1When preparing an installation plan for Windows Server, which licensing model is primarily used for Windows Server 2016 and later Standard and Datacenter editions?
A.Processor-based licensing
B.Core-based licensing
C.Server-based licensing
D.Socket-based licensing
Correct Answer: Core-based licensing
Explanation:Windows Server 2016 introduced a core-based licensing model, where licenses are calculated based on the number of physical cores on the server, rather than the number of processors.
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2Which Windows Server installation option is recommended for reducing the attack surface and hardware resource usage by omitting the local graphical user interface (GUI)?
A.Desktop Experience
B.Server Core
C.Nano Server
D.Minimum Interface
Correct Answer: Server Core
Explanation:Server Core is the default installation option (starting with 2012) that includes the standard user interface tools but omits the Desktop Experience (GUI), reducing patching requirements and the attack surface.
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3You are preparing a server hard drive that is in size. Which partition style must you use to utilize the full capacity of the drive?
A.MBR (Master Boot Record)
B.GPT (GUID Partition Table)
C.FAT32
D.Dynamic Disk
Correct Answer: GPT (GUID Partition Table)
Explanation:MBR disks support a maximum partition size of . GPT disks are required to support volumes larger than .
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4Which file system is designed to maximize data availability, scale efficiently with large data sets, and provide data integrity via automatic integrity checking?
A.FAT32
B.NTFS
C.ReFS (Resilient File System)
D.ExFAT
Correct Answer: ReFS (Resilient File System)
Explanation:ReFS is designed to provide high resilience and data integrity, automatically detecting and repairing corruption without taking the volume offline, which is ideal for large storage pools.
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5What is the primary difference between Windows Server Standard Edition and Datacenter Edition regarding Virtual Machines (VMs) when fully licensed?
D.Datacenter allows VMs to use more RAM than Standard.
Correct Answer: Standard supports 2 OSEs/VMs; Datacenter supports unlimited OSEs/VMs.
Explanation:While both editions support Hyper-V, the licensing differs: Standard edition provides rights for up to 2 Operating System Environments (VMs), while Datacenter provides rights for unlimited VMs.
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6When configuring server hardware storage, which RAID level requires a minimum of three disks and provides striping with parity?
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 5
D.RAID 10
Correct Answer: RAID 5
Explanation:RAID 5 distributes data and parity information across three or more drives (). It can survive the failure of a single disk.
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7Which firmware interface allows for Secure Boot, a feature that prevents malicious software from loading when the server starts?
Explanation:UEFI supports Secure Boot, which checks the digital signatures of boot loaders and kernels to ensure they are trusted by the OEM.
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8You are setting up a physical server. To ensure the highest level of protection against Electrostatic Discharge (ESD), which of the following should be used?
A.Rubber-soled shoes
B.Antistatic wrist strap grounded to the chassis
C.Standing on a carpeted floor
D.Touching the painted surface of the case
Correct Answer: Antistatic wrist strap grounded to the chassis
Explanation:An antistatic wrist strap connected to an unpainted metal part of the chassis or a ground point keeps the technician and the hardware at the same electrical potential, preventing ESD damage.
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9Which hardware component is critical for enabling hardware-assisted virtualization (e.g., Intel VT-x or AMD-V) required by Hyper-V?
A.GPU
B.CPU
C.NIC
D.TPM
Correct Answer: CPU
Explanation:The CPU must support and have virtualization extensions (Intel VT-x or AMD-V) enabled in the BIOS/UEFI to run hypervisors like Hyper-V.
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10When configuring RAID 10 (1+0) with 4 hard drives of each, what is the total usable storage capacity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:RAID 10 is a stripe of mirrors. With 4 drives, data is mirrored (halving capacity) and then striped. The usable capacity is of the total raw capacity: .
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11During the installation of Windows Server, which partition is automatically created to store the Boot Configuration Data (BCD) on a GPT disk?
A.System Reserved Partition
B.EFI System Partition (ESP)
C.MSR Partition
D.Recovery Partition
Correct Answer: EFI System Partition (ESP)
Explanation:On UEFI/GPT systems, the EFI System Partition (ESP) is created to hold boot loaders, drivers, and the BCD required to boot the OS.
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12Which XML file is used to perform an unattended installation of Windows Server, bypassing the need for user interaction during setup?
A.config.xml
B.install.xml
C.unattend.xml
D.setup.xml
Correct Answer: unattend.xml
Explanation:The unattend.xml (or autounattend.xml) file contains the answers to the setup questions, allowing the installation to proceed without manual input.
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13Which command-line tool is primarily used to mount, edit, and service Windows installation images (WIM files)?
A.Diskpart
B.DISM (Deployment Image Servicing and Management)
C.Sfc
D.Robocopy
Correct Answer: DISM (Deployment Image Servicing and Management)
Explanation:DISM is the standard tool used to service Windows images, including adding drivers, enabling features, and mounting WIM files.
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14After installing Windows Server Core, which command allows you to configure basic settings like computer name, network, and remote desktop via a text-based menu?
A.cmd.exe
B.sconfig
C.taskmgr
D.regedit
Correct Answer: sconfig
Explanation:sconfig (Server Configuration) is a legacy script utility available in Server Core that provides a numbered menu for common initial configuration tasks.
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15You are installing Windows Server over the network. Which role must be installed on a server to facilitate PXE boot installations for client machines?
A.DNS Server
B.Windows Deployment Services (WDS)
C.Web Server (IIS)
D.Active Directory Domain Services
Correct Answer: Windows Deployment Services (WDS)
Explanation:WDS allows computers to boot via PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) network cards to install operating systems from a central server.
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16Which type of network cabling is most resistant to Electromagnetic Interference (EMI) and is capable of covering the longest distances?
A.Coaxial
B.Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)
C.Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)
D.Fiber Optic
Correct Answer: Fiber Optic
Explanation:Fiber optic cables use light pulses rather than electrical signals, making them completely immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI) and capable of spanning kilometers.
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17What is the maximum recommended cable length for a standard Cat6 Ethernet cable segment running at ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:According to TIA/EIA standards, the maximum length for twisted pair Ethernet cabling (Cat5e, Cat6) is () to ensure signal integrity.
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18When terminating a twisted pair cable into an RJ-45 connector using the T568B standard, which color wire is located at Pin 1?
A.Green
B.White/Green
C.Orange
D.White/Orange
Correct Answer: White/Orange
Explanation:The T568B wiring standard order starts with White/Orange at Pin 1, followed by Orange, White/Green, Blue, White/Blue, Green, White/Brown, Brown.
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19Which type of cabling is required if you need to run cables through the air circulation spaces (drop ceilings) of a building to comply with fire codes?
A.PVC
B.Plenum
C.Riser
D.Shielded
Correct Answer: Plenum
Explanation:Plenum-rated cables are coated with a fire-retardant jacket (often Teflon) that produces less smoke and toxic fumes when burned, required for air handling spaces.
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20What configuration on a Network Interface Card (NIC) allows multiple physical NICs to be grouped together for bandwidth aggregation and redundancy?
A.VLAN Tagging
B.NIC Teaming (LBFO)
C.Jumbo Frames
D.Flow Control
Correct Answer: NIC Teaming (LBFO)
Explanation:NIC Teaming (Load Balancing and Failover) groups multiple physical network adapters into a single logical interface to increase bandwidth and provide fault tolerance.
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21Which NIC Teaming mode allows the team to be distributed across different physical switches without requiring special switch configuration?
A.Static Teaming
B.Switch Independent
C.LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol)
D.802.1ax
Correct Answer: Switch Independent
Explanation:Switch Independent mode does not require the participating switches to be aware of the team, allowing members of the team to connect to different physical switches for redundancy.
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22To enable the transfer of data packets larger than the standard bytes, what feature must be configured on the NIC and the switch?
A.Jumbo Frames
B.Full Duplex
C.Auto-negotiation
D.QoS
Correct Answer: Jumbo Frames
Explanation:Jumbo Frames allow the MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) to be increased (typically up to bytes), which improves throughput and reduces CPU utilization for large data transfers.
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23Which technology allows a network adapter to bypass the OS kernel and transfer data directly to the application memory, reducing latency?
A.RSS (Receive Side Scaling)
B.RDMA (Remote Direct Memory Access)
C.VMQ (Virtual Machine Queue)
D.IPsec Offloading
Correct Answer: RDMA (Remote Direct Memory Access)
Explanation:RDMA allows direct memory access from the memory of one computer into that of another without involving either one's operating system, significantly increasing throughput and lowering latency.
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24If a Windows Server is configured to obtain an IP address automatically but fails to find a DHCP server, which IP range will it assign itself via APIPA?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) assigns an address in the range when a DHCP server is unreachable.
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25What is the CIDR notation for a subnet mask of ?
A./8
B./16
C./24
D./32
Correct Answer: /24
Explanation:A subnet mask of consists of 24 consecutive '1' bits in binary (), which is represented as /24 in CIDR notation.
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26Which IPv6 address represents the loopback address (equivalent to IPv4 )?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The IPv6 loopback address is written as (all zeros except the last bit).
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27Which network service translates human-readable domain names (like www.google.com) into IP addresses?
A.DHCP
B.DNS
C.NAT
D.VPN
Correct Answer: DNS
Explanation:The Domain Name System (DNS) is responsible for resolving FQDNs (Fully Qualified Domain Names) to IP addresses.
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28In a DHCP configuration, what is the term for a specific IP address that is permanently assigned to a specific MAC address to ensure that device always gets the same IP?
A.Scope
B.Exclusion
C.Reservation
D.Lease
Correct Answer: Reservation
Explanation:A Reservation ensures that a specific client (identified by MAC address) always receives the same IP address from the DHCP pool.
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29Which default gateway configuration would a server at most likely use to access the internet?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The default gateway must be on the same subnet as the host. is on the network, whereas is not.
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30What type of DNS record must be created to map an IPv6 address to a hostname?
A.A Record
B.CNAME Record
C.AAAA Record
D.MX Record
Correct Answer: AAAA Record
Explanation:An 'A' record is for IPv4; a Quad-A ('AAAA') record is used to map a hostname to an IPv6 address.
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31Which port does the DNS service primarily use for queries?
A.TCP/80
B.UDP/53
C.TCP/443
D.UDP/67
Correct Answer: UDP/53
Explanation:DNS primarily uses UDP port 53 for standard queries. It can use TCP port 53 for zone transfers or large responses.
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32To create a virtual server in Windows Server, which Role must be installed?
A.Remote Desktop Services
B.Hyper-V
C.Failover Clustering
D.Network Controller
Correct Answer: Hyper-V
Explanation:Hyper-V is the Microsoft hardware virtualization product that allows you to create and run software versions of a computer, known as virtual machines.
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33Which generation of Hyper-V Virtual Machine supports UEFI boot, Secure Boot, and boot from SCSI virtual hard disk?
A.Generation 1
B.Generation 2
C.Generation 3
D.Legacy Generation
Correct Answer: Generation 2
Explanation:Generation 2 VMs use a newer UEFI-based architecture, removing legacy BIOS dependencies and supporting features like Secure Boot and SCSI boot.
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34What is the maximum file size limit for the VHDX virtual hard disk format?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The VHDX format supports virtual hard disks up to , whereas the older VHD format was limited to .
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35Which Hyper-V feature allows a Virtual Machine to use more RAM when needed and release it back to the host when not in use?
A.NUMA Spanning
B.Smart Paging
C.Dynamic Memory
D.Memory Weight
Correct Answer: Dynamic Memory
Explanation:Dynamic Memory allows Hyper-V to adjust the amount of RAM assigned to a VM based on demand, between a configured startup/minimum and maximum value.
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36You need to create a VM checkpoint that uses Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS) to ensure the data is in a consistent state, suitable for production environments. Which type should you use?
A.Standard Checkpoint
B.Production Checkpoint
C.Snapshot
D.Differential Checkpoint
Correct Answer: Production Checkpoint
Explanation:Production Checkpoints use VSS (on Windows) or file system freezing (on Linux) to create a data-consistent backup image, as opposed to Standard Checkpoints which capture the memory state.
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37Which virtual disk type allocates the full amount of storage space on the physical disk at the time of creation?
A.Dynamically Expanding
B.Fixed Size
C.Differencing
D.Pass-through
Correct Answer: Fixed Size
Explanation:Fixed Size disks consume the full configured space on the host storage immediately. They generally offer better performance than dynamically expanding disks because the space is pre-allocated.
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38What feature allows you to run the Hyper-V role inside a virtual machine?
A.Shielded VMs
B.Nested Virtualization
C.Hyper-V Replica
D.Discrete Device Assignment
Correct Answer: Nested Virtualization
Explanation:Nested Virtualization exposes hardware virtualization extensions to the virtual machine, allowing you to install Hyper-V inside a VM.
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39Which type of Virtual Switch allows VMs to communicate with each other and the host operating system, but NOT with the external physical network?
A.External
B.Internal
C.Private
D.Isolated
Correct Answer: Internal
Explanation:An Internal Virtual Switch connects VMs to each other and to the host, but does not provide connectivity to the physical network adapter/internet.
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40Which type of Virtual Switch creates a completely isolated network where VMs can communicate only with each other, but not with the host or the external network?
A.External
B.Internal
C.Private
D.Dedicated
Correct Answer: Private
Explanation:A Private Virtual Switch isolates traffic to only the VMs connected to that switch. The host OS cannot see this traffic.
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41To allow a Virtual Machine to communicate with the physical network and the Internet, which Virtual Switch type must be selected?
A.External
B.Internal
C.Private
D.Bridged
Correct Answer: External
Explanation:An External Virtual Switch binds to a physical network adapter on the host, acting as a bridge to the outside physical network.
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42What configuration on a Virtual Network Adapter allows a VM to distinguish traffic designated for specific VLAN IDs?
A.VLAN Filtering
B.VLAN Tagging
C.VLAN Trunking
D.VLAN Proxy
Correct Answer: VLAN Tagging
Explanation:By enabling VLAN tagging on the virtual network adapter and specifying a VLAN ID, the VM will tag outgoing traffic and only accept incoming traffic with that ID.
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43If you are configuring Network Load Balancing (NLB) in Unicast mode on a VM, what setting must often be enabled on the Virtual Switch port for that VM?
A.DHCP Guard
B.Router Guard
C.Enable MAC Address Spoofing
D.Port Mirroring
Correct Answer: Enable MAC Address Spoofing
Explanation:NLB in Unicast mode changes the MAC address of the network adapter. Hyper-V security blocks this by default unless 'Enable MAC Address Spoofing' is checked.
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44Which Hyper-V networking feature allows a virtual machine to bypass the software switch stack and communicate directly with the physical network adapter (if supported by hardware)?
Explanation:SR-IOV allows a device, such as a network adapter, to separate access to its resources among various PCIe hardware functions, allowing a VM to access the device directly for higher performance.
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45When configuring a virtual switch, what does the 'Allow management operating system to share this network adapter' checkbox do?
A.It creates a virtual NIC for the host OS attached to the vSwitch.
B.It allows the host to manage the VM remotely.
C.It enables DHCP on the switch.
D.It creates a bridge between two physical NICs.
Correct Answer: It creates a virtual NIC for the host OS attached to the vSwitch.
Explanation:When checked, the physical NIC is dedicated to the switch, and a virtual NIC is created for the Host OS so it can continue to access the network through that same physical connection.
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46Which advanced network setting prevents a rogue virtual machine from acting as a DHCP server on the network?
A.Router Guard
B.DHCP Guard
C.Port ACLs
D.Protected Network
Correct Answer: DHCP Guard
Explanation:DHCP Guard drops DHCP server messages (Offer/Ack) from unauthorized virtual machines pretending to be DHCP servers.
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47You have a VHDX file that is currently but the data inside is only . Which operation recovers the unused space on the host physical drive?
A.Convert
B.Compact
C.Expand
D.Merge
Correct Answer: Compact
Explanation:The Compact operation removes empty space from a dynamically expanding virtual hard disk or differencing disk, reducing the file size on the physical host.
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48What is the primary benefit of using Switch Embedded Teaming (SET) in Hyper-V?
A.It allows NIC teaming within the VM.
B.It integrates NIC teaming directly into the Hyper-V Virtual Switch.
C.It supports legacy operating systems.
D.It works with only one physical NIC.
Correct Answer: It integrates NIC teaming directly into the Hyper-V Virtual Switch.
Explanation:SET allows you to group up to 8 physical adapters into a team directly on the Hyper-V Virtual Switch, without needing to create a separate LBFO team at the host OS level.
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49Which specific permission is required to delegate the ability to join a computer to a domain without giving full Domain Admin rights?
A.Create Computer Objects
B.Manage Group Policy
C.Reset Passwords
D.Replicate Directory Changes
Correct Answer: Create Computer Objects
Explanation:To allow a user or group to join computers to the domain, they must be delegated the 'Create Computer Objects' permission on the target Organizational Unit (OU) or container.
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50What is the minimum recommended RAM requirement for the 'Server Core' installation option of Windows Server 2019/2022?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The absolute minimum RAM requirement for Server Core is . However, if installing via Desktop Experience media, slightly more is needed temporarily during setup.
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