Unit 2 - Practice Quiz

INT242 60 Questions
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1 What is the primary purpose of authentication in cyber security?

Authentication Easy
A. To monitor network traffic
B. To verify a user's identity
C. To grant a user access to specific files
D. To encrypt data in transit

2 After a user is successfully authenticated, what is the next step that determines their level of access?

Authorization Easy
A. Identification
B. Accounting
C. Auditing
D. Authorization

3 Which network security appliance is designed to monitor and filter incoming and outgoing network traffic based on a set of security rules?

Network Security Appliances Easy
A. Switch
B. Firewall
C. Router
D. Load Balancer

4 What does the 'S' in HTTPS stand for?

Secure Communications Easy
A. System
B. Standard
C. Secure
D. Service

5 What is the process of creating a new user account and assigning it initial permissions called?

Identity Management Easy
A. Authenticating
B. Provisioning
C. De-provisioning
D. Auditing

6 A password is an example of which type of authentication factor?

Authentication Easy
A. Something you have
B. Something you are
C. Something you know
D. Somewhere you are

7 The security principle that states a user should only have the minimum set of permissions required to perform their job is known as what?

Authorization Easy
A. Principle of Least Privilege
B. Principle of Open Access
C. Principle of Full Authorization
D. Principle of Defense in Depth

8 What is a DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) in a network architecture?

Secure Enterprise Network Architecture Easy
A. A completely secure, internal-only network segment
B. A physical area where servers are kept under lock and key
C. A type of wireless network
D. A perimeter network that protects an organization's internal LAN from untrusted traffic

9 What is the main function of a VPN (Virtual Private Network)?

Network Security Appliances Easy
A. To automatically update system software
B. To increase the speed of an internet connection
C. To create a secure and encrypted connection over a less secure network, like the internet
D. To block advertisements on websites

10 What is the overall goal of an Identity and Access Management (IAM) system?

Implement Identity and Access Management Easy
A. To detect viruses and malware on a computer
B. To design the physical layout of a network
C. To perform regular data backups
D. To manage user identities and control their access to resources

11 What does LAN stand for?

Enterprise Network Architecture Easy
A. Logical Access Node
B. Large Area Network
C. Limited Access Network
D. Local Area Network

12 What is the process of converting readable data (plaintext) into an unreadable format (ciphertext) called?

Secure Communications Easy
A. Encryption
B. Hashing
C. Authentication
D. Decryption

13 Using a password plus a one-time code from a mobile app is an example of:

Authentication Easy
A. Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
B. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
C. Password-less Authentication
D. Single Sign-On (SSO)

14 What is the process of removing a user's access rights when they leave an organization?

Identity Management Easy
A. De-provisioning
B. Re-authentication
C. Provisioning
D. Onboarding

15 Which type of security system is designed to detect malicious activity and then send an alert, but not stop the activity itself?

Network Security Appliances Easy
A. Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
B. Web Application Firewall (WAF)
C. Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
D. Firewall

16 Why is network segmentation a good security practice?

Secure Enterprise Network Architecture Easy
A. It makes the network easier to physically cable
B. It limits the spread of an attack by containing it within a smaller part of the network
C. It makes the network faster for all users
D. It reduces the number of passwords users need to remember

17 In Role-Based Access Control (RBAC), how are permissions assigned to users?

Authorization Easy
A. Permissions are assigned to roles, and users are then assigned to those roles
B. Permissions are based on the user's physical location
C. All users are given the same set of permissions
D. Permissions are assigned directly to each individual user

18 Which of these devices operates at the center of a star topology network, connecting all other devices?

Enterprise Network Architecture Easy
A. Switch
B. Terminator
C. Bridge
D. Repeater

19 What does SSO stand for?

Implement Identity and Access Management Easy
A. Single Sign-On
B. Standard Security Option
C. Secure System Object
D. System Service Operator

20 A user's username, email address, and employee ID are all examples of:

Identity Management Easy
A. Authentication factors
B. Attributes of a digital identity
C. Encryption keys
D. Network protocols

21 A financial services company is upgrading its multi-factor authentication (MFA) system. To achieve the highest level of assurance, which combination of factors should be implemented for accessing sensitive customer data?

Authentication Medium
A. Somewhere you are (geolocation) and something you have (software token)
B. Something you know (password) and something you have (hardware token)
C. Something you are (fingerprint scan) and something you know (complex password)
D. Something you have (SMS one-time password) and something you know (PIN)

22 An organization uses a Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) model. An employee in the 'Accountant' role is temporarily assigned to a special audit project that requires read-only access to HR records. What is the most appropriate way to grant this access according to the principle of least privilege?

Authorization Medium
A. Create a new role called 'Audit_Project_HR_Access' with the necessary permissions and assign it to the employee for the project's duration.
B. Modify the existing 'Accountant' role to include read-only access to HR records.
C. Temporarily add the employee to the 'HR_Manager' role.
D. Add the HR read-only permissions directly to the employee's user account.

23 A company wants to host a public-facing web application server and a backend database server. To minimize the attack surface on the internal network, what is the best architectural placement for these servers?

Secure Enterprise Network Architecture Medium
A. Place both the web server and database server in a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ).
B. Place the web server in the internal network and the database server in a DMZ.
C. Place both the web server and database server in the internal network.
D. Place the web server in a DMZ and the database server in the internal, secured network, with a firewall rule allowing only specific traffic from the web server.

24 Your company wants to allow employees to use their corporate Active Directory credentials to log into a third-party SaaS application like Salesforce. Which technology is designed to enable this kind of cross-domain, federated single sign-on (SSO)?

Identity Management Medium
A. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)
B. Kerberos
C. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)
D. SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language)

25 A security operations center (SOC) notices a surge in attacks targeting their web servers, specifically SQL Injection and Cross-Site Scripting (XSS). Which network security appliance should be deployed and configured to specifically inspect HTTP/HTTPS traffic and block these application-layer attacks?

Network Security Appliances Medium
A. A Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance's proxy feature
B. A traditional stateful packet inspection firewall
C. A network Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
D. A Web Application Firewall (WAF)

26 What is a fundamental difference in how TLS (Transport Layer Security) and IPsec in Tunnel Mode provide confidentiality for data transmitted over a network?

Secure Communications Medium
A. TLS encrypts data at the Application Layer, while IPsec Tunnel Mode encrypts the entire IP packet at the Network Layer.
B. TLS only provides authentication, not encryption, while IPsec provides both.
C. TLS uses symmetric encryption, while IPsec Tunnel Mode uses asymmetric encryption for all data.
D. TLS operates at the Network Layer (Layer 3), while IPsec Tunnel Mode operates at the Transport Layer (Layer 4).

27 A security audit reveals that many long-term employees have accumulated excessive permissions beyond their current job requirements, a phenomenon known as 'privilege creep'. Which IAM process is specifically designed to mitigate this issue?

Implement Identity and Access Management Medium
A. User Provisioning
B. Access Certification and Recertification
C. Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
D. Federated Identity Management

28 An application's authentication token can be captured and re-sent by an attacker to gain unauthorized access. To mitigate this replay attack, the authentication protocol is being updated. Which of the following additions would be most effective?

Authentication Medium
A. Enforcing a stricter password complexity policy for users.
B. Increasing the token's encryption strength from AES-128 to AES-256.
C. Hashing the user's password using a stronger algorithm like bcrypt.
D. Including a unique, single-use number (nonce) or a timestamp in each authentication request.

29 A large, dynamic organization with many contractors needs a highly granular access control system. Decisions must be based on real-time context, such as user location, time of day, and the data's sensitivity level. Which access control model best supports these requirements?

Authorization Medium
A. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
B. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
C. Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)
D. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

30 In the Cisco three-tier hierarchical network model, what is the primary function of the Distribution Layer?

Enterprise Network Architecture Medium
A. To act as the demarcation point between the enterprise network and the internet.
B. To connect end-user devices, like workstations and printers, to the network.
C. To aggregate traffic from the Access Layer and enforce network policies like routing between VLANs and access control lists.
D. To provide high-speed, non-blocking packet switching for the network backbone.

31 During a routine security audit, an administrator discovers several active user accounts for employees who left the company months ago. This security risk is a direct failure of which identity lifecycle management phase?

Identity Management Medium
A. Authentication
B. Authorization
C. De-provisioning
D. Provisioning

32 What is the primary security benefit of implementing network segmentation using VLANs and firewalls in a corporate environment?

Secure Enterprise Network Architecture Medium
A. It increases the overall bandwidth available to end-users.
B. It simplifies the IP addressing scheme across the organization.
C. It encrypts all traffic flowing between the network segments.
D. It contains security breaches by preventing lateral movement between different network segments.

33 In a Microsoft Active Directory environment, how does the Kerberos protocol fundamentally differ from a protocol like RADIUS for service authentication?

Authentication Medium
A. Kerberos is a centralized AAA protocol, while RADIUS is decentralized.
B. RADIUS encrypts the entire authentication packet, while Kerberos only encrypts the password.
C. Kerberos uses a ticket-granting system (TGT and Service Tickets) to provide access to multiple services after an initial login, whereas RADIUS re-authenticates for each service.
D. Kerberos is designed for network access control (like Wi-Fi), while RADIUS is used for file server access.

34 What key capability allows a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) to create more granular security policies than a traditional stateful firewall?

Network Security Appliances Medium
A. The ability to maintain a state table of active connections.
B. The ability to filter traffic based on source and destination IP addresses and ports.
C. The ability to perform deep packet inspection (DPI) to identify and control specific applications (e.g., Facebook, YouTube) regardless of the port used.
D. The ability to perform Network Address Translation (NAT).

35 An employee needs to connect their laptop to the corporate network over an untrusted public Wi-Fi network. They must ensure that all their network traffic (web, email, etc.) is securely encrypted between their laptop and the corporate gateway. Which technology is most suitable for this purpose?

Secure Communications Medium
A. Using HTTPS for all web browsing.
B. Connecting to the office file server via SSH File Transfer Protocol (SFTP).
C. Establishing a Virtual Private Network (VPN) connection to the corporate firewall.
D. Configuring a SOCKS proxy in their web browser.

36 A company's file server uses a Discretionary Access Control (DAC) model. A user in the engineering department creates a sensitive design document and, to collaborate, grants read/write permissions to a colleague in marketing. This action, while allowed by the system, violates company policy. This scenario highlights which inherent weakness of DAC?

Authorization Medium
A. DAC requires security labels on all objects, which is difficult to maintain.
B. DAC does not allow users to share files with colleagues.
C. DAC is too complex to manage for a large number of users.
D. Access control is determined by the data owner, which may not align with organizational security policy.

37 A rapidly growing company is automating its onboarding process. When a new employee's data is entered into the HR system, an account should be automatically created in Active Directory, a mailbox set up in Office 365, and access granted to the company portal. What is the correct IAM term for this automated process?

Identity Management Medium
A. Authentication
B. Federation
C. Provisioning
D. Attestation

38 An organization is adopting a Zero Trust security model. A security review finds that any device connected to the internal wired network is automatically trusted and can attempt to connect to the internal finance server without re-authentication or posture checking. Which core principle of Zero Trust does this configuration violate?

Secure Enterprise Network Architecture Medium
A. Enforce the principle of least privilege.
B. Encrypt all communications.
C. Never trust, always verify.
D. Implement network segmentation.

39 A company is designing a Wide Area Network (WAN) to connect its headquarters to several branch offices. They require a solution that provides Quality of Service (QoS) guarantees for VoIP traffic and separates their traffic from other customers on the provider's network. Which WAN technology is best suited for these requirements?

Enterprise Network Architecture Medium
A. A series of dedicated T1 leased lines
B. Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)
C. Site-to-Site VPN over the public internet
D. Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)

40 What is the primary security advantage of implementing a centralized Identity and Access Management (IAM) solution, such as Active Directory or Okta, compared to managing local user accounts on each individual server and application?

Implement Identity and Access Management Medium
A. It eliminates the need for users to remember passwords by enabling passwordless authentication on all systems.
B. It allows for the consistent enforcement of security policies (e.g., password complexity, MFA) and simplified access revocation from a single point of control.
C. It reduces the cost of server hardware by requiring fewer domain controllers.
D. It guarantees that all applications will have 100% uptime.

41 An attacker has successfully compromised a Domain Controller and extracted the NTLM hash of the KRBTGT account. Which of the following Kerberos attacks can they now execute, and what is its primary characteristic?

Authentication Hard
A. Silver Ticket Attack, allowing the attacker to forge Ticket-Granting Service (TGS) tickets for a specific service on a specific server.
B. Pass-the-Hash Attack, allowing the attacker to authenticate as the KRBTGT user to any service in the domain.
C. Golden Ticket Attack, allowing the attacker to forge Ticket-Granting Tickets (TGTs) for any user with arbitrary lifetimes.
D. Kerberoasting, allowing the attacker to crack the plaintext password of the KRBTGT account offline.

42 A Single Page Application (SPA) is using OAuth 2.0 for authorization. The security team wants to mitigate the risk of authorization code interception by malicious clients on the user's device. Which grant type and extension combination provides the best protection against this specific threat?

Authorization Hard
A. Resource Owner Password Credentials Grant over HTTPS.
B. Authorization Code Grant with Proof Key for Code Exchange (PKCE).
C. Implicit Grant with strict redirect_uri validation.
D. Client Credentials Grant with mTLS.

43 In a Zero Trust architecture, a security architect is deciding on the primary enforcement point for east-west traffic between microservices running in a Kubernetes cluster. Which of the following provides the most granular, cryptographically-verifiable, and application-aware control?

Secure Enterprise Network Architecture Hard
A. A service mesh (e.g., Istio, Linkerd) enforcing mutual TLS (mTLS) and Layer-7 policies between pods.
B. Kubernetes NetworkPolicies to control traffic flow at the IP address and port level.
C. Network ACLs (NACLs) at the VPC subnet level to filter traffic based on IP ranges.
D. A traditional next-generation firewall (NGFW) virtual appliance inspecting all inter-subnet traffic.

44 A Web Application Firewall (WAF) and a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) with deep packet inspection (DPI) are deployed in-line. An attacker attempts a blind SQL injection attack where the malicious SQL payload is embedded within a Base64-encoded parameter in an HTTPS POST request. Why is the WAF generally more effective at detecting and blocking this specific attack?

Network Security Appliances Hard
A. The NGFW cannot inspect encrypted HTTPS traffic, so the payload remains invisible to it.
B. The NGFW's DPI engine is optimized for network protocols and signatures, not complex application-layer encoding schemes.
C. The WAF is designed to terminate the TLS session, decode application-specific encodings like Base64, and analyze the application logic (e.g., SQL syntax).
D. The WAF operates at a higher OSI layer (Layer 7) than the NGFW (Layer 4), inherently giving it better visibility.

45 A large enterprise is merging two organizations. Org A uses on-premises Active Directory Federated Services (ADFS). Org B uses Azure Active Directory. The goal is to allow users from Org B to seamlessly access legacy, on-premises SAML applications in Org A without migrating all identities. What is the most appropriate federation strategy to achieve this with minimal disruption?

Identity Management Hard
A. Configure Azure AD as a Claims Provider Trust in Org A's ADFS. Users from Org B will authenticate against Azure AD, which then issues a token that ADFS trusts and uses to issue its own token for the legacy apps.
B. Configure each legacy SAML application in Org A to trust Azure AD as a second, separate Identity Provider (IdP).
C. Deploy Azure AD Connect in Org B to synchronize its identities to Org A's on-premises Active Directory.
D. Establish a one-way forest trust from Org A's AD to Org B's Azure AD Domain Services.

46 A security audit of a VPN gateway reveals it is configured to use IPsec in Transport Mode for site-to-site communication between two corporate networks. What is the primary security flaw or limitation of this configuration compared to the standard practice?

Secure Communications Hard
A. Transport Mode encapsulates the entire original packet in a new IP packet, which is unnecessary for site-to-site communication.
B. Transport Mode is less performant than Tunnel Mode due to higher cryptographic overhead per packet.
C. Transport Mode only encrypts the payload of the IP packet, leaving the original IP headers (source and destination IPs) exposed, which leaks network topology information.
D. Transport Mode does not work with Network Address Translation (NAT) and is therefore unsuitable for traversing the internet.

47 A company is implementing a Conditional Access Policy in their IdP. The policy is defined as: IF user.group == 'Admins' AND location.ip != 'Trusted_HQ_IP' AND device.isCompliant == true THEN GRANT access WITH mfa. Which of the following scenarios represents a logical flaw or a significant gap in this policy?

Implement Identity and Access Management Hard
A. A regular user on a compliant device outside the trusted IP range is blocked from accessing resources.
B. An administrator on a non-compliant device inside the Trusted HQ IP range can access resources without an MFA prompt.
C. An administrator on a compliant device outside the trusted IP range is correctly prompted for MFA.
D. An administrator on a non-compliant device outside the trusted IP range is denied access.

48 When comparing Time-based One-Time Password (TOTP) and FIDO2/WebAuthn as MFA factors, what is the core cryptographic reason FIDO2 offers superior protection against real-time, man-in-the-middle phishing attacks?

Authentication Hard
A. The FIDO2 private key never leaves the secure hardware authenticator, whereas the TOTP shared secret can be phished from the user.
B. FIDO2 uses asymmetric cryptography (public/private keys), which is inherently more secure than the symmetric cryptography (shared secret) used by TOTP.
C. FIDO2 authenticators sign a challenge that includes the origin (domain name) of the requesting site, making the signature invalid for a phishing site even if the user approves it.
D. FIDO2 requires a user gesture (like a touch), which prevents automated attacks, while TOTP codes can be entered by bots.

49 An API gateway is configured to validate JWTs. An access token is presented with the following claims: {"iss": "https://idp.example.com", "sub": "user123", "aud": "api.service-A.com", "scope": "read:data write:data"}. The request is for the endpoint https://api.service-B.com/data. The gateway's validation logic correctly verifies the signature and issuer (iss), but the request is still insecurely processed. What is the most likely validation step that was missed?

Authorization Hard
A. The gateway failed to check the scope claim to ensure the user has permission to access the data.
B. The gateway failed to validate the exp (Expiration) claim, allowing a stale token to be used.
C. The gateway failed to validate the aud (Audience) claim. The token was intended for service-A, not service-B.
D. The gateway failed to validate the sub (Subject) claim, leading to an incorrect user identity being assumed.

50 A security team is deciding between using a dedicated network TAP or a switch's SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer) port to forward traffic to an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) for forensic analysis. For ensuring the highest fidelity of captured data, especially during a high-throughput Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attack, why is a network TAP the superior choice?

Network Security Appliances Hard
A. A network TAP can inject traffic back into the network to actively block threats, which a SPAN port cannot.
B. A SPAN port can only mirror traffic from a single source port, while a TAP can aggregate traffic from multiple network segments.
C. A network TAP is a passive device that creates an exact copy of all traffic, including physical layer errors, whereas a SPAN port may drop packets under heavy load as the SPAN process is a low-priority task for the switch's CPU.
D. A SPAN port introduces significant latency to the production network link, while a TAP operates with zero latency.

51 When migrating from a traditional three-tier (core, distribution, access) network architecture to a spine-leaf architecture, what is the most significant challenge from a security policy enforcement perspective?

Enterprise Network Architecture Hard
A. The increased number of physical connections makes cable management and physical security more complex.
B. The higher bandwidth capabilities of spine-leaf fabrics make it difficult for security appliances to keep up with the traffic flow.
C. The proliferation of east-west traffic, which now bypasses traditional centralized firewalls (choke points) that were typically placed at the distribution or core layer.
D. Spine-leaf architectures typically use proprietary protocols, leading to vendor lock-in for security appliances.

52 A web server's TLS configuration supports the cipher suite TLS_ECDHE_RSA_WITH_AES_128_CBC_SHA. A security scanner flags this as weak due to the use of CBC mode. What specific, well-known attack is associated with CBC mode in TLS 1.2 and earlier, even when using a modern key exchange like ECDHE?

Secure Communications Hard
A. The BEAST (Browser Exploit Against SSL/TLS) attack, which exploits a vulnerability in how CBC's initialization vectors (IVs) were chosen and chained.
B. The Logjam attack, which is a downgrade attack targeting the Diffie-Hellman key exchange.
C. The Heartbleed attack, which was a memory disclosure vulnerability in the OpenSSL library's heartbeat extension.
D. The CRIME attack, which uses data compression to leak information from the encrypted session.

53 A company wants to automate user lifecycle management for its SaaS applications. They are evaluating Just-In-Time (JIT) provisioning versus using the System for Cross-domain Identity Management (SCIM) protocol. Which of the following is a primary advantage of using SCIM over JIT?

Identity Management Hard
A. SCIM supports real-time, push-based updates from the IdP to the SP, while JIT is a pull-based model that can have significant delays.
B. SCIM provides a standardized protocol for de-provisioning users and synchronizing attribute changes, whereas JIT only handles initial user creation.
C. JIT provisioning only works with SAML, while SCIM is compatible with both SAML and OpenID Connect.
D. JIT provisioning requires a complex on-premises agent, while SCIM is a fully agentless cloud-to-cloud protocol.

54 An organization is deploying a deception network. The security team places a low-interaction honeypot with emulated SSH and RDP services in the DMZ and a high-interaction honeypot (a fully functional, sandboxed server) in a VLAN adjacent to the production database servers. What is the differential strategic value of these two placements?

Secure Enterprise Network Architecture Hard
A. The DMZ honeypot acts as an early warning system for external, opportunistic scans, while the internal honeypot is designed to detect and analyze advanced attackers who have already breached the perimeter.
B. The high-interaction honeypot in the DMZ would be too easily compromised, so a low-interaction one is used. The internal honeypot is safer because of the perimeter firewall.
C. The low-interaction honeypot serves as a decoy to absorb DDoS traffic, while the high-interaction honeypot is for training junior security analysts.
D. The DMZ honeypot is used to gather threat intelligence on zero-day exploits, while the internal honeypot is for logging internal policy violations.

55 In an Active Directory environment, a service account is configured for Kerberos Unconstrained Delegation. What is the most severe security risk associated with this configuration?

Authentication Hard
A. The service account's password must be stored in reversible encryption, making it easier to compromise.
B. The service account cannot be a member of the Protected Users group, reducing its overall security posture.
C. An attacker can perform an offline brute-force attack against the service account's password by requesting a service ticket for it (Kerberoasting).
D. If the service account is compromised, an attacker can impersonate any user who authenticates to that service and access any other resource in the domain as that user.

56 A system uses Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC). The policy states: Permit IF (user.role == 'doctor' AND resource.type == 'patient_record' AND resource.owner_id == user.id) OR (user.role == 'researcher' AND resource.sensitivity == 'anonymized' AND time.hour > 9 AND time.hour < 17). A user with the role 'researcher' attempts to access a 'patient_record' with sensitivity = 'anonymized' at 8 PM (20:00). What is the outcome and why?

Authorization Hard
A. Error, because the policy has conflicting rules for the 'researcher' role.
B. Deny, because the time condition (time.hour < 17) is not met.
C. Permit, because the user is a 'researcher' and the data is 'anonymized'.
D. Deny, because a 'researcher' can never access a resource of type 'patient_record'.

57 An enterprise implements an explicit forward proxy for all user web traffic, which performs full SSL/TLS inspection. To do this, the proxy generates and signs certificates for all HTTPS sites on-the-fly using a corporate root CA certificate that is installed on all client machines. What is a significant security risk introduced by this architecture?

Network Security Appliances Hard
A. It prevents users from accessing websites that use Extended Validation (EV) certificates, as the proxy cannot replicate the EV status.
B. The performance overhead of on-the-fly certificate generation creates a bottleneck and adds significant latency to all web traffic.
C. It breaks client-side certificate pinning, potentially allowing the proxy to hide a man-in-the-middle attack against a site that uses it, if the proxy's own validation is flawed.
D. It is incompatible with the new TLS 1.3 standard, forcing all connections to be downgraded to TLS 1.2.

58 When comparing SAML 2.0 and OpenID Connect (OIDC) for building a modern identity federation solution, what is a key architectural advantage of OIDC that makes it better suited for mobile and single-page applications?

Implement Identity and Access Management Hard
A. OIDC is built on top of OAuth 2.0 and provides identity information via RESTful, JSON-based ID Tokens, which are easier for modern clients to parse and handle than XML-based SAML assertions.
B. OIDC supports a wider range of cryptographic algorithms for signing tokens, making it more secure than SAML.
C. SAML requires a direct, synchronous back-channel communication between the Service Provider and Identity Provider, which is difficult in mobile environments.
D. OIDC mandates the use of multi-factor authentication, whereas SAML treats it as an optional extension.

59 An organization is using an Identity Governance and Administration (IGA) tool to conduct quarterly access certification campaigns. The tool detects that a specific manager has an approval rate of 100% over the last four campaigns, with an average approval time of under 5 seconds per request. This suggests 'rubber-stamping' rather than genuine review. Which IGA feature is best suited to mitigate the risk from this behavior?

Identity Management Hard
A. Enforcing Separation of Duties (SoD) policies to prevent the manager from approving access to systems they also manage.
B. Increasing the frequency of the certification campaigns from quarterly to monthly to reduce the number of items in each review.
C. Implementing outlier detection, which flags anomalous approval patterns and can trigger a secondary review by a security officer or a higher-level manager.
D. Using role-based access control (RBAC) to simplify the number of permissions the manager needs to review.

60 A packet capture of a TLS 1.3 handshake is analyzed. An observer can see the ClientHello and ServerHello messages, but the server's certificate is not visible in a plaintext Certificate message as it was in TLS 1.2. Why is this the case, and what is the security benefit?

Secure Communications Hard
A. The certificate is compressed using a proprietary algorithm that Wireshark cannot dissect by default.
B. In TLS 1.3, most of the handshake after the ServerHello, including the server's certificate and extensions, is encrypted. This enhances privacy by preventing passive eavesdroppers from identifying the server or its configuration.
C. The certificate is sent over a separate, out-of-band channel for security, not within the main TLS handshake.
D. TLS 1.3 uses a cached session from a previous connection, and therefore does not need to send the certificate again.