.Security groups can block traffic using explicit deny rules
D.Security groups are stateful, so allowing inbound HTTPS automatically permits the response traffic
Correct Answer: Security groups are stateful, so allowing inbound HTTPS automatically permits the response traffic
Explanation:
Security groups are stateful: if inbound traffic is allowed, the return traffic is automatically permitted regardless of outbound rules. Network ACLs, by contrast, are stateless and operate at the subnet level.
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37Which AWS component is stateless, operates at the subnet boundary, and supports explicit deny rules?
Protecting Network Boundaries
Medium
A.Security group
B.IAM policy
C.Network ACL
D.Route table
Correct Answer: Network ACL
Explanation:
Network ACLs are stateless subnet-level filters that evaluate numbered rules in order and support both allow and explicit deny rules. Security groups are stateful and support only allow rules.
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38A team must ensure that data stored in an S3 bucket is encrypted at rest using keys they can audit and control the rotation of. Which approach fits best?
Data Encryption
Medium
A.Server-side encryption with AWS KMS customer managed keys (SSE-KMS)
B.Client-side hashing of objects before upload
C.Disabling encryption and relying on bucket policies
D.Server-side encryption with Amazon S3 managed keys (SSE-S3) only
SSE-KMS with customer managed keys gives control over key policies, rotation, and provides CloudTrail auditing of key usage, meeting requirements for auditable and controllable encryption.
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39In AWS KMS envelope encryption, how is a large data object typically encrypted efficiently?
Data Encryption
Medium
A.Each byte is encrypted separately by KMS over the network
B.The KMS master key directly encrypts the entire object
C.A plaintext data key encrypts the data, and KMS encrypts the data key
D.The data is encrypted with the user's IAM password
Correct Answer: A plaintext data key encrypts the data, and KMS encrypts the data key
Explanation:
Envelope encryption uses a data key to encrypt the data locally for performance, while the KMS master key encrypts (wraps) that data key. The encrypted data key is stored alongside the ciphertext.
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40An IAM policy contains both an Allow for s3:* and an explicit Deny for s3:DeleteObject. What is the net effect when the user tries to delete an object?
Fine-grained Authorization
Medium
A.The request is allowed only with MFA
B.The request is denied, because an explicit deny always overrides an allow
C.The request is allowed, because s3:* includes delete
D.The policy is invalid and will be rejected
Correct Answer: The request is denied, because an explicit deny always overrides an allow
Explanation:
In IAM policy evaluation, an explicit Deny always takes precedence over any Allow. Even though s3:* grants delete, the explicit deny on s3:DeleteObject blocks the action.
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41An IAM policy grants s3:GetObject on arn:aws:s3:::reports/* but includes a condition "StringNotEquals": {"aws:PrincipalTag/dept": "finance"} inside a Deny statement. A user tagged dept=finance attempts to read an object. What is the effective result?
Fine-grained Authorization
Hard
A.Access is allowed only if an SCP additionally permits it
B.Access is denied because principal tags cannot be used in S3 conditions
C.Access is denied because any Deny always overrides an Allow
D.Access is allowed because the Deny condition is not met for this user
Correct Answer: Access is allowed because the Deny condition is not met for this user
Explanation:
The Deny statement only triggers when dept is NOT finance. Since the user is finance, the StringNotEquals condition evaluates false, so the Deny does not apply, and the explicit Allow grants access.
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42A developer has an identity-based policy allowing ec2:* and a permission boundary allowing only ec2:DescribeInstances and s3:GetObject. What actions can the developer actually perform?
Permission Boundaries
Hard
A.ec2:DescribeInstances and s3:GetObject
B.No actions, because the policies conflict
C.Only ec2:DescribeInstances
D.All ec2:* actions
Correct Answer: Only ec2:DescribeInstances
Explanation:
Effective permissions are the intersection of the identity policy and the permission boundary. The identity policy grants ec2:* but no S3; the boundary allows ec2:DescribeInstances and s3:GetObject. The intersection is only ec2:DescribeInstances.
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43An EC2 instance uses an instance profile role. An application on it needs to assume a role in another account. Which configuration is required for the cross-account sts:AssumeRole call to succeed?
Roles
Hard
A.The target role's trust policy must trust the instance profile role's ARN, and the instance role must have sts:AssumeRole permission
B.The target account must share its root credentials with the instance
C.The instance profile must be attached in both accounts simultaneously
D.The instance role must be added as an IAM user in the target account
Correct Answer: The target role's trust policy must trust the instance profile role's ARN, and the instance role must have sts:AssumeRole permission
Explanation:
Cross-account role assumption requires two things: the trusting (target) role's trust policy must list the source principal, and the source principal must have an identity policy allowing sts:AssumeRole on the target role.
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44Which approach best eliminates long-lived AWS credentials for an on-premises application that must call AWS APIs?
Protecting AWS credentials
Hard
A.Rotate the access key manually every 24 hours
B.Embed an IAM user access key in an encrypted config file
C.Use IAM Roles Anywhere with X.509 certificates to obtain temporary credentials
D.Store the secret key in environment variables on the host
Correct Answer: Use IAM Roles Anywhere with X.509 certificates to obtain temporary credentials
Explanation:
IAM Roles Anywhere lets on-premises workloads use X.509 certificates from a trusted CA to obtain temporary STS credentials, removing the need for any long-lived access keys.
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45You need an immutable, tamper-evident record of all management events across every region, including validation that logs were not altered. Which CloudTrail configuration achieves this?
CloudTrail
Hard
A.A multi-region trail with log file integrity validation enabled and S3 Object Lock on the bucket
B.A data event trail limited to the primary region
C.A single-region trail with server-side encryption only
D.CloudWatch Logs subscription with a 7-day retention
Correct Answer: A multi-region trail with log file integrity validation enabled and S3 Object Lock on the bucket
Explanation:
A multi-region trail captures all regions, log file integrity validation produces signed digest files to detect tampering, and S3 Object Lock enforces immutability (WORM), together providing a tamper-evident audit trail.
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46When querying CloudTrail logs stored in S3 with Athena, which practice most reduces query cost and scan time for queries filtered by date?
searching Logs with Athena
Hard
A.Convert all logs to a single uncompressed CSV file
B.Run SELECT * and filter results in the client
C.Store logs in a single S3 prefix without partitioning
D.Create a partitioned table (e.g., by region/year/month/day) so Athena prunes partitions
Correct Answer: Create a partitioned table (e.g., by region/year/month/day) so Athena prunes partitions
Explanation:
Athena charges by data scanned. Partitioning by date lets Athena prune irrelevant partitions, scanning only matching data, which dramatically reduces both cost and query time.
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47GuardDuty raises a finding that an EC2 instance is communicating with a known cryptomining domain. Which data source did GuardDuty most likely analyze to detect this?
Amazon GaurdDuty
Hard
A.IAM credential reports
B.VPC Flow Logs and DNS query logs
C.CloudFormation drift reports
D.S3 server access logs
Correct Answer: VPC Flow Logs and DNS query logs
Explanation:
GuardDuty analyzes VPC Flow Logs, DNS logs, and CloudTrail events. Communication with a malicious domain is detected through DNS query logs and network traffic patterns in VPC Flow Logs.
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48Which statement best distinguishes Amazon Inspector from Amazon GuardDuty?
B.Inspector monitors real-time network traffic, while GuardDuty scans for CVEs
C.Inspector analyzes CloudTrail logs, while GuardDuty scans EC2 for software CVEs
D.Inspector assesses vulnerabilities and unintended network exposure in workloads, while GuardDuty detects active threats via log analysis
Correct Answer: Inspector assesses vulnerabilities and unintended network exposure in workloads, while GuardDuty detects active threats via log analysis
Explanation:
Inspector performs vulnerability assessments (software CVEs, network reachability) on EC2, ECR, and Lambda. GuardDuty is a threat-detection service analyzing logs for malicious or anomalous activity.
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49A security analyst has a GuardDuty finding and needs to understand the root cause and scope by visualizing related entities and behavior over time. Which service is purpose-built for this investigation?
Amazon Detective
Hard
A.Amazon Detective
B.Amazon Inspector
C.AWS Config
D.Amazon Macie
Correct Answer: Amazon Detective
Explanation:
Amazon Detective automatically builds a linked graph of resources, users, and activity from log data, enabling analysts to investigate and determine the root cause and scope of security findings.
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50An organization wants a single pane of glass that aggregates findings from GuardDuty, Inspector, and Macie and measures compliance against CIS benchmarks. Which service provides this?
Security Hub
Hard
A.Amazon Detective
B.AWS Config aggregator alone
C.AWS CloudTrail
D.AWS Security Hub
Correct Answer: AWS Security Hub
Explanation:
Security Hub aggregates and normalizes findings from multiple AWS security services into the ASFF format and runs automated compliance checks against standards like CIS AWS Foundations and PCI DSS.
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51You must detect whenever an S3 bucket's public access configuration changes and automatically remediate it. Which combination accomplishes continuous configuration auditing with remediation?
Auditing Resource Configuration
Hard
A.CloudTrail trail with manual review
B.AWS Config rule with an automatic remediation action via SSM Automation
C.Athena query run weekly
D.GuardDuty finding with no action
Correct Answer: AWS Config rule with an automatic remediation action via SSM Automation
Explanation:
AWS Config continuously evaluates resource configurations against rules and can trigger SSM Automation documents to automatically remediate non-compliant resources, such as removing public access from a bucket.
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52An application uses envelope encryption with AWS KMS. Which statement correctly describes how the data key is handled?
Data Encryption
Hard
A.The CMK plaintext material is exported to the client for local encryption
B.The plaintext data key is stored permanently alongside the ciphertext
C.KMS generates a plaintext data key and an encrypted copy; the plaintext encrypts data and is then discarded, keeping only the encrypted key
D.KMS encrypts the entire payload directly with the CMK regardless of size
Correct Answer: KMS generates a plaintext data key and an encrypted copy; the plaintext encrypts data and is then discarded, keeping only the encrypted key
Explanation:
In envelope encryption, KMS returns both a plaintext and an encrypted data key. The plaintext key encrypts the data locally then is discarded from memory; only the encrypted data key is stored. CMK material never leaves KMS.
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53A security group allows inbound HTTPS from 0.0.0.0/0, and a network ACL denies inbound from a malicious 203.0.113.0/24. Traffic arrives from that CIDR. What happens?
Protecting Network Boundaries
Hard
A.Traffic is blocked because NACLs are evaluated before security groups at the subnet boundary
B.Traffic is allowed because NACLs only filter outbound
C.Traffic is allowed because security groups override NACLs
D.Traffic is blocked only if the security group also denies it
Correct Answer: Traffic is blocked because NACLs are evaluated before security groups at the subnet boundary
Explanation:
NACLs operate at the subnet level and are evaluated before traffic reaches the instance's security group. An explicit NACL deny for the CIDR blocks the packet regardless of the security group's allow rule.
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54Which mechanism enforces that no IAM principal in any account of an AWS Organization can disable CloudTrail, even if they have administrator permissions?
Enforcing Service-Level Protection
Hard
A.An IAM permission boundary on each user
B.A resource-based policy on the trail
C.A GuardDuty suppression rule
D.A Service Control Policy denying cloudtrail:StopLogging and cloudtrail:DeleteTrail
Correct Answer: A Service Control Policy denying cloudtrail:StopLogging and cloudtrail:DeleteTrail
Explanation:
SCPs set the maximum permissions for accounts in an Organization. A deny SCP overrides even administrator identity policies, preventing any principal from stopping or deleting CloudTrail.
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55A request is evaluated with an identity-based Allow, a resource-based Allow, an SCP that does not mention the action, and a permission boundary that does not include the action. What is the result for an IAM user in the same account?
Introduction to Identity and Access management
Hard
A.Allowed, because the resource-based policy grants it
B.Denied, because the action is outside the permission boundary
C.Denied, because the SCP is silent
D.Allowed, because the identity policy grants it
Correct Answer: Denied, because the action is outside the permission boundary
Explanation:
For an IAM user, the permission boundary caps effective permissions. If the boundary does not include the action, access is denied even though identity and resource policies allow it. (An explicit allow must appear within every applicable boundary and SCP.)
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56You want to trigger an alarm when the string UnauthorizedOperation appears more than 3 times in 5 minutes in application logs sent to CloudWatch Logs. Which approach works?
CloudWatch Logs
Hard
A.Set the log group retention to 5 minutes
B.Query the logs manually with Athena every 5 minutes
C.Create a metric filter that increments a custom metric, then a CloudWatch alarm on that metric
D.Enable CloudTrail data events on the log group
Correct Answer: Create a metric filter that increments a custom metric, then a CloudWatch alarm on that metric
Explanation:
A CloudWatch Logs metric filter matches a pattern and publishes a numeric metric. A CloudWatch alarm on that metric with a threshold and period triggers notifications when the count exceeds the limit.
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57An organization must retain full control over the key lifecycle and be able to prove keys were generated in hardware they manage. Which KMS key option fits best?
Data Encryption
Hard
A.A default KMS CMK with automatic rotation
B.An AWS managed key
C.A custom key store backed by AWS CloudHSM
D.An S3-managed key (SSE-S3)
Correct Answer: A custom key store backed by AWS CloudHSM
Explanation:
A KMS custom key store backed by CloudHSM lets the organization control key material within dedicated HSMs they manage, satisfying strict compliance requirements for hardware-based key custody.
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58Which classification correctly groups these controls: CloudTrail, Config, and GuardDuty?
Detective Controls
Hard
A.They are detective controls that identify and record events or deviations after they occur
B.They are corrective controls that automatically fix issues
C.They are directive controls that document policy
D.They are preventive controls that block actions before they happen
Correct Answer: They are detective controls that identify and record events or deviations after they occur
Explanation:
CloudTrail (activity logging), Config (configuration tracking), and GuardDuty (threat detection) all observe and record activity to detect issues, making them detective controls rather than preventive.
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59An S3 bucket policy allows access only when aws:SourceVpce equals a specific VPC endpoint ID. A user with full S3 admin IAM permissions accesses the bucket over the public internet. What happens?
Fine-grained Authorization
Hard
A.Access is denied only if an SCP also restricts it
B.Access is allowed because aws:SourceVpce only applies to writes
C.Access is denied because the bucket policy condition is not satisfied
D.Access is allowed because IAM admin permissions override bucket policies
Correct Answer: Access is denied because the bucket policy condition is not satisfied
Explanation:
The bucket policy's condition requires the request to originate from the specified VPC endpoint. A request from the public internet lacks the matching aws:SourceVpce value, so the resource policy's condition fails and access is denied regardless of IAM permissions.
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60A Lambda function assumes an execution role. The role's trust policy specifies lambda.amazonaws.com as principal, but the function fails with an access error when writing to DynamoDB. Where is the problem most likely located?
Roles
Hard
A.In the role's permissions (identity) policy, which lacks DynamoDB write actions
B.In the function's reserved concurrency setting
C.In the DynamoDB resource policy, which must trust Lambda service
D.In the trust policy, which must list DynamoDB as a principal
Correct Answer: In the role's permissions (identity) policy, which lacks DynamoDB write actions
Explanation:
The trust policy only governs who can assume the role (here, Lambda service, correctly configured). Permissions to call DynamoDB come from the role's attached permissions policy; a missing dynamodb:PutItem/UpdateItem grant causes the access error.
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