Unit 5: The DNS and Network Routing; The Reliability Pillar - Practice Quiz

CSC301 — Introduction To Cloud Computing 60 Questions
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1 What is the primary function of the Domain Name System (DNS)?

Introduction to Domain Name System (AWS) Easy
A. Blocking malicious network traffic
B. Translating human-readable domain names into IP addresses
C. Encrypting data sent over the internet
D. Storing website files on servers

2 Amazon Route 53 is best described as which type of AWS service?

Amazon Route 53 Easy
A. A virtual server hosting service
B. A scalable DNS and domain management service
C. A content moderation service
D. A relational database service

3 Which Route 53 feature allows you to purchase and manage a new domain name?

Domain Registration Easy
A. Resolver endpoints
B. Traffic flow
C. Domain registration
D. Health checks

4 In Route 53, where are DNS records such as A, CNAME, and MX stored?

DNS Management Easy
A. In a security group
B. In a launch template
C. In a hosted zone
D. In an auto scaling group

5 What does a Route 53 health check primarily monitor?

Availability Monitoring Easy
A. The size of stored data
B. The monthly cost of a service
C. The health and reachability of an endpoint
D. The number of DNS records

6 Which Route 53 routing policy routes traffic based on the geographic location of the user?

Routing Policies Easy
A. Failover routing
B. Multivalue answer routing
C. Simple routing
D. Geolocation routing

7 Which routing policy is used to send traffic to a backup resource when the primary becomes unhealthy?

Routing Policies Easy
A. Weighted routing
B. Failover routing
C. Simple routing
D. Latency routing

8 What is the main benefit of Route 53 Traffic Flow?

Traffic Flow Easy
A. Encrypting all DNS queries
B. Storing large files cheaply
C. Visually managing complex routing configurations
D. Automatically scaling EC2 instances

9 What is the main purpose of Route 53 Resolver?

Route 53 Resolver Easy
A. Compressing images for faster delivery
B. Backing up EBS volumes
C. Resolving DNS queries between on-premises networks and AWS VPCs
D. Registering new domain names

10 Amazon CloudFront is primarily used as which type of service?

Amazon CloudFront Easy
A. A DNS registration tool
B. A content delivery network (CDN)
C. A block storage service
D. A relational database

11 What are the globally distributed caching points used by CloudFront called?

Amazon CloudFront Easy
A. Edge locations
B. Launch templates
C. Availability zones
D. Hosted zones

12 If a system has an availability of 99.9%, approximately how much downtime is allowed per year?

Calculating Availability Easy
A. About 8.77 hours
B. About 5 minutes
C. About 87 hours
D. About 36 days

13 Which characteristic best describes a cloud-native application?

Cloud-Native Application Easy
A. Designed to take full advantage of cloud scalability and services
B. Must be installed on local desktops
C. Cannot be scaled automatically
D. Only runs on a single physical server

14 What is the main purpose of Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling?

EC2 Auto Scaling Easy
A. Delivering cached content globally
B. Registering domain names
C. Encrypting EC2 storage volumes
D. Automatically adjusting the number of EC2 instances based on demand

15 What does a launch configuration define in EC2 Auto Scaling?

Launch Configuration Easy
A. The backup schedule for a database
B. The edge locations used by CloudFront
C. The instance settings used to launch new EC2 instances
D. The DNS routing policy for a domain

16 What advantage do launch templates offer over launch configurations?

Launch Templates Easy
A. Free domain registration
B. Support for versioning and more instance options
C. Automatic image compression
D. Lower DNS query latency

17 What does an Auto Scaling group use to maintain a specified number of instances?

Auto Scaling Groups Easy
A. A domain registration record
B. Minimum, maximum, and desired capacity settings
C. A CloudFront distribution
D. A single hosted zone

18 Which scaling option automatically adjusts capacity based on a target metric like CPU utilization?

Auto Scaling Options Easy
A. Static scaling
B. Scheduled registration
C. Target tracking scaling
D. Manual scaling

19 What is the main purpose of data backup in AWS?

Data Backup and Recovery Easy
A. To increase network bandwidth
B. To register new domains
C. To reduce DNS query time
D. To restore data in case of loss or corruption

20 Amazon Elastic File System (EFS) provides which type of storage?

Elastic Files System Easy
A. A global content cache
B. A relational database engine
C. Block storage attached to a single instance
D. Scalable shared file storage for multiple EC2 instances

21 A user types www.example.com into a browser. Which DNS record type is primarily responsible for returning the IPv4 address that lets the browser reach the server?

Introduction to Domain Name System (AWS) Medium
A. A record
B. NS record
C. TXT record
D. MX record

22 Why is Amazon Route 53 described as a highly available DNS service rather than running on a single server?

Amazon Route 53 Medium
A. It caches every query on the client device permanently
B. It depends on a single region for all resolution
C. It uses a global network of DNS servers across many locations
D. It stores all records in a single large database

23 A company registers shop.io through Route 53. After registration, which component must be configured so that queries for the domain are answered correctly?

Domain Registration Medium
A. An EBS snapshot schedule
B. A hosted zone with the appropriate records
C. A new VPC in every region
D. A CloudFront key pair

24 You need to point blog.example.com to another domain name rather than an IP address. Which record type should you create?

DNS Management Medium
A. PTR record
B. SOA record
C. CNAME record
D. A record

25 A Route 53 health check reports an endpoint as unhealthy. What is the most direct effect on DNS responses when failover routing is configured?

Availability Monitoring Medium
A. Traffic is routed to the healthy secondary endpoint
B. The hosted zone is automatically deleted
C. The domain registration is suspended
D. All records in the zone are disabled

26 An application must send users to the AWS Region that gives them the lowest network latency. Which Route 53 routing policy best fits this requirement?

Routing Policies Medium
A. Failover routing
B. Latency-based routing
C. Simple routing
D. Multivalue answer routing

27 A company wants 80% of traffic to go to a new application version and 20% to the old version for testing. Which routing policy achieves this?

Routing Policies Medium
A. Geolocation routing
B. Latency-based routing
C. Weighted routing
D. Failover routing

28 What is the main advantage of using Route 53 Traffic Flow for a complex routing setup?

Traffic Flow Medium
A. A visual editor to combine multiple routing policies into one configuration
B. It replaces EC2 Auto Scaling
C. It eliminates the need for a hosted zone
D. It provides free SSL certificates

29 An on-premises network needs to resolve DNS names for resources inside an AWS VPC. Which Route 53 Resolver feature enables this?

Route 53 Resolver Medium
A. Launch template
B. CloudFront distribution
C. Outbound-only internet gateway
D. Inbound endpoint

30 How does Amazon CloudFront reduce latency for users accessing static website content?

Amazon CloudFront Medium
A. It increases the EC2 instance size automatically
B. It caches content at edge locations close to users
C. It replaces the need for an S3 bucket
D. It stores content only in a single origin region

31 Two components are in series, each with 99% availability. What is the approximate combined availability of the system?

Calculating Availability Medium
A. 100%
B. 98.01%
C. 99%
D. 99.99%

32 Two redundant components in parallel each have 90% availability. What is the approximate combined availability?

Calculating Availability Medium
A. 81%
B. 90%
C. 99%
D. 95%

33 Which characteristic best describes a cloud-native application designed for resilience?

Cloud-Native Application Medium
A. Tightly coupled services sharing one database connection
B. A single large monolith running on one server
C. Loosely coupled, stateless components that scale horizontally
D. Manual scaling performed only during business hours

34 An Auto Scaling group is set to maintain a desired capacity of 4 instances. One instance fails a health check. What does EC2 Auto Scaling do?

EC2 Auto Scaling Medium
A. Terminates the unhealthy instance and launches a replacement
B. Sends only an email alert and takes no action
C. Stops the entire group
D. Reduces the desired capacity to 3

35 A team wants to update the instance type used by their Auto Scaling group but is using a launch configuration. What limitation will they encounter?

Launch Configuration Medium
A. Launch configurations only work with spot instances
B. Launch configurations update instances in place automatically
C. Launch configurations cannot specify an AMI
D. Launch configurations are immutable and must be recreated

36 Why might an organization choose launch templates over launch configurations for Auto Scaling?

Launch Templates Medium
A. Launch templates cannot be used with Auto Scaling groups
B. Launch templates support versioning and newer features
C. Launch templates disable health checks
D. Launch templates only support a single instance type

37 An Auto Scaling group spans three Availability Zones. How does this configuration improve resilience?

Auto Scaling Groups Medium
A. It doubles the cost without any benefit
B. All instances run in one AZ for faster communication
C. It removes the need for a load balancer
D. Instances are distributed so one AZ failure does not take down the app

38 Traffic to an application is highly predictable, peaking every weekday at 9 AM. Which Auto Scaling option best prepares capacity in advance?

Auto Scaling Options Medium
A. Manual scaling
B. No scaling at all
C. Dynamic target tracking only
D. Scheduled scaling

39 Which approach provides point-in-time recovery for an EBS volume with minimal management overhead?

Data Backup and Recovery Medium
A. Copying files manually to another EC2 instance
B. Streaming data to a local laptop nightly
C. Keeping only the primary volume with no copies
D. Automated EBS snapshots stored in Amazon S3

40 An application running on several EC2 instances across multiple AZs needs a shared file system accessible by all instances simultaneously. Which service fits best?

Elastic Files System Medium
A. Instance store
B. Amazon CloudFront
C. Amazon EFS
D. A single EBS volume

41 A system has two independent components in series: a web tier with availability and a database tier with availability. What is the approximate end-to-end availability of the system?

Calculating Availability Hard
A.
B.
C.
D.

42 Two redundant servers each with availability are placed in parallel (the service is up if either is up). What is the combined availability?

Calculating Availability Hard
A.
B.
C.
D.

43 A company wants Route 53 to send of traffic to a newly deployed application stack and to the old stack to validate the release before full cutover. Which routing policy is the correct choice?

Routing Policies Hard
A. Failover routing
B. Latency-based routing
C. Geolocation routing
D. Weighted routing

44 An application must direct users to the endpoint that gives them the lowest network latency, but also must never send traffic to an unhealthy endpoint. Which configuration best satisfies both goals?

Routing Policies Hard
A. Latency-based routing with health checks associated to each record
B. Geolocation routing with a default record
C. Simple routing with multiple IP values
D. Weighted routing with equal weights

45 A hybrid architecture needs on-premises servers to resolve records in a private hosted zone, and AWS resources to resolve on-premises DNS names. Which Route 53 Resolver configuration is required?

Route 53 Resolver Hard
A. Only an outbound endpoint in the VPC
B. Inbound endpoints for on-prem queries into VPC, and outbound endpoints with forwarding rules for queries to on-prem
C. Only an inbound endpoint in the VPC
D. A public hosted zone shared across the VPN

46 A dynamic API served through CloudFront is returning stale responses to some users even after the origin updates data. The cache behavior uses a long TTL. Which approach correctly serves fresh dynamic content while still caching static assets?

Amazon CloudFront Hard
A. Disable CloudFront entirely for the whole distribution
B. Use separate cache behaviors with a TTL of 0 (or appropriate cache keys) for the dynamic path and a long TTL for static paths
C. Set the same long TTL but increase the number of edge locations
D. Switch the origin from S3 to EC2 without changing TTLs

47 An Auto Scaling group uses target tracking on average CPU at . During a sudden spike CPU jumps to but scaling is slow and some instances get overwhelmed. Which combination most directly improves responsiveness to abrupt spikes?

EC2 Auto Scaling Hard
A. Increase the health check grace period
B. Switch to a lifecycle hook on termination
C. Add a step scaling or predictive scaling policy alongside target tracking to react more aggressively to large deviations
D. Lower the target value to CPU permanently

48 Which capability is available with launch templates but not with launch configurations, making templates the recommended choice?

Launch Templates Hard
A. Versioning and support for mixed instance types / Spot and On-Demand within one group
B. Ability to specify an AMI ID
C. Ability to set a security group
D. Ability to specify a key pair

49 An Auto Scaling group spans three Availability Zones with 9 running instances. One AZ fails entirely. Assuming default behavior, what does the ASG do to maintain balance and desired capacity?

Auto Scaling Groups Hard
A. Launches replacement instances in the two healthy AZs to restore desired capacity and rebalances across AZs
B. Keeps only the 6 remaining instances and takes no action
C. Terminates all instances and relaunches in a single AZ
D. Waits for the failed AZ to recover before launching anything

50 A critical database on an EBS gp3 volume needs point-in-time durable backups and the ability to restore quickly in another AZ. Which statement about EBS snapshots is correct?

Elastic Block Storage Hard
A. Snapshots are stored in S3 and are incremental; a volume can be created from a snapshot in any AZ of that Region
B. Snapshots are stored on the volume itself and are full copies each time
C. Snapshots are automatically replicated to every Region by default
D. Snapshots can only restore to the same AZ as the original volume

51 Which scenario is the strongest justification for choosing Amazon EFS over EBS?

Elastic Files System Hard
A. You need object storage with HTTP access
B. Multiple EC2 instances across AZs need concurrent shared read/write access to the same file system
C. A single instance needs the lowest-latency block device for a boot volume
D. You need raw block storage for a database requiring block-level control

52 A business requires availability. Roughly how much total downtime per year does this budget allow?

Designing for Availability Hard
A. About minutes
B. About hours
C. About hours
D. About minutes

53 A Route 53 health check is configured for an endpoint behind a firewall that blocks Route 53's health checker IPs, causing false failures. Which approach correctly restores accurate health monitoring?

Availability Monitoring Hard
A. Disable health checks and rely on simple routing
B. Allow the published Route 53 health-checker IP ranges, or use a CloudWatch alarm-based health check instead of endpoint checks
C. Switch the record to geolocation routing
D. Increase the DNS TTL on the record

54 To meet a strict RPO of near zero for a relational database, which strategy is most appropriate?

Data Resiliency Hard
A. Synchronous replication to a standby (e.g. Multi-AZ) so writes are committed in two locations
B. Asynchronous read replicas in a distant Region only
C. Daily EBS snapshots copied to another Region
D. Weekly full backups to S3 Glacier

55 Why is Route 53 Traffic Flow preferred over manually created routing records for a large global application combining geolocation, latency, and failover logic?

Traffic Flow Hard
A. It provides a visual policy editor to combine and version complex routing rules into reusable policy records
B. It automatically reduces the TTL of all records to zero
C. It replaces the need for health checks entirely
D. It converts public hosted zones into private ones

56 A company registers a domain in Route 53. After registration, which statement about the authoritative name servers is correct?

Domain Registration Hard
A. DNS resolution only works after you buy a separate Resolver endpoint
B. The domain uses a single shared name server for all AWS customers
C. Route 53 automatically creates a public hosted zone with four assigned name servers, and the domain's NS records are set to these at the registry
D. No hosted zone is created; you must manually point to external name servers

57 An application has a predictable daily traffic surge at 9:00 AM and additional unpredictable spikes. Which combination of Auto Scaling options best handles both patterns cost-effectively?

Auto Scaling Options Hard
A. Only a fixed desired capacity equal to peak load
B. Only manual scaling adjusted each morning
C. Scheduled scaling for the known 9:00 AM surge plus dynamic (target tracking/step) scaling for unpredictable spikes
D. Only scheduled scaling set for maximum capacity all day

58 A VPC architecture must survive the failure of any single Availability Zone while keeping outbound internet access for private subnets. Which design is correct?

Creating Resilient Network Hard
A. Deploy a NAT gateway in each AZ and route each AZ's private subnet to its local NAT gateway
B. Attach an internet gateway directly to each private subnet
C. Deploy one NAT gateway in a single AZ shared by all private subnets
D. Use a single NAT instance with no redundancy

59 A company needs a consistent, low-latency, high-bandwidth private connection between on-premises and AWS that does not traverse the public internet, with a resilient backup. Which design is most appropriate?

External Connecting Hard
A. AWS Direct Connect as primary with a VPN connection as failover backup
B. A single site-to-site VPN over the internet with no backup
C. Multiple Elastic IPs assigned to on-prem routers
D. Public internet with CloudFront caching only

60 Which characteristic most distinguishes a true cloud-native application designed for resilience from a traditional lifted-and-shifted monolith?

Cloud-Native Application Hard
A. It assumes the underlying infrastructure never fails
B. It is built as loosely coupled, stateless services that scale horizontally and tolerate individual component failures
C. It relies on a single large vertically scaled server for simplicity
D. It stores all session state locally on each instance for speed