Unit 2 - Practice Quiz

INT249 59 Questions
0 Correct 0 Wrong 59 Left
0/59

1 After a fresh OS installation, what is one of the first properties you should configure to easily identify the server on a network?

configure local server properties Easy
A. Configure power saving mode
B. Change the server name
C. Install a web browser
D. Set the screen resolution

2 Which local server property is critical for ensuring accurate log file timestamps and proper functioning of time-sensitive authentication protocols?

configure local server properties Easy
A. Workgroup
B. Time Zone
C. Computer Name
D. Display Language

3 In a server operating system, what is the primary purpose of a 'role'?

configure server roles Easy
A. To define a user's permission level
B. To be a software update or patch
C. To define the main function or service the server will provide to the network
D. To act as a hardware driver for a specific device

4 If you wanted a server to host a company website, which server role would you install?

configure server roles Easy
A. Print Server
B. File Server
C. Web Server (IIS)
D. DHCP Server

5 Which server role automatically assigns IP addresses to client computers on a network?

set up IP addressing service roles Easy
A. FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
B. DNS (Domain Name System)
C. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)
D. AD DS (Active Directory Domain Services)

6 What is the primary function of the DNS (Domain Name System) server role?

set up IP addressing service roles Easy
A. To store and manage user login information
B. To translate human-readable domain names (e.g., www.example.com) to IP addresses
C. To host and serve web pages
D. To automatically distribute IP addresses to network devices

7 What is the most important reason for regularly applying updates (patches) to a server?

update the server Easy
A. To change the background wallpaper
B. To free up disk space
C. To get a new user interface
D. To fix security vulnerabilities

8 What is a 'hotfix' or 'patch'?

update the server Easy
A. A complete reinstallation of the operating system
B. A hardware upgrade for the server
C. A small piece of software designed to fix a specific problem or bug
D. A new license key for an application

9 Which protocol provides a secure, encrypted command-line interface for remotely managing a Linux server?

server administration access and control methods Easy
A. SSH (Secure Shell)
B. HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)
C. FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
D. Telnet

10 For managing a Windows Server with a full graphical interface, which remote access method is most commonly used?

server administration access and control methods Easy
A. VNC (Virtual Network Computing)
B. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)
C. SSH (Secure Shell)
D. Telnet

11 What is a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

create service level agreements Easy
A. A software installation guide
B. A document listing all the hardware components in a server
C. A contract defining the expected level of service, availability, and responsibilities
D. A daily checklist for server administrators

12 Which of the following is a primary indicator of a server's processing load?

monitor server performance Easy
A. Available Disk Space
B. Network Speed
C. Server Uptime
D. CPU Utilization

13 If applications on a server are slow and the hard disk activity light is constantly flashing, which resource is most likely the bottleneck?

monitor server performance Easy
A. Network Card
B. Power Supply
C. RAM (Memory)
D. CPU

14 What is the main goal of server capacity planning?

perform capacity planning Easy
A. To choose a new color for the server rack
B. To forecast future resource needs and ensure the server can handle future workloads
C. To minimize the physical size of the server
D. To delete old files to create more space

15 Which of these is considered a primary storage device in a modern server?

deploy primary storage devices Easy
A. Tape Drive
B. Solid-State Drive (SSD)
C. DVD-ROM Drive
D. External USB Drive

16 What is a key difference between NAS (Network Attached Storage) and a standard file server?

storage technologies Easy
A. NAS can only be used by one person at a time
B. NAS is much slower than a file server
C. NAS cannot be accessed over a network
D. NAS is a specialized device optimized specifically for file storage and serving

17 A SAN (Storage Area Network) provides servers with what type of access to storage?

storage technologies Easy
A. Read-only access
B. Block-level access
C. File-level access
D. Web-based access

18 What does the acronym RAID stand for?

configure RAID Easy
A. Remote Access and Integrated Drive
B. Real-time Array of Integrated Drives
C. Rapid Access to Internal Data
D. Redundant Array of Independent Disks

19 Which RAID level provides data protection by writing the exact same data to two separate drives (mirroring)?

configure RAID Easy
A. RAID 1
B. JBOD
C. RAID 0
D. RAID 5

20 What is the primary benefit of RAID 0 (striping)?

configure RAID Easy
A. Increased performance
B. Automatic backups
C. Lower cost
D. Data redundancy

21 A newly deployed server in a branch office needs to synchronize its system clock with the company's primary domain controller, which acts as the authoritative time source. Which of the following PowerShell cmdlets is the most direct way to configure the server to use a specific NTP source?

configure local server properties Medium
A. Set-NetIPAddress -InterfaceIndex 12 -IPAddress 192.168.10.5
B. Set-TimeZone -Id "Eastern Standard Time"
C. w32tm /config /manualpeerlist:"ntp.company.com" /syncfromflags:manual /update
D. Rename-Computer -NewName "BranchSrv01"

22 A company wants to host several internal websites (e.g., intranet.corp.local, hr.corp.local) on a single Windows Server using one IP address. Which feature within the Web Server (IIS) role must be configured to differentiate traffic and direct it to the correct website?

configure server roles Medium
A. Host Header Bindings
B. IP Address and Domain Restrictions
C. SSL Bindings
D. Application Pools

23 A network administrator is configuring a DHCP scope for a new VLAN, 192.168.50.0/24. The network contains several devices with static IP addresses, including printers and switches, in the range 192.168.50.1 to 192.168.50.20. What DHCP feature should be configured to prevent the DHCP server from assigning these addresses to other clients?

set up IP addressing service roles Medium
A. DHCP Reservations
B. Lease Duration
C. Scope Exclusion Range
D. DHCP Filters

24 An organization wants to implement a patch management strategy that allows them to first test updates on a set of non-production servers before deploying them to critical production systems. Which of the following solutions best supports this staged rollout requirement?

update the server Medium
A. Manually downloading every update from the Microsoft Catalog and installing via a script.
B. Deploying Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) and creating separate computer groups for testing and production.
C. Configuring each server's Windows Update to "Download but let me choose to install".
D. Using Group Policy to set the "Active Hours" on all production servers.

25 An administrator needs to manage a fleet of Linux servers and Windows Servers (with PowerShell Core installed) from a single Linux-based management workstation. Which remote administration protocol is standard, secure, and ideal for this cross-platform command-line management scenario?

server administration access and control methods Medium
A. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
B. Secure Shell (SSH)
C. Telnet
D. Virtual Network Computing (VNC)

26 An SLA for a critical web server guarantees 99.9% uptime per month. Approximately how much total downtime is permissible within a 30-day month without violating the SLA?

create service level agreements Medium
A. ~7.2 hours
B. ~4 minutes
C. ~43 minutes
D. ~1.5 hours

27 A system administrator is investigating slow query responses on a database server. The \% Processor Time counter is consistently below 30%, but the \PhysicalDisk\Avg. Disk Queue Length counter is consistently above 3 for the data drive. What is the most likely performance bottleneck?

monitor server performance Medium
A. Network Bandwidth
B. Storage I/O Subsystem
C. CPU Contention
D. Insufficient RAM

28 An administrator is conducting capacity planning for a file server. After establishing a performance baseline, they find that storage usage grows at a predictable rate of 250 GB per month. The server currently has 2 TB of free space. Approximately how many months until the server's storage is full if no action is taken?

perform capacity planning Medium
A. 6 months
B. 4 months
C. 10 months
D. 8 months

29 A company needs to implement a storage solution for a high-performance database cluster. A key requirement is that the storage must be presented to the servers as block-level devices and be accessible by multiple servers simultaneously over a dedicated, high-speed network. Which storage architecture is the best fit?

deploy primary storage devices Medium
A. Storage Area Network (SAN)
B. Network Attached Storage (NAS)
C. Direct Attached Storage (DAS)
D. Cloud Object Storage

30 A company is setting up a new SAN and wants to leverage its existing 10GbE Ethernet network infrastructure to minimize costs, instead of investing in specialized switches and HBAs. Which block storage protocol should they implement?

storage technologies Medium
A. Internet SCSI (iSCSI)
B. Serial Attached SCSI (SAS)
C. Fibre Channel (FC)
D. InfiniBand

31 An administrator is configuring a new server with six identical 2 TB drives. The primary requirement is to provide protection against up to two simultaneous drive failures while maximizing capacity. Which RAID level should be chosen?

configure RAID Medium
A. RAID 5
B. RAID 6
C. RAID 10
D. RAID 1

32 A client device holding a DHCP lease for an IP address successfully renews its lease at the T1 timer. What percentage of the original lease duration has passed at this point?

set up IP addressing service roles Medium
A. 25%
B. 75%
C. 87.5%
D. 50%

33 A junior administrator needs to perform a limited set of tasks on a Windows Server, such as restarting a specific service and checking disk space, but must not be granted full administrative rights. What is the most secure method to delegate this limited access using modern Windows Server features?

server administration access and control methods Medium
A. Giving the user the credentials for the local Administrator account and trusting them.
B. Adding the user to the local Remote Desktop Users group.
C. Adding the user to the Server Operators built-in group.
D. Configuring PowerShell Just Enough Administration (JEA) with a role-specific endpoint.

34 An SLA for a database service defines two key metrics: a Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) of 198 hours and a Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) of 2 hours. Using these metrics, what is the calculated availability of the service?

create service level agreements Medium
A. 98.0%
B. 99.5%
C. 99.9%
D. 99.0%

35 A RAID 5 array is built using five 4 TB disks. What is the total usable storage capacity of this array?

configure RAID Medium
A. 12 TB
B. 20 TB
C. 8 TB
D. 16 TB

36 When conducting capacity planning for a virtual machine host, what is the primary purpose of establishing a performance baseline?

perform capacity planning Medium
A. To document the server's initial configuration for disaster recovery.
B. To determine the typical resource utilization patterns, which are essential for forecasting future needs and identifying anomalies.
C. To satisfy the requirements for a security audit.
D. To immediately justify the purchase of more hardware.

37 To proactively manage server health, an administrator wants to receive a notification before a problem causes an outage. Which of the following alert configurations is the best example of proactive monitoring?

monitor server performance Medium
A. An alert that triggers when a user reports that an application is unavailable.
B. An alert that triggers when a server is no longer responding to ping requests.
C. An alert that triggers when the free space on the OS drive falls below 15%.
D. An alert that triggers when a critical service stops running.

38 An administrator needs to apply a critical security patch to a production database server within a very brief overnight maintenance window. What is the most crucial step to perform to mitigate risk?

update the server Medium
A. Ensure a verified backup or a system snapshot has been taken immediately before patching and a rollback plan is in place.
B. Apply the patch as quickly as possible to stay within the window.
C. Read online forums to see if other users have had issues with the patch.
D. Reboot the server multiple times after the patch is applied to ensure it is stable.

39 A server is being configured to handle a high-transactional online database (OLTP) workload, which involves numerous small, random read and write operations. Which storage technology would provide the best performance for this specific use case?

storage technologies Medium
A. Network Attached Storage (NAS)
B. 10K RPM Hard Disk Drive (HDD)
C. Solid-State Drive (SSD)
D. Tape Backup Drive

40 A company wants to simplify the deployment of new client operating systems on their network. They need a service that allows client computers to boot from the network and receive an OS installation image. Which Windows Server role should be installed and configured to provide this functionality?

configure server roles Medium
A. Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)
B. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS)
C. Hyper-V
D. Windows Deployment Services (WDS)

41 A database server is configured with eight 1TB SAS drives. The primary requirement is the absolute lowest write latency for frequent, small, random I/O operations, with a secondary requirement for redundancy. The budget does not allow for an all-flash array. Which of the following RAID configurations provides the best performance profile for this specific workload, and why?

configure RAID Hard
A. RAID 10 (4 pairs mirrored, then striped): It has no parity calculations, resulting in a significantly lower write penalty (2) compared to RAID 5 (4) or RAID 6 (6), making it ideal for write-intensive databases.
B. RAID 5 (7+1): It offers a good balance of capacity and performance with a single parity block, making it faster than RAID 6.
C. Two separate RAID 1 (mirrored) arrays of 4 drives each: This configuration isolates I/O but doesn't aggregate performance across all eight spindles for a single database volume.
D. RAID 6 (6+2): It provides dual-parity protection, which is essential for an 8-drive array, and the write penalty is manageable.

42 A system administrator is analyzing a virtualized web server's performance. They observe the following sustained counter values: % Processor Time is consistently low (~15%), Memory\Available MBytes is high, and PhysicalDisk\Avg. Disk Queue Length is also low (< 1). However, the Processor Queue Length is consistently greater than 3 per core, and users are reporting slow page load times. What is the most likely bottleneck?

monitor server performance Hard
A. There is a network bandwidth limitation between the web server and the database server.
B. The physical host CPU is overloaded, and the guest VM is experiencing high CPU Ready time.
C. The web application is memory-starved, leading to excessive paging.
D. The storage subsystem is too slow, causing I/O waits.

43 You have configured a DHCP failover relationship in hot standby mode between a primary server (DHCP-A) and a secondary server (DHCP-B). The primary server, DHCP-A, experiences a catastrophic hardware failure. DHCP-B takes over the scope as expected. Later, DHCP-A is restored from a backup that was taken before the failover relationship was created. What is the most likely outcome when DHCP-A is brought back online?

set up IP addressing service roles Hard
A. A manual reconciliation of scopes is required, but no immediate IP conflicts will occur due to DHCPDECLINE messages from clients.
B. DHCP-A will automatically re-establish the hot standby relationship with DHCP-B and sync its database.
C. Both servers will begin issuing conflicting IP addresses, as DHCP-A's database is outdated and unaware of the failover state or leases issued by DHCP-B.
D. DHCP-B will automatically place DHCP-A into a 'Partner Down' state and continue to service all clients.

44 A company wants to consolidate its storage onto a SAN but wishes to leverage its existing 10GbE network infrastructure, including switches and NICs, to minimize costs. They require block-level storage with performance comparable to native Fibre Channel. However, their network switches do not support Data Center Bridging (DCB). Which storage protocol is the most suitable choice under these specific constraints?

storage technologies Hard
A. FCoE (Fibre Channel over Ethernet): This is unsuitable because FCoE requires DCB (also known as CEE) on the network switches to provide a lossless fabric.
B. Fibre Channel (FC): This is not possible as it requires dedicated FC switches and HBAs.
C. NFS (Network File System): This provides file-level access, not the required block-level storage.
D. iSCSI (Internet Small Computer System Interface): This protocol encapsulates SCSI commands in TCP/IP packets, runs over standard Ethernet, and provides block-level access without requiring specialized hardware like DCB-enabled switches.

45 An SLA for a critical application defines an SLO of 99.9% uptime and an MTTR (Mean Time to Recovery) of 15 minutes. During a 30-day month, the system experienced two outages. Outage 1 lasted 12 minutes. Outage 2 lasted 20 minutes. Which statement accurately reflects the SLA compliance for the month?

create service level agreements Hard
A. Both the uptime SLO and the MTTR were breached.
B. The uptime SLO was breached, but the MTTR was met.
C. The uptime SLO was met, but the MTTR was breached.
D. Both the uptime SLO and the MTTR were met.

46 A company uses a hierarchical WSUS setup with one upstream server and multiple downstream replica servers in branch offices. You notice that client computers in one specific branch office are failing to install a newly approved critical security update, reporting error 0x80244019. Other branches are updating correctly. The affected clients can successfully contact their local downstream WSUS replica. What is the most probable cause of this issue?

update the server Hard
A. The BITS service on the clients is stopped or misconfigured.
B. A firewall is blocking communication between the clients and the downstream WSUS server on port 8530.
C. The client computers have a corrupted Windows Update agent.
D. The downstream WSUS replica server has not finished downloading the update content from the upstream server, even though the update metadata (approval) has been replicated.

47 You are creating a PowerShell Just Enough Administration (JEA) role capability file for junior database administrators. You want to allow them to restart a specific service, SQLSERVERAGENT, but not any other service. You also want to allow them to view the status of any service using Get-Service. Which of the following configurations in the .psrc file correctly and most securely implements this requirement?

server administration access and control methods Hard
A. { VisibleCmdlets = 'Get-Service'; AliasDefinitions = @{ Name = 'Restart-SQL'; Value = 'Restart-Service -Name SQLSERVERAGENT'} }
B. { VisibleCmdlets = @{ Name = 'Get-Service' }, @{ Name = 'Restart-Service'; Parameters = @{ Name = 'Name'; ValidateSet = 'SQLSERVERAGENT' } } }
C. { VisibleCmdlets = 'Get-Service', 'Restart-Service' }
D. { VisibleCmdlets = 'Get-Service'; VisibleFunctions = 'Restart-SQLService' } # Assuming Restart-SQLService is a custom function

48 You are performing capacity planning for a file server. You have collected LogicalDisk\% Free Space data for the primary data volume over the past 12 months. The data shows an average decline of 2% per month. The current free space is 30%. The company has a policy to upgrade storage when free space drops below 15%. However, you also observe that for the last 3 months, the decline has accelerated to 4% per month due to a new project. Based on this trend analysis, when should you schedule the storage upgrade?

perform capacity planning Hard
A. In approximately 4 months, by extrapolating the recent, accelerated decline of 4%.
B. Immediately, as the trend is accelerating and unpredictable.
C. In approximately 7-8 months, based on the long-term average decline of 2%.
D. In 15 months, as you only need to address the 15% drop from 30% to the 15% threshold.

49 A server with two 10GbE NICs is configured with a NIC Team in Switch Independent mode with Dynamic load balancing. The server is connected to two different, unmanaged switches for redundancy. It hosts a single, large file transfer application that communicates with multiple clients simultaneously. Administrators notice that while the aggregate network throughput from the server often reaches 12-14 Gbps, no single client can download from the server at a rate faster than ~9.5 Gbps. What is the correct explanation for this behavior?

configure local server properties Hard
A. This is the expected behavior of Switch Independent teaming; outbound traffic can be balanced across NICs, but a single TCP conversation is always bound to a single NIC.
B. One of the physical NICs or switches is malfunctioning and operating at a lower speed.
C. The Dynamic load balancing algorithm is faulty and should be changed to Hyper-V Port.
D. The server's PCI Express bus is saturated and cannot handle the full 20 Gbps from both NICs.

50 A system administrator attempts to install the Hyper-V role on a physical Windows Server that is already configured as a primary domain controller and is also running a specialized, third-party hardware monitoring service that requires direct access to CPU performance counters via low-level MSRs (Model-Specific Registers). After the Hyper-V role is installed and the server reboots, the monitoring service begins to fail with access violation errors. Why is this occurring?

configure server roles Hard
A. Hyper-V and Active Directory Domain Services are mutually exclusive roles and cannot be installed on the same server.
B. The installation of Hyper-V converted the host OS into a privileged parent partition running on top of the hypervisor, which now controls and virtualizes hardware access, blocking the service's direct MSR access.
C. The server does not have enough RAM to run both the hypervisor and the domain controller simultaneously.
D. The network drivers for the monitoring service are incompatible with the Hyper-V Virtual Switch.

51 In a VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) environment using non-persistent desktops, a large number of desktops are created and destroyed daily. The SAN administrator has used thin-provisioned LUNs to host the desktop images to save space. However, they notice that even after a peak usage period ends and most desktops are deleted, the SAN reports that the LUNs are still nearly full. What is the most likely reason for this, and what action is required?

deploy primary storage devices Hard
A. The hypervisor's storage driver is caching the block information and has not released it to the SAN.
B. Thick provisioning should have been used, as thin provisioning is unsuitable for VDI workloads.
C. The SAN is malfunctioning and requires a firmware update to report space correctly.
D. Deleted blocks within the guest OS are not being communicated to the hypervisor and the SAN, requiring a manual space reclamation process like TRIM/UNMAP to be run.

52 A server has a RAID 5 array consisting of 5 x 4TB drives. One drive fails and the array enters a degraded state. A replacement 4TB drive is inserted, and the rebuild process begins. During the rebuild, the RAID controller encounters an Unrecoverable Read Error (URE) on one of the remaining, non-failed drives while trying to read a block needed to reconstruct the data for the new drive. What is the most probable outcome?

configure RAID Hard
A. The controller will automatically convert the array to a RAID 4 to isolate the faulty drive and complete the rebuild.
B. The rebuild process will pause, and the array will remain in a degraded state until the drive with the URE is also replaced.
C. The rebuild will fail, and the entire RAID 5 array will be lost, resulting in data loss.
D. The controller will successfully rebuild the array by using parity data from the other three healthy drives, flagging the single block as bad.

53 You are monitoring a SQL server and see the following behavior: Memory\Available MBytes is very low, Memory\Pages/sec is near zero, and the SQL Server:Buffer Manager\Page life expectancy counter is very high and stable. Users are not reporting any performance issues. A junior admin suggests adding more RAM to the server because the available memory is so low. What is your assessment?

monitor server performance Hard
A. The low available memory and high page life expectancy indicate that the SQL database is heavily fragmented and needs to be re-indexed.
B. The junior admin is correct; low available memory is always a sign of a bottleneck and more RAM is needed.
C. The server has a memory leak in a non-SQL process that is consuming all available RAM.
D. This is normal and healthy behavior for a properly configured SQL Server, which is designed to cache as much data in RAM as possible to improve performance.

54 After several years of service and numerous in-place upgrades and monthly patch cycles, a Windows Server's C: drive is running low on space. Analysis with the Dism.exe tool shows that the Component Store (WinSxS folder) is consuming over 20 GB. Which command sequence is the most effective and appropriate for safely reducing the size of the WinSxS folder?

update the server Hard
A. Using the built-in Disk Cleanup utility and selecting 'Windows Update Cleanup'.
B. Running sfc /scannow followed by chkdsk /f.
C. Manually deleting files from the C:\Windows\WinSxS directory using File Explorer.
D. Running Dism.exe /Online /Cleanup-Image /StartComponentCleanup /ResetBase.

55 A three-tier application consists of a web front-end, a middle-tier application server, and a back-end SQL database server. A user authenticates to the web front-end using their Windows credentials. The web server needs to pass these credentials to the middle-tier server, which then needs to query the SQL server as the original user. This process is failing. All servers are in the same domain. What is the most likely cause of this authentication failure?

server administration access and control methods Hard
A. The SQL Server's firewall is blocking the connection from the middle-tier server.
B. The web server and middle-tier server are in different Active Directory sites, causing replication latency.
C. The application pool identity on the web server lacks the 'Log on as a batch job' user right.
D. Kerberos Constrained Delegation has not been configured for the middle-tier server's computer account in Active Directory to allow it to delegate credentials to the SQL service.

56 You are designing a storage solution for a new data warehousing application. The primary workload consists of running complex queries against very large datasets. This results in I/O patterns that are predominantly large-block (64KB or greater) sequential reads. Writes are infrequent and occur in large batches overnight. Which storage configuration would provide the most cost-effective performance for this specific workload?

storage technologies Hard
A. A cloud-based object storage solution with a local caching gateway.
B. A SAN built with a large number of 10K or 15K RPM SAS HDDs in a RAID 6 array.
C. A hybrid array with a small SSD cache tier and a large HDD capacity tier.
D. An all-flash array (AFA) using NVMe SSDs configured in RAID 10.

57 A company is upgrading a server that runs a critical, but old, single-threaded application. They are replacing an older server that has a 4-core CPU running at 3.5 GHz with a new server that has a 16-core CPU running at 2.5 GHz. After the migration, users complain that the application is now running significantly slower. What is the most likely explanation for this performance degradation?

perform capacity planning Hard
A. The new server has a misconfigured BIOS power management setting, throttling the CPU.
B. The application is single-threaded and is now bottlenecked by the lower per-core clock speed of the new CPU, as it cannot utilize the additional cores.
C. The new server has insufficient RAM, causing the application to page to disk.
D. The application is not compatible with the new server's operating system version.

58 An SLA includes two key metrics: a 99.9% availability Service Level Objective (SLO) and a 95th percentile API response time of under 200ms. In the last month, the service had 100% uptime. However, monitoring shows that for a 3-hour period during a marketing campaign, the API response time for all users peaked at 450ms. For the rest of the month, response times were consistently 50ms. Which statement is true?

create service level agreements Hard
A. The SLA was fully met because the 99.9% uptime SLO was achieved.
B. The SLA was not breached because the high response time was temporary and the average response time for the month was low.
C. It is impossible to determine SLA compliance without knowing the Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF).
D. The SLA was breached because the 95th percentile response time metric was violated.

59 You are configuring a storage array for a virtual machine host that will run a write-heavy online transaction processing (OLTP) database. The array is populated entirely with enterprise-grade MLC SSDs. You are concerned about drive endurance and write amplification. Which RAID level would be the most detrimental to the lifespan of the SSDs in this specific scenario?

configure RAID Hard
A. RAID 10: It also has a write amplification factor of 2, mirroring each write.
B. RAID 0: It has a write amplification factor of 1, but offers no redundancy.
C. RAID 1: It has a write amplification factor of 2, which is predictable.
D. RAID 5: Its read-modify-write operation significantly increases write amplification beyond the data and parity writes, causing excessive wear on the SSDs.