Correct Answer: To define the primary function of the server, such as a Web Server or File Server
Explanation:Server Roles describe the primary function of the server (e.g., DNS, DHCP, IIS). Installing a role installs the necessary binaries and services required for that specific function.
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2When configuring local server properties, why is it critical to set the correct Time Zone and synchronize time via NTP?
A.To ensure the screen saver activates at the correct local time
B.To ensure authentication protocols like Kerberos function correctly and logs are accurate
C.To allow the server to download updates faster
D.To prevent the hard drive from spinning down unnecessarily
Correct Answer: To ensure authentication protocols like Kerberos function correctly and logs are accurate
Explanation:Time synchronization is vital for security protocols (Kerberos requires time skew generally less than 5 minutes) and for correlating log events across different servers for troubleshooting.
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3Which command-line tool is commonly used in Windows Server Core to configure basic server properties like hostname and IP address?
A.taskmgr.exe
B.sconfig
C.regedit
D.notepad
Correct Answer: sconfig
Explanation:The sconfig (Server Configuration) utility provides a text-based menu interface to configure basic settings such as domain joining, hostname, network settings, and updates on Server Core.
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4What is the specific function of the DHCP server role?
A.To resolve domain names to IP addresses
B.To automatically assign IP addresses and network configuration to clients
C.To host websites and web applications
D.To filter network traffic based on firewall rules
Correct Answer: To automatically assign IP addresses and network configuration to clients
Explanation:DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) automates the assignment of IP addresses, subnet masks, gateways, and other network parameters to client devices.
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5In the context of IP addressing service roles, what is a Scope?
A.A physical range of network cables
B.A consecutive range of possible IP addresses that the DHCP server can lease to clients
C.The maximum distance a WiFi signal can travel
D.A list of blocked IP addresses
Correct Answer: A consecutive range of possible IP addresses that the DHCP server can lease to clients
Explanation:In DHCP, a scope is a range of IP addresses on a specific subnet that the server is configured to lease to clients.
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6Which service role resolves human-readable hostnames (e.g., www.example.com) into machine-readable IP addresses?
A.DHCP
B.DNS
C.FTP
D.SMTP
Correct Answer: DNS
Explanation:DNS (Domain Name System) is the phonebook of the internet, translating domain names into IP addresses so browsers can load Internet resources.
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7Which of the following represents the standard loopback IP address used to test the local TCP/IP stack?
A.192.168.1.1
B.10.0.0.1
C.127.0.0.1
D.255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: 127.0.0.1
Explanation:127.0.0.1 is the standard IPv4 loopback address, referring to the local computer (localhost).
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8When configuring a server for a critical role (like a Domain Controller), which IP addressing method is recommended?
A.Dynamic IP via DHCP
B.Static IP
C.APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing)
D.Randomized IP
Correct Answer: Static IP
Explanation:Servers hosting critical infrastructure should have Static IPs to ensure they are reliably accessible at the same address by clients and other servers.
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9What is the primary purpose of WSUS (Windows Server Update Services)?
A.To increase internet bandwidth speed
B.To centralized the management and distribution of updates within a corporate network
C.To prevent users from accessing social media
D.To replace the need for antivirus software
Correct Answer: To centralized the management and distribution of updates within a corporate network
Explanation:WSUS allows administrators to download updates once from Microsoft and distribute them to local clients, saving bandwidth and allowing for approval/testing of patches.
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10Which type of server update addresses a specific security vulnerability and should usually be applied immediately?
A.Service Pack
B.Feature Update
C.Security Hotfix/Patch
D.Optional Driver Update
Correct Answer: Security Hotfix/Patch
Explanation:Security hotfixes or patches are released to fix specific vulnerabilities that could be exploited, necessitating immediate application to secure the system.
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11Which remote administration method uses port 3389 by default and provides a graphical interface?
A.SSH (Secure Shell)
B.Telnet
C.RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)
D.FTP
Correct Answer: RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)
Explanation:RDP allows a user to connect to a remote computer with a graphical interface. It defaults to TCP port 3389.
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12Which protocol provides a secure, encrypted command-line interface for remote server administration, commonly used in Linux environments?
A.Telnet
B.SSH
C.HTTP
D.SNMP
Correct Answer: SSH
Explanation:SSH (Secure Shell) provides encrypted command-line access to remote servers, replacing insecure protocols like Telnet.
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13What is Out-of-Band (OOB) management?
A.Managing a server using a wireless keyboard
B.Managing a server via a dedicated management channel (like iDRAC/iLO) separate from the data network
C.Managing a server only during business hours
D.Managing a server using a public WiFi connection
Correct Answer: Managing a server via a dedicated management channel (like iDRAC/iLO) separate from the data network
Explanation:OOB management involves a dedicated network card/interface (like Dell iDRAC or HP iLO) allowing control even if the OS is down or the server is powered off.
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14Which administrative concept ensures users have only the permissions necessary to perform their job functions?
A.Principle of Least Privilege
B.Administrative Inheritance
C.Root Access
D.Universal Access Control
Correct Answer: Principle of Least Privilege
Explanation:The Principle of Least Privilege dictates that accounts should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks to minimize security risks.
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15What is a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?
A.A software license key
B.A contract between a service provider and a customer defining the level of service expected
C.A manual on how to install a server
D.A log file recording server errors
Correct Answer: A contract between a service provider and a customer defining the level of service expected
Explanation:An SLA documents the agreed-upon standards for service, such as uptime, response time, and recovery time.
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16In an SLA, if a system is required to have 99.9% availability, roughly how much downtime is permitted per year?
A.36.5 days
B.8.76 hours
C.5 minutes
D.0 seconds
Correct Answer: 8.76 hours
Explanation:To calculate: hours/year. hours.
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17What does RTO stand for in the context of disaster recovery and SLAs?
A.Real Time Operations
B.Recovery Time Objective
C.Remote Transfer Option
D.Redundant Tape Organization
Correct Answer: Recovery Time Objective
Explanation:RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is the targeted duration of time a business process must be restored after a disaster (or disruption) in order to avoid unacceptable consequences.
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18Which metric refers to the predicted elapsed time between inherent failures of a mechanical system?
A.IOPS
B.Latency
C.MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures)
D.Throughput
Correct Answer: MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures)
Explanation:MTBF measures the reliability of a hardware product or component.
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19Which Windows tool allows administrators to view real-time data on CPU, Memory, Disk, and Network usage?
Explanation:Performance Monitor (PerfMon) and Resource Monitor provide real-time and historical tracking of system resources.
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20When monitoring server performance, what is Baselining?
A.Deleting all logs to start fresh
B.Establishing a standard of normal performance to compare against future behavior
C.Setting the minimum password length
D.physically securing the server to the floor
Correct Answer: Establishing a standard of normal performance to compare against future behavior
Explanation:Baselining involves measuring system performance under normal load to identify what 'normal' looks like, making it easier to spot anomalies later.
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21High Disk Queue Length in Performance Monitor typically indicates:
A.The CPU is overheating
B.The network cable is unplugged
C.The storage system cannot handle the volume of I/O requests (Bottleneck)
D.The RAM is full
Correct Answer: The storage system cannot handle the volume of I/O requests (Bottleneck)
Explanation:Disk Queue Length tracks requests waiting to be processed by the disk. A consistently high number indicates the disk I/O is a bottleneck.
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22What phenomenon occurs when a server lacks sufficient RAM and constantly moves data between RAM and the hard drive?
A.Thrashing / Paging
B.Caching
C.Mirroring
D.Striping
Correct Answer: Thrashing / Paging
Explanation:When RAM is exhausted, the OS uses virtual memory on the disk (paging). Excessive paging leads to 'thrashing,' severely degrading performance.
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23What is the primary goal of Capacity Planning?
A.To determine the maximum weight a server rack can hold
B.To predict future resource requirements to ensure the system can handle growth
C.To clean up old files on the hard drive
D.To schedule employee shifts
Correct Answer: To predict future resource requirements to ensure the system can handle growth
Explanation:Capacity planning involves analyzing current usage and trends to estimate future needs (CPU, RAM, Storage) so upgrades can be implemented before saturation occurs.
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24In capacity planning, what does Scaling Out refer to?
A.Adding more resources (RAM/CPU) to a single existing server
B.Adding more servers to a cluster to distribute the load
C.Reducing the size of the server room
D.Moving data to the cloud
Correct Answer: Adding more servers to a cluster to distribute the load
Explanation:Scaling Out (horizontal scaling) involves adding more nodes/servers. Scaling Up (vertical scaling) involves adding power (RAM/CPU) to a single node.
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25Which storage device uses spinning magnetic platters and read/write heads?
A.SSD (Solid State Drive)
B.HDD (Hard Disk Drive)
C.USB Flash Drive
D.SD Card
Correct Answer: HDD (Hard Disk Drive)
Explanation:HDDs utilize mechanical spinning platters and magnetic heads to read and write data, distinguishing them from flash-based storage.
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26Which storage metric measures the number of read/write operations a device can perform per second?
A.RPM
B.IOPS
C.Bandwidth
D.Latency
Correct Answer: IOPS
Explanation:IOPS (Input/Output Operations Per Second) is the standard benchmark for measuring the transaction speed of storage devices.
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27Which interface protocol was designed specifically for SSDs to reduce latency and utilize the PCIe bus directly?
A.SATA
B.IDE
C.NVMe
D.SCSI
Correct Answer: NVMe
Explanation:NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory express) connects directly via PCIe, bypassing legacy SATA/SAS controller bottlenecks, offering much lower latency and higher speeds.
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28What is DAS (Direct Attached Storage)?
A.Storage connected to a server via a network
B.Storage connected directly to the server chassis (internal or external cable)
C.Storage located in a different city
D.Cloud-based storage
Correct Answer: Storage connected directly to the server chassis (internal or external cable)
Explanation:DAS refers to storage strictly attached to the host server (e.g., internal drives or external USB/SAS enclosure), not accessed over a LAN/WAN.
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29Which storage technology operates at the File Level and is typically accessed via Ethernet using protocols like SMB or NFS?
A.SAN (Storage Area Network)
B.DAS (Direct Attached Storage)
C.NAS (Network Attached Storage)
D.RAM Disk
Correct Answer: NAS (Network Attached Storage)
Explanation:NAS is a file-level storage architecture that makes data available to networked devices, usually presenting shares/folders rather than raw blocks.
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30Which storage technology provides Block Level access to storage over a high-speed network, making the disk appear as if it were locally attached?
A.NAS
B.SAN
C.FTP
D.Google Drive
Correct Answer: SAN
Explanation:A SAN (Storage Area Network) provides block-level access. The OS sees the storage as a raw local disk (LUN), not a shared folder.
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31What is iSCSI?
A.A wireless charging standard
B.A protocol for sending SCSI commands over IP networks
C.A type of hard drive connector
D.A backup software
Correct Answer: A protocol for sending SCSI commands over IP networks
Explanation:iSCSI (Internet Small Computer Systems Interface) allows block-level storage data to be transported over standard IP networks, enabling SANs without expensive Fibre Channel hardware.
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32In a SAN environment, what is a LUN?
A.Logical Unit Number (a slice of storage presented to a host)
B.Local User Name
C.Large Upload Network
D.Linked Utility Node
Correct Answer: Logical Unit Number (a slice of storage presented to a host)
Explanation:A LUN is a unique identifier used to designate an individual or collection of physical or virtual storage devices that execute I/O commands.
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33What is the primary benefit of RAID 0?
A.Full redundancy
B.High performance via striping, but no fault tolerance
C.Mirroring data for safety
D.Slow read speeds
Correct Answer: High performance via striping, but no fault tolerance
Explanation:RAID 0 stripes data across multiple disks to increase speed but offers zero redundancy. If one drive fails, all data is lost.
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34Which RAID level mirrors data across two disks, providing 100% redundancy but 50% capacity efficiency?
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 5
D.RAID 6
Correct Answer: RAID 1
Explanation:RAID 1 writes the exact same data to two drives (mirroring). If one fails, the other operates. You only get the usable capacity of one drive.
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35Which RAID level requires a minimum of 3 disks and uses distributed parity to survive a single drive failure?
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 5
D.RAID 10
Correct Answer: RAID 5
Explanation:RAID 5 stripes data and parity bits across all drives. It requires at least 3 drives and can withstand the failure of 1 drive without data loss.
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36If you have four 2TB drives in a RAID 5 array, what is the approximate usable storage capacity?
A.8 TB
B.4 TB
C.6 TB
D.2 TB
Correct Answer: 6 TB
Explanation:The formula for RAID 5 capacity is , where is the number of drives and is the size of the smallest drive. .
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37What is RAID 10 (or RAID 1+0)?
A.A single drive partitioned ten times
B.A stripe of mirrors
C.A mirror of stripes
D.Ten drives connected in series
Correct Answer: A stripe of mirrors
Explanation:RAID 10 is a nested RAID level that combines RAID 1 (mirroring) and RAID 0 (striping). It provides high performance and high redundancy.
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38Which RAID level is capable of withstanding the simultaneous failure of two disks?
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 5
D.RAID 6
Correct Answer: RAID 6
Explanation:RAID 6 is similar to RAID 5 but writes two distinct parity blocks, allowing the array to function even if two drives fail simultaneously.
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39What is a Hot Spare in a storage configuration?
A.A drive that runs at a higher temperature
B.An idle standby drive that automatically replaces a failed drive in a RAID array
C.A backup tape kept in a fireproof safe
D.An extra fan for the server
Correct Answer: An idle standby drive that automatically replaces a failed drive in a RAID array
Explanation:A hot spare is a drive connected to the system but unused. If an active RAID drive fails, the controller automatically rebuilds data onto the hot spare.
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40Which file system is the native, modern standard for Windows Server environments, supporting large file sizes and ACLs?
A.FAT32
B.NTFS
C.ext4
D.HFS+
Correct Answer: NTFS
Explanation:NTFS (New Technology File System) is the standard for Windows, supporting security permissions (ACLs), compression, encryption, and large volumes.
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41What is the function of Windows Server Manager?
A.To browse the internet
B.To manage server roles, features, and diagnostics from a centralized GUI console
C.To physically clean the server hardware
D.To manage email accounts only
Correct Answer: To manage server roles, features, and diagnostics from a centralized GUI console
Explanation:Server Manager is the primary management console in Windows Server for adding roles, viewing events, and managing local and remote servers.
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42Which technology allows multiple virtual servers to run on a single physical server hardware?
A.Virtualization / Hypervisor
B.Defragmentation
C.Overclocking
D.Subnetting
Correct Answer: Virtualization / Hypervisor
Explanation:Virtualization uses a Hypervisor (like Hyper-V or VMware) to abstract hardware, allowing multiple VMs to share the same physical resources.
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43What is the purpose of Event Viewer logs?
A.To increase disk space
B.To provide a chronological record of system, security, and application notifications or errors
C.To view the current desktop background
D.To chat with other administrators
Correct Answer: To provide a chronological record of system, security, and application notifications or errors
Explanation:Event Viewer records events logged by the OS and applications, which is essential for troubleshooting errors and auditing security.
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44In Windows Server, what does the PowerShell cmdlet Get-Service do?
A.Downloads a file from the internet
B.Lists the status of services installed on the system
C.Shuts down the server
D.Creates a new user
Correct Answer: Lists the status of services installed on the system
Explanation:Get-Service gets objects that represent the services on a computer, showing if they are running or stopped.
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45What is the difference between a Workgroup and a Domain?
A.Workgroups are centralized; Domains are decentralized
B.A Domain provides centralized administration and user account management; a Workgroup is peer-to-peer
C.A Workgroup is for servers; a Domain is for printers
D.There is no difference
Correct Answer: A Domain provides centralized administration and user account management; a Workgroup is peer-to-peer
Explanation:In a Domain (using Active Directory), administration is centralized. In a Workgroup, every computer manages its own users and security.
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46Which storage interface is traditionally associated with enterprise servers and supports daisy-chaining devices?
A.IDE
B.SCSI / SAS
C.Floppy
D.Bluetooth
Correct Answer: SCSI / SAS
Explanation:SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) and older SCSI standards are designed for enterprise reliability, high speeds, and connecting many devices.
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47When implementing storage solutions, what does Deduplication achieve?
A.It copies data twice for safety
B.It eliminates redundant copies of data to save storage space
C.It slows down the hard drive
D.It encrypts the data
Correct Answer: It eliminates redundant copies of data to save storage space
Explanation:Data deduplication identifies and removes duplicate chunks of data, replacing them with pointers to a unique copy, significantly saving space.
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48What is the default port for HTTP traffic on a web server?
A.21
B.25
C.80
D.443
Correct Answer: 80
Explanation:Port 80 is the standard port for unencrypted web traffic (HTTP). Port 443 is for HTTPS.
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49Which term describes a storage network using optical fiber cables and switches to connect servers to storage arrays?
A.Fibre Channel (FC)
B.WiFi
C.Bluetooth
D.Parallel Port
Correct Answer: Fibre Channel (FC)
Explanation:Fibre Channel is a high-speed network technology primarily used to connect computer data storage to servers in SAN environments.
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50If a server's performance log shows high % Processor Time consistently over 90%, what action might be required?
A.Add more Hard Drive space
B.Upgrade the CPU or optimize running processes
C.Change the IP address
D.Replace the monitor
Correct Answer: Upgrade the CPU or optimize running processes
Explanation:Consistently high CPU usage indicates the processor is the bottleneck. The solution involves optimizing code, stopping unnecessary services, or upgrading the CPU (Scaling Up).
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