1In the context of Cloud Infrastructure, which model places the most responsibility for security management on the Cloud Service Provider (CSP) rather than the customer?
A.Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B.Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C.Software as a Service (SaaS)
D.Function as a Service (FaaS)
Correct Answer: Software as a Service (SaaS)
Explanation:In the SaaS model, the CSP manages the underlying infrastructure, operating system, and application software. The customer is primarily responsible for data and identity management, representing the least responsibility for the customer compared to IaaS or PaaS.
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2Which component in a virtualized cloud environment creates and runs virtual machines (VMs) by abstracting the guest operating systems from the underlying hardware?
A.Container Engine
B.Hypervisor
C.Kubernetes Pod
D.Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)
Correct Answer: Hypervisor
Explanation:A Hypervisor (or Virtual Machine Monitor - VMM) is software, firmware, or hardware that creates and runs virtual machines. It sits between the hardware and the virtual machines to manage resource allocation.
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3Which of the following describes a 'Type 1' Hypervisor?
A.It runs as an application on top of a host operating system.
B.It runs directly on the bare-metal hardware.
C.It is exclusively used for container orchestration.
D.It requires a host OS to translate hardware calls.
Correct Answer: It runs directly on the bare-metal hardware.
Explanation:A Type 1 Hypervisor (Bare-metal) installs directly on the physical server hardware without a host operating system. Examples include ESXi and Hyper-V. Type 2 hypervisors run on top of a host OS.
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4What is the primary security challenge associated with 'Shadow IT' in Asset Management?
A.It increases the cost of software licensing excessively.
B.It involves hardware that is too old to be patched.
C.It refers to unauthorized devices or software used without organizational approval/visibility.
D.It requires physical access to the server room.
Correct Answer: It refers to unauthorized devices or software used without organizational approval/visibility.
Explanation:Shadow IT refers to information technology systems deployed by departments other than the central IT department, to work around the perceived or actual shortcomings of the central information systems. It creates a blind spot for security teams.
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5In a Zero Trust Architecture (ZTA), what is the core guiding principle regarding trust?
A.Trust inside the perimeter, verify outside.
B.Trust but verify.
C.Never trust, always verify.
D.Trust everyone with a valid certificate.
Correct Answer: Never trust, always verify.
Explanation:Zero Trust assumes there is no implicit trust granted to assets or user accounts based solely on their physical or network location. Authentication and authorization must be verified before granting access to data or resources.
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6Which Zero Trust component is responsible for making the final decision on whether to grant access to a resource based on policy?
A.Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)
B.Policy Decision Point (PDP)
C.Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D.Identity Provider (IdP)
Correct Answer: Policy Decision Point (PDP)
Explanation:The Policy Decision Point (PDP) is the brain of the Zero Trust architecture. It breaks down the access request and decides based on policy whether access should be granted. The PEP then executes this decision.
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7Which redundancy strategy involves keeping a duplicate site up-to-date with data but requires a manual switchover and start-up time in the event of a disaster?
A.Hot Site
B.Cold Site
C.Warm Site
D.Mirrored Site
Correct Answer: Warm Site
Explanation:A Warm Site contains the necessary hardware and connectivity, and data is backed up to it periodically (not real-time). It requires some time to restore current data and bring systems online, unlike a Hot Site (immediate) or Cold Site (empty shell).
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8What is the primary function of a Load Balancer in network architecture resiliency?
A.To encrypt traffic between the client and server.
B.To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers.
C.To filter malicious packets based on port numbers.
D.To backup database transactions to a remote site.
Correct Answer: To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers.
Explanation:Load Balancers distribute traffic across a pool of servers (server farm). This ensures no single server bears too much demand, improving responsiveness and increasing availability (resiliency) if one server fails.
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9In the context of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks), which level provides disk striping with parity, allowing the system to withstand the failure of a single drive?
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 5
D.RAID 10
Correct Answer: RAID 5
Explanation:RAID 5 uses block-level striping with distributed parity. If one drive fails, the data can be reconstructed from the remaining drives and the parity information. RAID 0 has no redundancy, and RAID 1 is mirroring.
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10Embedded systems like IoT devices often lack robust security primarily because:
A.They run on Windows Server operating systems.
B.They are air-gapped from the internet.
C.They have constraints on power, processing capability, and memory.
D.They use quantum encryption which is incompatible with standard networks.
Correct Answer: They have constraints on power, processing capability, and memory.
Explanation:Embedded systems are designed for specific tasks with limited hardware resources (power, compute, memory). This makes running standard security agents, encryption, or automatic patching mechanisms difficult or impossible.
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11What is the term for a system specifically designed to control industrial processes, such as manufacturing lines or power grids?
A.CRM (Customer Relationship Management)
B.SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition)
C.ERP (Enterprise Resource Planning)
D.BIOS (Basic Input/Output System)
Correct Answer: SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition)
Explanation:SCADA systems are a subset of Industrial Control Systems (ICS) used to monitor and control industrial processes and infrastructure.
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12Which physical security control creates a small space with two interlocking doors where the first must close before the second opens?
A.Faraday Cage
B.Biometric Scanner
C.Mantrap
D.Turnstile
Correct Answer: Mantrap
Explanation:A Mantrap (or access control vestibule) prevents tailgating. It controls entry by ensuring only one person is authenticated and passes through the first door before the second door unlocks.
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13An 'Air Gap' in network architecture refers to:
A.The distance between wireless access points.
B.A physical isolation of a secure network from unsecured networks (like the internet).
C.The latency caused by satellite communications.
D.A vulnerability in the Wi-Fi protocol.
Correct Answer: A physical isolation of a secure network from unsecured networks (like the internet).
Explanation:An Air Gap is a security measure where a computer or network is physically isolated from other networks, specifically unsecured ones like the public internet, to prevent remote hacking.
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14Which of the following is considered a 'Side-Channel Attack' often relevant to embedded systems?
A.SQL Injection
B.Power Analysis Attack
C.Phishing
D.Brute Force Password Guessing
Correct Answer: Power Analysis Attack
Explanation:A Side-Channel Attack exploits information leaked from the physical implementation of a cryptosystem, such as power consumption, electromagnetic leaks, or sound, rather than weaknesses in the algorithm itself.
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15In the context of Vulnerability Management, what does the acronym CVE stand for?
A.Common Vulnerability Enumeration
B.Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
C.Cyber Vulnerability Evaluation
D.Critical Virus Event
Correct Answer: Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
Explanation:CVE is a dictionary of publicly known information security vulnerabilities and exposures. It provides a standard identifier (e.g., CVE-2023-1234) for vulnerabilities.
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16Which scoring system is the industry standard for assessing the severity of computer system security vulnerabilities?
Explanation:CVSS provides a way to capture the principal characteristics of a vulnerability and produce a numerical score (0.0 to 10.0) reflecting its severity.
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17A buffer overflow vulnerability occurs when:
A.A program writes more data to a block of memory than the buffer is allocated to hold.
B.A user inputs a weak password.
C.A firewall blocks too many packets simultaneously.
D.A database query returns zero results.
Correct Answer: A program writes more data to a block of memory than the buffer is allocated to hold.
Explanation:Buffer Overflow happens when data exceeds the storage capacity of the memory buffer. The extra data overflows into adjacent memory locations, potentially corrupting data or crashing the system, and can be exploited to execute arbitrary code.
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18Which type of vulnerability involves an attacker injecting malicious client-side scripts into web pages viewed by other users?
A.SQL Injection (SQLi)
B.Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
C.Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF)
D.Remote Code Execution (RCE)
Correct Answer: Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
Explanation:XSS allows attackers to execute scripts in the victim's browser. It is a client-side vulnerability where the malicious script runs within the context of the trusted site.
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19What is the primary purpose of 'Fuzzing' or 'Fuzz Testing'?
A.To encrypt data in transit.
B.To statically analyze source code for logic errors.
C.To input invalid, unexpected, or random data into a system to find crashes or leaks.
D.To train employees on phishing awareness.
Correct Answer: To input invalid, unexpected, or random data into a system to find crashes or leaks.
Explanation:Fuzzing is a dynamic software testing technique that involves providing invalid, unexpected, or random data as inputs to a computer program to monitor for exceptions such as crashes or memory leaks.
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20Which vulnerability identification method involves an authorized simulated attack on a computer system to evaluate its security?
A.Vulnerability Scanning
B.Penetration Testing
C.Audit Log Review
D.Risk Assessment
Correct Answer: Penetration Testing
Explanation:Penetration Testing (Pentesting) is a proactive, authorized attempt to exploit vulnerabilities in a system to determine if unauthorized access or other malicious activity is possible.
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21In the CVSS v3.1 specification, the 'Base Metric Group' represents:
A.The characteristics of a vulnerability that change over time.
B.The intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability that remain constant over time and across environments.
C.The features of the vulnerability specific to a user's environment.
D.The cost of remediating the vulnerability.
Correct Answer: The intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability that remain constant over time and across environments.
Explanation:The Base Metric Group covers the constant characteristics of the vulnerability (Attack Vector, Complexity, Privileges Required, etc.) that do not change based on deployment or time.
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22What is the difference between Credentialed and Non-Credentialed vulnerability scans?
A.Credentialed scans are faster.
B.Non-credentialed scans are more thorough.
C.Credentialed scans log in to the target to check internal configuration; non-credentialed scans look from the outside.
D.Non-credentialed scans allow the scanner to install patches automatically.
Correct Answer: Credentialed scans log in to the target to check internal configuration; non-credentialed scans look from the outside.
Explanation:Credentialed scans use a user account to log into the system, allowing them to verify installed software versions and local configurations. Non-credentialed scans only see what is exposed to the network.
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23Which strategy in vulnerability remediation involves implementing a temporary measure to reduce risk when a full patch is not immediately available?
A.Risk Acceptance
B.Compensating Control (Mitigation)
C.Risk Transference
D.Patching
Correct Answer: Compensating Control (Mitigation)
Explanation:Compensating Controls or mitigation steps (e.g., blocking a specific port, disabling a service) are used to reduce risk until the root cause can be fixed (Remediation/Patching).
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24A 'Zero-Day' vulnerability is defined as:
A.A vulnerability that has been known for 0 days.
B.A vulnerability known to the vendor but not the public.
C.A vulnerability exploited by attackers before the vendor is aware or has a patch available.
D.A vulnerability with a CVSS score of 0.
Correct Answer: A vulnerability exploited by attackers before the vendor is aware or has a patch available.
Explanation:A Zero-Day vulnerability refers to the fact that the developers have had zero days to fix the flaw because they were unaware of it before it was exploited.
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25Which cloud security risk arises when APIs (Application Programming Interfaces) are not properly secured?
Explanation:BOLA (formerly IDOR) is a common API vulnerability where an attacker can access data objects belonging to other users by manipulating ID parameters in the API call.
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26What is the role of 'Micro-segmentation' in a Zero Trust network?
A.To divide the network into small zones to limit lateral movement of attackers.
B.To compress data packets for faster transmission.
C.To assign IP addresses dynamically.
D.To increase the broadcast domain size.
Correct Answer: To divide the network into small zones to limit lateral movement of attackers.
Explanation:Micro-segmentation creates secure zones in data centers and cloud deployments to isolate workloads from one another. If a breach occurs, the attacker is contained within that specific segment.
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27Which of the following is a 'Static Analysis' (SAST) technique?
A.Running the application and testing inputs.
B.Scanning a live web server.
C.Reviewing source code without executing it.
D.Performing a stress test on the network.
Correct Answer: Reviewing source code without executing it.
Explanation:SAST (Static Application Security Testing) analyzes source code, bytecode, or binaries for security vulnerabilities without executing the program (white-box testing).
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28In physical security, what is the purpose of a Faraday Cage?
A.To suppress fire using clean agents.
B.To prevent electromagnetic fields (EMF) from entering or leaving a space.
C.To detect motion using infrared sensors.
D.To physically lock down server racks.
Correct Answer: To prevent electromagnetic fields (EMF) from entering or leaving a space.
Explanation:A Faraday Cage blocks external static and non-static electric fields. It is used to prevent electronic eavesdropping or to protect equipment from EMP (Electromagnetic Pulses).
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29Which recovery metric defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time?
A.RTO (Recovery Time Objective)
B.RPO (Recovery Point Objective)
C.MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures)
D.MTTR (Mean Time To Repair)
Correct Answer: RPO (Recovery Point Objective)
Explanation:RPO defines the point in time to which data must be recovered (e.g., the last backup was 4 hours ago). It represents the maximum data loss the business can tolerate.
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30What is the specific security risk associated with 'VM Escape'?
A.An attacker moving from one virtual network to another.
B.An attacker breaking out of a virtual machine to interact with the host operating system.
C.A VM running out of memory.
D.A VM being deleted accidentally.
Correct Answer: An attacker breaking out of a virtual machine to interact with the host operating system.
Explanation:VM Escape is an exploit where an attacker running code within a VM gains access to the host system that manages the VM, potentially compromising all other VMs on that host.
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31Which asset management phase ensures that data is irrecoverable before hardware is discarded?
A.Procurement
B.Deployment
C.Maintenance
D.Decommissioning/Disposal
Correct Answer: Decommissioning/Disposal
Explanation:The Decommissioning/Disposal phase includes sanitization (wiping, degaussing, destroying) to ensure sensitive data cannot be recovered from retired assets.
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32In the context of redundancy, what does 'Active-Passive' configuration mean?
A.Both servers handle traffic simultaneously.
B.One server handles traffic while the other remains on standby until a failure occurs.
C.Servers are located in different countries.
D.The system does not use a load balancer.
Correct Answer: One server handles traffic while the other remains on standby until a failure occurs.
Explanation:In Active-Passive high availability, the primary node handles all requests, while the passive node monitors the primary and takes over only if the primary fails (failover).
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33Which OS vulnerability is caused by a race condition where the checking of a resource and the usage of a resource do not happen atomicity?
A.TOCTOU (Time-of-Check to Time-of-Use)
B.SQL Injection
C.Cross-Site Request Forgery
D.Buffer Overflow
Correct Answer: TOCTOU (Time-of-Check to Time-of-Use)
Explanation:TOCTOU is a file system vulnerability where a program checks access permissions for a file, but the file is changed by an attacker before the program actually uses it.
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34What is the primary purpose of 'Containerization' (e.g., Docker) in cloud architecture?
A.To emulate a full hardware set for an OS.
B.To bundle an application and its dependencies into a single unit that runs on a shared OS kernel.
C.To physically separate networks.
D.To encrypt hard drives.
Correct Answer: To bundle an application and its dependencies into a single unit that runs on a shared OS kernel.
Explanation:Containerization allows applications to be packaged with their dependencies (libs, bins) but share the host OS kernel, making them lightweight compared to full VMs.
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35Which of the following is a 'False Positive' in vulnerability analysis?
A.The scanner fails to identify a real vulnerability.
B.The scanner identifies a vulnerability that does not actually exist.
C.The scanner crashes during operation.
D.The scanner finds a critical vulnerability that is successfully exploited.
Correct Answer: The scanner identifies a vulnerability that does not actually exist.
Explanation:A False Positive occurs when a security tool flags a benign activity or configuration as a threat or vulnerability, wasting analyst time.
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36Which biometric factor is based on behavioral characteristics?
A.Fingerprint
B.Retina Scan
C.Keystroke Dynamics
D.Facial Recognition
Correct Answer: Keystroke Dynamics
Explanation:Keystroke Dynamics (typing rhythm) is a behavioral biometric. Fingerprint, Retina, and Face are physiological biometrics.
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37What is 'Infrastructure as Code' (IaC)?
A.Writing malware to attack infrastructure.
B.Managing and provisioning computing infrastructure through machine-readable definition files.
C.The physical wiring of a data center.
D.A manual process for racking servers.
Correct Answer: Managing and provisioning computing infrastructure through machine-readable definition files.
Explanation:IaC allows IT operations to manage infrastructure (networks, VMs, load balancers) using code (scripts/templates) rather than manual configuration, ensuring consistency and speed.
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38Which OWASP Top 10 vulnerability involves untrusted data being sent to an interpreter as part of a command or query?
A.Broken Access Control
B.Injection
C.Cryptographic Failures
D.Insecure Design
Correct Answer: Injection
Explanation:Injection flaws, such as SQL, NoSQL, OS, and LDAP injection, occur when untrusted data is sent to an interpreter as part of a command or query.
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39In a cloud environment, what is a 'Misconfiguration' vulnerability?
A.A flaw in the encryption algorithm.
B.Setting up security controls improperly, such as leaving default accounts enabled or S3 buckets public.
C.A hardware defect in the server CPU.
D.A denial of service attack.
Correct Answer: Setting up security controls improperly, such as leaving default accounts enabled or S3 buckets public.
Explanation:Security Misconfiguration is the most common cloud vulnerability. It involves failing to implement security controls correctly (e.g., open cloud storage, default passwords, open ports).
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40Which formula represents the calculation for Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) in quantitative risk analysis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:SLE is calculated by multiplying the Asset Value (AV) by the Exposure Factor (EF), which is the percentage of loss a realized threat could cause.
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41What is the function of a 'Patch Management' system?
A.To physically repair broken network cables.
B.To acquire, test, and install code changes (updates) to computer systems.
C.To monitor employee internet usage.
D.To generate strong passwords.
Correct Answer: To acquire, test, and install code changes (updates) to computer systems.
Explanation:Patch Management is the process of distributing and applying updates to software to correct errors (bugs) and close security vulnerabilities.
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42In the context of physical security, what does 'HVAC' control to protect availability?
A.High Voltage Access Control.
B.Human Verification And Checking.
C.Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning (Temperature and Humidity).
D.Hardware Virtualization Access Control.
Correct Answer: Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning (Temperature and Humidity).
Explanation:HVAC systems maintain temperature and humidity levels. Overheating can destroy hardware, and high humidity can cause condensation/short circuits, while low humidity causes static electricity.
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43Which vulnerability identification method is best suited for finding logic flaws in a live application without seeing the code?
Explanation:DAST (Black-box testing) interacts with the application from the outside (like an attacker) while it is running to find vulnerabilities like XSS, SQLi, and authentication issues.
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44What is 'DLL Hijacking'?
A.Stealing a physical laptop.
B.Manipulating a Windows application to load a malicious Dynamic Link Library instead of the legitimate one.
C.Intercepting Wi-Fi signals.
D.Overwriting the BIOS.
Correct Answer: Manipulating a Windows application to load a malicious Dynamic Link Library instead of the legitimate one.
Explanation:DLL Hijacking exploits the way Windows searches for DLLs. If an attacker places a malicious DLL in a directory that is searched before the system directory, the application loads the malware.
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45Which Redundancy Strategy involves distributing data across multiple distinct geographical locations?
A.Disk Striping
B.Geo-redundancy
C.Local Caching
D.Vertical Scaling
Correct Answer: Geo-redundancy
Explanation:Geo-redundancy replicates data and services between two or more geographically distant sites to protect against catastrophic events (floods, earthquakes) affecting a single region.
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46What is the security risk of 'Default Configurations' in IoT devices?
A.They consume too much power.
B.They often include well-known standard passwords (e.g., admin/admin) that attackers can easily guess.
C.They are incompatible with Wi-Fi 6.
D.They cannot connect to the internet.
Correct Answer: They often include well-known standard passwords (e.g., admin/admin) that attackers can easily guess.
Explanation:Many IoT devices ship with Default Configurations, including hardcoded credentials. If users do not change these, attackers can scan the internet and log in effortlessly (e.g., Mirai botnet).
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47In a Zero Trust model, what replaces the traditional VPN for user access to applications?
A.Firewalls
B.Identity-Aware Proxy (IAP) / Software Defined Perimeter (SDP)
C.Hubs
D.WEP Encryption
Correct Answer: Identity-Aware Proxy (IAP) / Software Defined Perimeter (SDP)
Explanation:In ZTA, SDP or IAP creates a 1-to-1 connection between the user and the specific resource based on identity and context, rather than giving network-level access like a traditional VPN.
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48Which type of Cloud Service model involves the customer managing the Operating System, Middleware, and Runtime?
A.SaaS
B.PaaS
C.IaaS
D.DaaS
Correct Answer: IaaS
Explanation:In IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service), the provider manages the hardware/virtualization, but the customer manages the OS, middleware, runtime, data, and applications.
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49What is a 'Rootkit'?
A.A tool to root Android phones.
B.A collection of software designed to enable access to a computer or area of its software that is not otherwise allowed and often masks its existence.
C.A kit for repairing root directories.
D.A database administrator tool.
Correct Answer: A collection of software designed to enable access to a computer or area of its software that is not otherwise allowed and often masks its existence.
Explanation:Rootkits are designed to hide the existence of certain processes or programs (malware) from normal detection methods, often operating at the kernel level.
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50Why is 'Asset Inventory' the first step in Vulnerability Management?
A.It is required for tax purposes only.
B.You cannot secure or patch what you do not know you possess.
C.It speeds up internet connection.
D.It automatically removes viruses.
Correct Answer: You cannot secure or patch what you do not know you possess.
Explanation:Complete Asset Inventory is foundational. If a device or software instance is unknown (Shadow IT), it will not be scanned or patched, leaving a vulnerability open.
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