1What is the primary function of the Domain Name System (DNS)?
Introduction to Domain Name System (AWS)
Easy
A.Blocking malicious network traffic
B.Translating human-readable domain names into IP addresses
C.Encrypting data sent over the internet
D.Storing website files on servers
Correct Answer: Translating human-readable domain names into IP addresses
Explanation:
DNS acts like a phonebook for the internet, converting domain names such as example.com into numerical IP addresses that computers use to locate each other.
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2Amazon Route 53 is best described as which type of AWS service?
Amazon Route 53
Easy
A.A virtual server hosting service
B.A scalable DNS and domain management service
C.A content moderation service
D.A relational database service
Correct Answer: A scalable DNS and domain management service
Explanation:
Route 53 is AWS's highly available and scalable Domain Name System (DNS) web service, used for domain registration, DNS routing, and health checking.
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3Which Route 53 feature allows you to purchase and manage a new domain name?
Domain Registration
Easy
A.Resolver endpoints
B.Traffic flow
C.Domain registration
D.Health checks
Correct Answer: Domain registration
Explanation:
Route 53 lets you register new domain names directly, after which it automatically configures the DNS settings for that domain.
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4In Route 53, where are DNS records such as A, CNAME, and MX stored?
DNS Management
Easy
A.In a security group
B.In a launch template
C.In a hosted zone
D.In an auto scaling group
Correct Answer: In a hosted zone
Explanation:
A hosted zone is a container that holds the DNS records (A, CNAME, MX, etc.) for a specific domain managed in Route 53.
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5What does a Route 53 health check primarily monitor?
Availability Monitoring
Easy
A.The size of stored data
B.The monthly cost of a service
C.The health and reachability of an endpoint
D.The number of DNS records
Correct Answer: The health and reachability of an endpoint
Explanation:
Route 53 health checks monitor whether an endpoint (such as a web server) is healthy and reachable, allowing traffic to be routed away from unhealthy resources.
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6Which Route 53 routing policy routes traffic based on the geographic location of the user?
Routing Policies
Easy
A.Failover routing
B.Multivalue answer routing
C.Simple routing
D.Geolocation routing
Correct Answer: Geolocation routing
Explanation:
Geolocation routing directs traffic based on the geographic location of the user making the DNS query, useful for localizing content or complying with regional rules.
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7Which routing policy is used to send traffic to a backup resource when the primary becomes unhealthy?
Routing Policies
Easy
A.Weighted routing
B.Failover routing
C.Simple routing
D.Latency routing
Correct Answer: Failover routing
Explanation:
Failover routing uses health checks to send traffic to a primary resource and automatically switches to a secondary (backup) resource if the primary is unhealthy.
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8What is the main benefit of Route 53 Traffic Flow?
Traffic Flow provides a visual editor to create and manage complex combinations of routing policies through reusable traffic policies.
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9What is the main purpose of Route 53 Resolver?
Route 53 Resolver
Easy
A.Compressing images for faster delivery
B.Backing up EBS volumes
C.Resolving DNS queries between on-premises networks and AWS VPCs
D.Registering new domain names
Correct Answer: Resolving DNS queries between on-premises networks and AWS VPCs
Explanation:
Route 53 Resolver enables DNS query resolution between your on-premises environment and AWS VPCs using inbound and outbound endpoints.
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10Amazon CloudFront is primarily used as which type of service?
Amazon CloudFront
Easy
A.A DNS registration tool
B.A content delivery network (CDN)
C.A block storage service
D.A relational database
Correct Answer: A content delivery network (CDN)
Explanation:
CloudFront is a CDN that caches content at edge locations around the world to deliver data to users with low latency and high transfer speeds.
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11What are the globally distributed caching points used by CloudFront called?
Amazon CloudFront
Easy
A.Edge locations
B.Launch templates
C.Availability zones
D.Hosted zones
Correct Answer: Edge locations
Explanation:
CloudFront caches copies of content at edge locations near end users, reducing latency by serving content from the closest point.
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12If a system has an availability of 99.9%, approximately how much downtime is allowed per year?
Calculating Availability
Easy
A.About 8.77 hours
B.About 5 minutes
C.About 87 hours
D.About 36 days
Correct Answer: About 8.77 hours
Explanation:
An availability of allows roughly hours of downtime per year, calculated as hours.
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13Which characteristic best describes a cloud-native application?
Cloud-Native Application
Easy
A.Designed to take full advantage of cloud scalability and services
B.Must be installed on local desktops
C.Cannot be scaled automatically
D.Only runs on a single physical server
Correct Answer: Designed to take full advantage of cloud scalability and services
Explanation:
Cloud-native applications are built to exploit cloud features like elasticity, managed services, and automatic scaling for resilience and flexibility.
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14What is the main purpose of Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling?
EC2 Auto Scaling
Easy
A.Delivering cached content globally
B.Registering domain names
C.Encrypting EC2 storage volumes
D.Automatically adjusting the number of EC2 instances based on demand
Correct Answer: Automatically adjusting the number of EC2 instances based on demand
Explanation:
EC2 Auto Scaling automatically adds or removes instances to match changing demand, improving availability and controlling costs.
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15What does a launch configuration define in EC2 Auto Scaling?
Launch Configuration
Easy
A.The backup schedule for a database
B.The edge locations used by CloudFront
C.The instance settings used to launch new EC2 instances
D.The DNS routing policy for a domain
Correct Answer: The instance settings used to launch new EC2 instances
Explanation:
A launch configuration is a template that specifies the AMI, instance type, key pair, and other settings used when Auto Scaling launches instances.
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16What advantage do launch templates offer over launch configurations?
Launch Templates
Easy
A.Free domain registration
B.Support for versioning and more instance options
C.Automatic image compression
D.Lower DNS query latency
Correct Answer: Support for versioning and more instance options
Explanation:
Launch templates are the newer, recommended option; they support versioning and provide access to more features than launch configurations.
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17What does an Auto Scaling group use to maintain a specified number of instances?
Auto Scaling Groups
Easy
A.A domain registration record
B.Minimum, maximum, and desired capacity settings
C.A CloudFront distribution
D.A single hosted zone
Correct Answer: Minimum, maximum, and desired capacity settings
Explanation:
An Auto Scaling group manages a collection of EC2 instances using minimum, maximum, and desired capacity values to control how many instances run.
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18Which scaling option automatically adjusts capacity based on a target metric like CPU utilization?
Auto Scaling Options
Easy
A.Static scaling
B.Scheduled registration
C.Target tracking scaling
D.Manual scaling
Correct Answer: Target tracking scaling
Explanation:
Target tracking scaling keeps a chosen metric, such as average CPU utilization, close to a target value by adjusting capacity automatically.
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19What is the main purpose of data backup in AWS?
Data Backup and Recovery
Easy
A.To increase network bandwidth
B.To register new domains
C.To reduce DNS query time
D.To restore data in case of loss or corruption
Correct Answer: To restore data in case of loss or corruption
Explanation:
Backups create copies of data so it can be recovered if the original is lost, corrupted, or accidentally deleted.
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20Amazon Elastic File System (EFS) provides which type of storage?
Elastic Files System
Easy
A.A global content cache
B.A relational database engine
C.Block storage attached to a single instance
D.Scalable shared file storage for multiple EC2 instances
Correct Answer: Scalable shared file storage for multiple EC2 instances
Explanation:
EFS is a managed, elastic file system that can be mounted by many EC2 instances at once, scaling automatically as files are added or removed.
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21A user types www.example.com into a browser. Which DNS record type is primarily responsible for returning the IPv4 address that lets the browser reach the server?
Introduction to Domain Name System (AWS)
Medium
A.A record
B.NS record
C.TXT record
D.MX record
Correct Answer: A record
Explanation:
An A record maps a domain name to an IPv4 address. MX records route mail, TXT records hold text data, and NS records identify authoritative name servers.
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22Why is Amazon Route 53 described as a highly available DNS service rather than running on a single server?
Amazon Route 53
Medium
A.It caches every query on the client device permanently
B.It depends on a single region for all resolution
C.It uses a global network of DNS servers across many locations
D.It stores all records in a single large database
Correct Answer: It uses a global network of DNS servers across many locations
Explanation:
Route 53 achieves high availability by distributing DNS resolution across a global anycast network of servers, so no single point of failure exists.
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23A company registers shop.io through Route 53. After registration, which component must be configured so that queries for the domain are answered correctly?
Domain Registration
Medium
A.An EBS snapshot schedule
B.A hosted zone with the appropriate records
C.A new VPC in every region
D.A CloudFront key pair
Correct Answer: A hosted zone with the appropriate records
Explanation:
Registering a domain only reserves the name. A hosted zone holds the DNS records (A, CNAME, MX, etc.) that actually resolve queries for the domain.
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24You need to point blog.example.com to another domain name rather than an IP address. Which record type should you create?
DNS Management
Medium
A.PTR record
B.SOA record
C.CNAME record
D.A record
Correct Answer: CNAME record
Explanation:
A CNAME record aliases one domain name to another domain name. An A record maps to an IP, PTR is for reverse lookups, and SOA holds zone metadata.
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25A Route 53 health check reports an endpoint as unhealthy. What is the most direct effect on DNS responses when failover routing is configured?
Availability Monitoring
Medium
A.Traffic is routed to the healthy secondary endpoint
B.The hosted zone is automatically deleted
C.The domain registration is suspended
D.All records in the zone are disabled
Correct Answer: Traffic is routed to the healthy secondary endpoint
Explanation:
With failover routing, an unhealthy primary endpoint causes Route 53 to respond with the healthy secondary endpoint, keeping the service available.
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26An application must send users to the AWS Region that gives them the lowest network latency. Which Route 53 routing policy best fits this requirement?
Routing Policies
Medium
A.Failover routing
B.Latency-based routing
C.Simple routing
D.Multivalue answer routing
Correct Answer: Latency-based routing
Explanation:
Latency-based routing directs users to the Region that provides the lowest latency for them, improving performance for geographically distributed users.
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27A company wants 80% of traffic to go to a new application version and 20% to the old version for testing. Which routing policy achieves this?
Routing Policies
Medium
A.Geolocation routing
B.Latency-based routing
C.Weighted routing
D.Failover routing
Correct Answer: Weighted routing
Explanation:
Weighted routing assigns proportional weights to records, so you can split traffic (e.g., 80/20) for canary or blue/green style testing.
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28What is the main advantage of using Route 53 Traffic Flow for a complex routing setup?
Traffic Flow
Medium
A.A visual editor to combine multiple routing policies into one configuration
B.It replaces EC2 Auto Scaling
C.It eliminates the need for a hosted zone
D.It provides free SSL certificates
Correct Answer: A visual editor to combine multiple routing policies into one configuration
Explanation:
Traffic Flow offers a visual tool to build and manage policy records that chain together multiple routing policies (latency, weighted, failover, etc.).
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29An on-premises network needs to resolve DNS names for resources inside an AWS VPC. Which Route 53 Resolver feature enables this?
Route 53 Resolver
Medium
A.Launch template
B.CloudFront distribution
C.Outbound-only internet gateway
D.Inbound endpoint
Correct Answer: Inbound endpoint
Explanation:
A Route 53 Resolver inbound endpoint allows DNS queries originating from your on-premises network to resolve records hosted in your VPC.
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30How does Amazon CloudFront reduce latency for users accessing static website content?
Amazon CloudFront
Medium
A.It increases the EC2 instance size automatically
B.It caches content at edge locations close to users
C.It replaces the need for an S3 bucket
D.It stores content only in a single origin region
Correct Answer: It caches content at edge locations close to users
Explanation:
CloudFront is a CDN that caches content at edge locations near end users, reducing the distance data travels and lowering latency.
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31Two components are in series, each with 99% availability. What is the approximate combined availability of the system?
Calculating Availability
Medium
A.100%
B.98.01%
C.99%
D.99.99%
Correct Answer: 98.01%
Explanation:
For components in series, multiply availabilities: . Series dependencies reduce overall availability.
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32Two redundant components in parallel each have 90% availability. What is the approximate combined availability?
Calculating Availability
Medium
A.81%
B.90%
C.99%
D.95%
Correct Answer: 99%
Explanation:
For components in parallel, availability is . Redundancy increases overall availability.
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33Which characteristic best describes a cloud-native application designed for resilience?
Cloud-Native Application
Medium
A.Tightly coupled services sharing one database connection
B.A single large monolith running on one server
C.Loosely coupled, stateless components that scale horizontally
D.Manual scaling performed only during business hours
Correct Answer: Loosely coupled, stateless components that scale horizontally
Explanation:
Cloud-native apps favor loosely coupled, stateless components that can scale out and recover independently, improving resilience and elasticity.
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34An Auto Scaling group is set to maintain a desired capacity of 4 instances. One instance fails a health check. What does EC2 Auto Scaling do?
EC2 Auto Scaling
Medium
A.Terminates the unhealthy instance and launches a replacement
B.Sends only an email alert and takes no action
C.Stops the entire group
D.Reduces the desired capacity to 3
Correct Answer: Terminates the unhealthy instance and launches a replacement
Explanation:
Auto Scaling maintains the desired capacity, so it replaces unhealthy instances by terminating them and launching new ones to keep 4 running.
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35A team wants to update the instance type used by their Auto Scaling group but is using a launch configuration. What limitation will they encounter?
Launch Configuration
Medium
A.Launch configurations only work with spot instances
B.Launch configurations update instances in place automatically
C.Launch configurations cannot specify an AMI
D.Launch configurations are immutable and must be recreated
Correct Answer: Launch configurations are immutable and must be recreated
Explanation:
Launch configurations are immutable — you cannot edit them. To change settings you must create a new one, which is why launch templates are now preferred.
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36Why might an organization choose launch templates over launch configurations for Auto Scaling?
Launch Templates
Medium
A.Launch templates cannot be used with Auto Scaling groups
B.Launch templates support versioning and newer features
C.Launch templates disable health checks
D.Launch templates only support a single instance type
Correct Answer: Launch templates support versioning and newer features
Explanation:
Launch templates support versioning, mixed instance types, and newer EC2 features, making them more flexible than legacy launch configurations.
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37An Auto Scaling group spans three Availability Zones. How does this configuration improve resilience?
Auto Scaling Groups
Medium
A.It doubles the cost without any benefit
B.All instances run in one AZ for faster communication
C.It removes the need for a load balancer
D.Instances are distributed so one AZ failure does not take down the app
Correct Answer: Instances are distributed so one AZ failure does not take down the app
Explanation:
Spreading instances across multiple AZs means a single AZ outage leaves healthy instances running in the other zones, preserving availability.
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38Traffic to an application is highly predictable, peaking every weekday at 9 AM. Which Auto Scaling option best prepares capacity in advance?
Auto Scaling Options
Medium
A.Manual scaling
B.No scaling at all
C.Dynamic target tracking only
D.Scheduled scaling
Correct Answer: Scheduled scaling
Explanation:
Scheduled scaling adds capacity at known times, ideal for predictable patterns like a daily 9 AM peak, so resources are ready before demand arrives.
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39Which approach provides point-in-time recovery for an EBS volume with minimal management overhead?
Data Backup and Recovery
Medium
A.Copying files manually to another EC2 instance
B.Streaming data to a local laptop nightly
C.Keeping only the primary volume with no copies
D.Automated EBS snapshots stored in Amazon S3
Correct Answer: Automated EBS snapshots stored in Amazon S3
Explanation:
EBS snapshots are incremental, stored durably in S3, and can be automated (e.g., via Data Lifecycle Manager) for low-overhead point-in-time recovery.
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40An application running on several EC2 instances across multiple AZs needs a shared file system accessible by all instances simultaneously. Which service fits best?
Elastic Files System
Medium
A.Instance store
B.Amazon CloudFront
C.Amazon EFS
D.A single EBS volume
Correct Answer: Amazon EFS
Explanation:
Amazon EFS provides a shared, elastic file system that multiple instances across AZs can mount concurrently, unlike an EBS volume attached to one instance.
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41A system has two independent components in series: a web tier with availability and a database tier with availability. What is the approximate end-to-end availability of the system?
Calculating Availability
Hard
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:
For components in series, availabilities multiply: , i.e. about . Series dependencies always reduce overall availability below the weakest component.
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42Two redundant servers each with availability are placed in parallel (the service is up if either is up). What is the combined availability?
Calculating Availability
Hard
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:
For parallel redundancy, availability , i.e. . Redundancy multiplies the probability of simultaneous failure, raising availability.
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43A company wants Route 53 to send of traffic to a newly deployed application stack and to the old stack to validate the release before full cutover. Which routing policy is the correct choice?
Routing Policies
Hard
A.Failover routing
B.Latency-based routing
C.Geolocation routing
D.Weighted routing
Correct Answer: Weighted routing
Explanation:
Weighted routing assigns proportional weights to records (e.g. 90/10), making it ideal for canary or blue/green traffic splitting. Latency, failover, and geolocation route by performance, health, or user location rather than fixed proportions.
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44An application must direct users to the endpoint that gives them the lowest network latency, but also must never send traffic to an unhealthy endpoint. Which configuration best satisfies both goals?
Routing Policies
Hard
A.Latency-based routing with health checks associated to each record
B.Geolocation routing with a default record
C.Simple routing with multiple IP values
D.Weighted routing with equal weights
Correct Answer: Latency-based routing with health checks associated to each record
Explanation:
Latency-based routing selects the lowest-latency Region, and attaching health checks ensures unhealthy endpoints are excluded. Simple routing cannot evaluate health, and geolocation/weighted do not optimize for latency.
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45A hybrid architecture needs on-premises servers to resolve records in a private hosted zone, and AWS resources to resolve on-premises DNS names. Which Route 53 Resolver configuration is required?
Route 53 Resolver
Hard
A.Only an outbound endpoint in the VPC
B.Inbound endpoints for on-prem queries into VPC, and outbound endpoints with forwarding rules for queries to on-prem
C.Only an inbound endpoint in the VPC
D.A public hosted zone shared across the VPN
Correct Answer: Inbound endpoints for on-prem queries into VPC, and outbound endpoints with forwarding rules for queries to on-prem
Explanation:
Inbound endpoints let on-premises resolvers query Route 53 (VPC → private zone), while outbound endpoints with forwarding rules send VPC queries to on-premises DNS. Bidirectional hybrid resolution needs both.
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46A dynamic API served through CloudFront is returning stale responses to some users even after the origin updates data. The cache behavior uses a long TTL. Which approach correctly serves fresh dynamic content while still caching static assets?
Amazon CloudFront
Hard
A.Disable CloudFront entirely for the whole distribution
B.Use separate cache behaviors with a TTL of 0 (or appropriate cache keys) for the dynamic path and a long TTL for static paths
C.Set the same long TTL but increase the number of edge locations
D.Switch the origin from S3 to EC2 without changing TTLs
Correct Answer: Use separate cache behaviors with a TTL of 0 (or appropriate cache keys) for the dynamic path and a long TTL for static paths
Explanation:
CloudFront supports path-based cache behaviors. Dynamic paths should use short/zero TTLs or forward relevant headers/cookies, while static assets keep long TTLs. This serves fresh dynamic data without losing caching for static content.
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47An Auto Scaling group uses target tracking on average CPU at . During a sudden spike CPU jumps to but scaling is slow and some instances get overwhelmed. Which combination most directly improves responsiveness to abrupt spikes?
EC2 Auto Scaling
Hard
A.Increase the health check grace period
B.Switch to a lifecycle hook on termination
C.Add a step scaling or predictive scaling policy alongside target tracking to react more aggressively to large deviations
D.Lower the target value to CPU permanently
Correct Answer: Add a step scaling or predictive scaling policy alongside target tracking to react more aggressively to large deviations
Explanation:
Target tracking adjusts gradually. Step scaling adds larger capacity for bigger breaches, and predictive scaling provisions ahead of known patterns. Grace periods and termination hooks do not speed scale-out for spikes.
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48Which capability is available with launch templates but not with launch configurations, making templates the recommended choice?
Launch Templates
Hard
A.Versioning and support for mixed instance types / Spot and On-Demand within one group
B.Ability to specify an AMI ID
C.Ability to set a security group
D.Ability to specify a key pair
Correct Answer: Versioning and support for mixed instance types / Spot and On-Demand within one group
Explanation:
Launch templates support versioning, multiple instance types, and mixed Spot/On-Demand purchasing within an Auto Scaling group. Launch configurations are immutable, single-type, and lack these features. AMI, security groups, and key pairs are supported by both.
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49An Auto Scaling group spans three Availability Zones with 9 running instances. One AZ fails entirely. Assuming default behavior, what does the ASG do to maintain balance and desired capacity?
Auto Scaling Groups
Hard
A.Launches replacement instances in the two healthy AZs to restore desired capacity and rebalances across AZs
B.Keeps only the 6 remaining instances and takes no action
C.Terminates all instances and relaunches in a single AZ
D.Waits for the failed AZ to recover before launching anything
Correct Answer: Launches replacement instances in the two healthy AZs to restore desired capacity and rebalances across AZs
Explanation:
ASG detects unhealthy instances, launches replacements in the remaining healthy AZs to meet desired capacity, and attempts to keep AZs balanced. It does not wait for the failed AZ or collapse into one AZ.
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50A critical database on an EBS gp3 volume needs point-in-time durable backups and the ability to restore quickly in another AZ. Which statement about EBS snapshots is correct?
Elastic Block Storage
Hard
A.Snapshots are stored in S3 and are incremental; a volume can be created from a snapshot in any AZ of that Region
B.Snapshots are stored on the volume itself and are full copies each time
C.Snapshots are automatically replicated to every Region by default
D.Snapshots can only restore to the same AZ as the original volume
Correct Answer: Snapshots are stored in S3 and are incremental; a volume can be created from a snapshot in any AZ of that Region
Explanation:
EBS snapshots are stored durably in S3, are incremental (only changed blocks after the first), and are Region-scoped so you can create a volume in any AZ. Cross-Region copies must be made explicitly.
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51Which scenario is the strongest justification for choosing Amazon EFS over EBS?
Elastic Files System
Hard
A.You need object storage with HTTP access
B.Multiple EC2 instances across AZs need concurrent shared read/write access to the same file system
C.A single instance needs the lowest-latency block device for a boot volume
D.You need raw block storage for a database requiring block-level control
Correct Answer: Multiple EC2 instances across AZs need concurrent shared read/write access to the same file system
Explanation:
EFS is a managed, multi-AZ NFS file system supporting concurrent access from many instances. EBS attaches to one instance (per AZ) as a block device, and object/HTTP access is S3's domain.
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52A business requires availability. Roughly how much total downtime per year does this budget allow?
Designing for Availability
Hard
A.About minutes
B.About hours
C.About hours
D.About minutes
Correct Answer: About minutes
Explanation:
allows minutes/year. ( ≈ 8.76 h, ≈ 5.26 min.)
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53A Route 53 health check is configured for an endpoint behind a firewall that blocks Route 53's health checker IPs, causing false failures. Which approach correctly restores accurate health monitoring?
Availability Monitoring
Hard
A.Disable health checks and rely on simple routing
B.Allow the published Route 53 health-checker IP ranges, or use a CloudWatch alarm-based health check instead of endpoint checks
C.Switch the record to geolocation routing
D.Increase the DNS TTL on the record
Correct Answer: Allow the published Route 53 health-checker IP ranges, or use a CloudWatch alarm-based health check instead of endpoint checks
Explanation:
Route 53 health checkers use published IP ranges that must be allowed through firewalls. Alternatively, a health check based on a CloudWatch alarm evaluates metrics internally without probing the endpoint directly.
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54To meet a strict RPO of near zero for a relational database, which strategy is most appropriate?
Data Resiliency
Hard
A.Synchronous replication to a standby (e.g. Multi-AZ) so writes are committed in two locations
B.Asynchronous read replicas in a distant Region only
C.Daily EBS snapshots copied to another Region
D.Weekly full backups to S3 Glacier
Correct Answer: Synchronous replication to a standby (e.g. Multi-AZ) so writes are committed in two locations
Explanation:
A near-zero RPO (minimal data loss) requires synchronous replication so every committed write exists in two places. Periodic snapshots/backups and asynchronous replication incur larger potential data loss windows.
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55Why is Route 53 Traffic Flow preferred over manually created routing records for a large global application combining geolocation, latency, and failover logic?
Traffic Flow
Hard
A.It provides a visual policy editor to combine and version complex routing rules into reusable policy records
B.It automatically reduces the TTL of all records to zero
C.It replaces the need for health checks entirely
D.It converts public hosted zones into private ones
Correct Answer: It provides a visual policy editor to combine and version complex routing rules into reusable policy records
Explanation:
Traffic Flow lets you build, visualize, and version layered routing policies (geolocation → latency → failover) and apply them as traffic policy records. It complements, not replaces, health checks and does not alter zone type.
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56A company registers a domain in Route 53. After registration, which statement about the authoritative name servers is correct?
Domain Registration
Hard
A.DNS resolution only works after you buy a separate Resolver endpoint
B.The domain uses a single shared name server for all AWS customers
C.Route 53 automatically creates a public hosted zone with four assigned name servers, and the domain's NS records are set to these at the registry
D.No hosted zone is created; you must manually point to external name servers
Correct Answer: Route 53 automatically creates a public hosted zone with four assigned name servers, and the domain's NS records are set to these at the registry
Explanation:
Registering through Route 53 creates a public hosted zone and assigns four authoritative name servers, with the registrar's NS delegation pointing to them. Resolver endpoints are for hybrid DNS, not basic public resolution.
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57An application has a predictable daily traffic surge at 9:00 AM and additional unpredictable spikes. Which combination of Auto Scaling options best handles both patterns cost-effectively?
Auto Scaling Options
Hard
A.Only a fixed desired capacity equal to peak load
B.Only manual scaling adjusted each morning
C.Scheduled scaling for the known 9:00 AM surge plus dynamic (target tracking/step) scaling for unpredictable spikes
D.Only scheduled scaling set for maximum capacity all day
Correct Answer: Scheduled scaling for the known 9:00 AM surge plus dynamic (target tracking/step) scaling for unpredictable spikes
Explanation:
Scheduled scaling pre-provisions capacity for known time-based patterns, while dynamic scaling reacts to real-time metric changes. Combining them handles predictable and unpredictable demand without permanently over-provisioning.
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58A VPC architecture must survive the failure of any single Availability Zone while keeping outbound internet access for private subnets. Which design is correct?
Creating Resilient Network
Hard
A.Deploy a NAT gateway in each AZ and route each AZ's private subnet to its local NAT gateway
B.Attach an internet gateway directly to each private subnet
C.Deploy one NAT gateway in a single AZ shared by all private subnets
D.Use a single NAT instance with no redundancy
Correct Answer: Deploy a NAT gateway in each AZ and route each AZ's private subnet to its local NAT gateway
Explanation:
A NAT gateway is zonal; a single one is a cross-AZ dependency and single point of failure. Deploying one per AZ with local routing keeps outbound access resilient to any AZ failure. IGWs do not attach to subnets for private NAT.
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59A company needs a consistent, low-latency, high-bandwidth private connection between on-premises and AWS that does not traverse the public internet, with a resilient backup. Which design is most appropriate?
External Connecting
Hard
A.AWS Direct Connect as primary with a VPN connection as failover backup
B.A single site-to-site VPN over the internet with no backup
C.Multiple Elastic IPs assigned to on-prem routers
D.Public internet with CloudFront caching only
Correct Answer: AWS Direct Connect as primary with a VPN connection as failover backup
Explanation:
Direct Connect provides private, consistent, high-bandwidth connectivity bypassing the internet; pairing it with a VPN backup adds resiliency if the Direct Connect link fails. A lone VPN lacks consistent performance and redundancy.
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60Which characteristic most distinguishes a true cloud-native application designed for resilience from a traditional lifted-and-shifted monolith?
Cloud-Native Application
Hard
A.It assumes the underlying infrastructure never fails
B.It is built as loosely coupled, stateless services that scale horizontally and tolerate individual component failures
C.It relies on a single large vertically scaled server for simplicity
D.It stores all session state locally on each instance for speed
Correct Answer: It is built as loosely coupled, stateless services that scale horizontally and tolerate individual component failures
Explanation:
Cloud-native design embraces statelessness, loose coupling, horizontal scaling, and designing for failure. Local session state, single vertical servers, and assuming infrastructure never fails all undermine resilience.
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