Unit 1 - Practice Quiz

INT242 60 Questions
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1 Which principle of the CIA triad ensures that information is not disclosed to unauthorized individuals, entities, or processes?

Security Concepts Easy
A. Integrity
B. Authentication
C. Availability
D. Confidentiality

2 A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is a direct assault on which element of the CIA triad?

Security Concepts Easy
A. Non-repudiation
B. Availability
C. Integrity
D. Confidentiality

3 Which component of the CIA triad guarantees that data is trustworthy and has not been altered by unauthorized persons?

Security Concepts Easy
A. Confidentiality
B. Availability
C. Integrity
D. Authorization

4 Putting a lock on a server room door is an example of what type of security control?

Security Controls Easy
A. Physical Control
B. Administrative Control
C. Corrective Control
D. Technical Control

5 An organization's information security policy, which outlines rules for employees, is what kind of security control?

Security Controls Easy
A. Technical Control
B. Administrative Control
C. Physical Control
D. Preventive Control

6 A firewall that blocks unauthorized network traffic is an example of which type of control?

Security Controls Easy
A. Technical Control
B. Physical Control
C. Administrative Control
D. Deterrent Control

7 What type of malware disguises itself as a legitimate program but performs malicious activities once executed?

Compare Threat Types Easy
A. Spyware
B. Virus
C. Trojan Horse
D. Worm

8 Which type of malicious software is specifically designed to self-replicate and spread across a network without needing to attach to a host file?

Compare Threat Types Easy
A. Worm
B. Ransomware
C. Adware
D. Virus

9 What is the term for an attacker who uses pre-made tools and scripts to conduct attacks, but lacks deep technical expertise?

Threat Actors Easy
A. Hacktivist
B. Script Kiddie
C. Insider Threat
D. Nation-State Actor

10 Which threat actor is primarily motivated by a political agenda or social cause?

Threat Actors Easy
A. Insider Threat
B. Hacktivist
C. Organized Crime
D. Script Kiddie

11 What does the term 'attack surface' refer to in cyber security?

Attack Surfaces Easy
A. The physical area where a cyber attack took place.
B. The financial damage caused by an attack.
C. The sum of all potential entry points for an attacker into a system or network.
D. A specific type of firewall.

12 What is the primary goal of a 'phishing' attack?

Social Engineering Easy
A. To install hardware keyloggers on a keyboard.
B. To trick a user into revealing sensitive information like credentials or financial details.
C. To physically steal a computer.
D. To disable a network server.

13 An attacker calls an employee pretending to be from the IT help desk to obtain their password. What is this attack called?

Social Engineering Easy
A. Vishing
B. Smishing
C. Spoofing
D. Spamming

14 What is the primary purpose of cryptography in cyber security?

Explain Cryptographic Solutions Easy
A. To create backups of important data.
B. To protect information and communications through the use of codes.
C. To identify all network vulnerabilities.
D. To increase network speed.

15 Which type of encryption uses a single key for both the encryption and decryption processes?

Cryptographic Algorithms Easy
A. Symmetric Encryption
B. Hashing
C. Asymmetric Encryption
D. Quantum Encryption

16 In asymmetric cryptography, also known as public-key cryptography, how many keys are used?

Cryptographic Algorithms Easy
A. One key
B. Zero keys
C. Three keys
D. Two keys (a public key and a private key)

17 If you encrypt a message with someone's public key, what must be used to decrypt it?

Cryptographic Algorithms Easy
A. Their corresponding private key
B. A shared session key
C. The same public key
D. Your own private key

18 What is the main role of a Certificate Authority (CA) in a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)?

Public Key Infrastructure Easy
A. To generate private keys for users.
B. To monitor network traffic for threats.
C. To act as a trusted third party that issues and validates digital certificates.
D. To store all encrypted data for an organization.

19 A digital certificate is used to bind a public key to a(n) ____.

Public Key Infrastructure Easy
A. IP address
B. Hardware device
C. Software application
D. Identity

20 Which cryptographic process is one-way (irreversible) and is used to verify data integrity by creating a unique, fixed-size output?

Cryptographic Solutions Easy
A. Decryption
B. Steganography
C. Encryption
D. Hashing

21 A database administrator discovers that a critical financial record was modified by an unauthorized user. This unauthorized modification represents a failure of which component of the CIA triad?

Security Concepts Medium
A. Authentication
B. Confidentiality
C. Availability
D. Integrity

22 A company wants to prevent unauthorized personnel from entering a secure data center. They install a mantrap that only allows one person to pass through at a time after successful authentication. What are the primary types of security controls represented by the policy requiring authentication and the mantrap itself, respectively?

Security Controls Medium
A. Administrative and Technical
B. Technical and Physical
C. Physical and Administrative
D. Technical and Corrective

23 A sophisticated, long-term cyberattack is discovered on a major defense contractor. The attackers used a zero-day exploit, moved laterally through the network over several months, and exfiltrated sensitive research data. The attack shows signs of significant funding and organization. Which type of threat actor is most likely responsible?

Threat Actors Medium
A. Insider Threat
B. Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)
C. Script Kiddie
D. Hacktivist

24 An accountant receives an email that appears to be from the company's CEO, urgently requesting a wire transfer to a new vendor for a secret acquisition. The email uses a tone of authority and urgency, warning the accountant not to discuss the matter with anyone. This is a classic example of which social engineering technique?

Social Engineering Medium
A. Baiting
B. Whaling
C. Tailgating
D. Vishing

25 A software development team needs to ensure that user passwords are not stored in plaintext. They need a cryptographic method that makes it impossible to reverse the process and retrieve the original password, but allows for verification. Which type of algorithm is most suitable for this purpose?

Cryptographic Algorithms Medium
A. A cryptographic hashing algorithm like SHA-256
B. A stream cipher like RC4
C. A symmetric encryption algorithm like AES
D. An asymmetric encryption algorithm like RSA

26 In a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), what is the primary function of a Certificate Authority (CA)?

Public Key Infrastructure Medium
A. To directly authenticate users attempting to log in to a network resource.
B. To generate and store the private keys for all users in the organization.
C. To maintain a list of all encrypted communications for later auditing.
D. To vouch for the identity of an entity and issue a digital certificate that binds a public key to that identity.

27 Which of the following best distinguishes a computer worm from a computer virus?

Compare Threat Types Medium
A. A worm only infects servers, while a virus only infects client workstations.
B. A worm can self-propagate across a network without user interaction, while a virus typically requires a host file and user action to spread.
C. A worm is designed to steal data, while a virus is designed to destroy it.
D. A virus is written in a low-level language, while a worm is written in a high-level scripting language.

28 A company decides to allow employees to connect their personal mobile devices to the corporate Wi-Fi network to access email and internal documents. From a security perspective, this policy decision primarily increases the organization's:

Attack Surfaces Medium
A. Social engineering susceptibility.
B. Digital attack surface.
C. Cryptographic vulnerability.
D. Physical attack surface.

29 Alice wants to send a message to Bob. She wants to ensure that only Bob can read the message (confidentiality) and that Bob can verify the message came from her (authenticity/non-repudiation). How can she achieve this using asymmetric cryptography?

Cryptographic Solutions Medium
A. Encrypt the message with her private key and sign it with Bob's public key.
B. Encrypt the message with Bob's public key and sign it with her private key.
C. Encrypt the message with a shared secret key and sign it with her private key.
D. Encrypt the message with her public key and sign it with Bob's private key.

30 A system is designed to log all user actions. In the event of a dispute, these logs can be used to prove that a specific user performed a specific action, and the user cannot deny it. This capability is known as:

Security Concepts Medium
A. Auditing
B. Accounting
C. Non-repudiation
D. Authorization

31 A security audit reveals that a company's developers are using weak, default passwords for database service accounts. The security team implements a technical solution that enforces a strong password policy (minimum length, complexity, and history) for all service accounts. This solution is best described as which type of control?

Security Controls Medium
A. Detective Control
B. Preventive Control
C. Corrective Control
D. Deterrent Control

32 An attacker installs malware on a victim's computer that encrypts all of their personal files. A message then appears on the screen demanding a payment in cryptocurrency in exchange for the decryption key. This type of malware is known as:

Compare Threat Types Medium
A. Ransomware
B. A Trojan
C. Spyware
D. Adware

33 An application needs to encrypt large amounts of streaming video data in real-time. Performance and speed are critical. Which cryptographic algorithm would be the most appropriate choice for this task?

Cryptographic Algorithms Medium
A. AES-256
B. RSA-4096
C. ECC P-256
D. SHA-512

34 A web browser attempts to connect to an e-commerce site, but it displays a warning that the site's certificate is not trusted. The most likely reason for this is that the certificate was:

Public Key Infrastructure Medium
A. Signed by an unknown or untrusted Certificate Authority (CA).
B. Using a public key that is too short.
C. Encrypted with a weak algorithm like DES.
D. Not accompanied by a valid private key.

35 A developer hard-codes a database password directly into the source code of a mobile application. What kind of vulnerability does this create, and on which attack surface?

Attack Surfaces Medium
A. A configuration vulnerability on the digital/software attack surface.
B. A policy vulnerability on the administrative attack surface.
C. A social engineering vulnerability on the user attack surface.
D. A physical vulnerability on the server attack surface.

36 An attacker calls an employee, pretending to be from the IT help desk. The attacker tells the employee that their account has been flagged for suspicious activity and that they need the employee to confirm their username and password to secure the account. This tactic is an example of:

Social Engineering Medium
A. Pretexting
B. Quid pro quo
C. Baiting
D. Phishing

37 A disgruntled system administrator who is about to be fired uses their high-level privileges to delete critical backups and install a logic bomb set to erase servers a week after their departure. This individual is best classified as which type of threat actor?

Threat Actors Medium
A. A Hacktivist
B. A Malicious Insider Threat
C. A Script Kiddie
D. An Organized Crime group

38 What is the primary purpose of using a digital signature in an email communication?

Explain Cryptographic Solutions Medium
A. To guarantee the delivery of the email to the recipient's inbox.
B. To provide the recipient with assurance of the sender's identity (authenticity) and that the message has not been altered (integrity).
C. To encrypt the entire content of the email so no one can read it.
D. To hide the sender's true email address from the recipient.

39 What is the function of a Certificate Revocation List (CRL) or the Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP)?

Public Key Infrastructure Medium
A. To check if a digital certificate has been invalidated before its scheduled expiration date.
B. To store a backup of private keys in case of loss.
C. To list all certificates that have passed their natural expiration date.
D. To provide a list of trusted Certificate Authorities.

40 Asymmetric cryptography, like RSA, uses a key pair. If a message is encrypted with a user's public key, what is the consequence?

Cryptographic Algorithms Medium
A. Only the user who owns the corresponding private key can decrypt it.
B. The message cannot be decrypted; this is used for digital signatures.
C. The message can be decrypted by either the public or the private key.
D. Anyone with the public key can decrypt it.

41 A system uses digital signatures to ensure that a sender cannot deny sending a message (non-repudiation) and that the message has not been altered (integrity). If an attacker manages to compromise the sender's private key but does not alter any previously signed messages, which security concept is most directly and immediately compromised from the moment of the key theft, even before the attacker uses the key?

Security Concepts Hard
A. Non-repudiation, because the legitimate sender can now plausibly deny messages sent by the attacker using their key.
B. Confidentiality, because the private key is no longer secret.
C. Integrity, because the attacker can now alter future messages and sign them with the stolen key.
D. Availability, because the system's trust model is broken, requiring it to be taken offline.

42 A company implements a policy requiring all developers to attend mandatory annual security training. During a code review, a senior developer spots a critical SQL injection vulnerability. What is the relationship between these two security controls in this scenario?

Security Controls Hard
A. The training is a deterrent control, and the code review is a recovery control designed to find bugs after deployment.
B. Both are preventive controls, but one is administrative (training) and the other is technical (code review).
C. The training is a preventive administrative control, while the code review is a detective technical control that acts as a compensating control for the failure of the training.
D. The training is a detective administrative control, and the code review is a corrective technical control.

43 A security analyst is examining a new malware sample. They observe that the malware's decryption routine changes with each new infection, and the core malicious payload is rearranged and recompiled. However, the logical function of the payload remains identical. This malware would be most accurately classified as:

Compare Threat Types Hard
A. Polymorphic
B. A fileless virus
C. Metamorphic
D. Oligomorphic

44 An attack is detected against a major energy grid. The TTPs (Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures) involve zero-day exploits for SCADA systems, custom-written C2 malware that uses steganography for communication, and a clear motivation to disrupt operations rather than steal data for financial gain. The operation is slow, methodical, and shows extreme patience over several months. This actor is most likely:

Threat Actors Hard
A. An organized crime syndicate testing new capabilities.
B. A script kiddie who purchased a sophisticated attack toolkit.
C. A highly skilled hacktivist group.
D. A state-sponsored Advanced Persistent Threat (APT).

45 A company is migrating its monolithic application to a microservices architecture hosted in Kubernetes. The new architecture involves dozens of internal APIs, a public-facing API gateway, multiple databases, and a service mesh for inter-service communication. How does this migration primarily affect the company's attack surface?

Attack Surfaces Hard
A. It keeps the attack surface the same, as only the internal architecture has changed, not the public-facing entry points.
B. It significantly increases the attack surface by creating many more network endpoints and inter-service communication paths that must be secured.
C. It shifts the attack surface entirely to the API gateway, which simplifies security management.
D. It decreases the attack surface by containerizing workloads, which isolates them from the host OS.

46 An attacker first calls an employee pretending to be from IT, stating they've detected malware and need the employee's computer name. The employee provides it. An hour later, a different attacker calls the same employee, claiming to be a senior IT manager. This attacker says, "Hi [Employee Name], this is Bob from IT. I'm following up on the malware ticket for computer [Computer Name]. To clean the device, I need you to navigate to this site and enter the code I provide." This multi-stage attack is a sophisticated example of:

Social Engineering Hard
A. Pretexting, where the second call uses information from the first to establish legitimacy.
B. Baiting, where the attacker offers a free software update to remove malware.
C. Tailgating, as the attacker is following up on a previous interaction.
D. Quid pro quo, as the attacker is offering a service (malware removal) for an action.

47 A hardware security module (HSM) implements AES-256. A researcher discovers that the time required to perform an encryption operation is slightly correlated with the number of '1' bits in the secret key. What type of attack could exploit this vulnerability?

Cryptographic Algorithms Hard
A. A brute-force attack.
B. A timing-based side-channel attack.
C. A differential cryptanalysis attack.
D. A man-in-the-middle attack.

48 A web server is configured to use OCSP Stapling. A client connects, and the server presents its certificate along with a time-stamped, CA-signed OCSP response indicating the certificate is 'good'. However, the Certificate Authority's OCSP responder has been offline for the past hour. Why would the client still accept the server's certificate?

Public Key Infrastructure Hard
A. The client's browser is configured to 'soft-fail', meaning it will accept the certificate if the OCSP responder is unreachable.
B. The browser trusts the server's self-signed OCSP response.
C. The client falls back to checking the Certificate Revocation List (CRL) which is still valid.
D. OCSP Stapling allows the server to cache a valid OCSP response for a period (e.g., 24 hours), so a temporary outage at the CA does not affect validation for clients.

49 A system uses a hybrid encryption scheme: it generates a random symmetric key (e.g., AES) to encrypt a large file, then encrypts the AES key using the recipient's public RSA key. The encrypted file and the encrypted AES key are sent to the recipient. If the recipient's private RSA key is compromised, what is the scope of the damage?

Cryptographic Solutions Hard
A. Only future files sent to this recipient can be decrypted.
B. All past and future files sent to this recipient can be decrypted by the attacker.
C. No files can be decrypted without also breaking the AES algorithm.
D. Only past files for which the attacker also intercepted the ciphertext can be decrypted.

50 In a multi-tenant cloud environment, a flaw in the hypervisor allows a virtual machine in Tenant A's network to read memory belonging to a virtual machine in Tenant B's network. This represents a failure of which fundamental security principle from Tenant B's perspective?

Security Concepts Hard
A. Authentication
B. Availability
C. Confidentiality
D. Integrity

51 A network's defense-in-depth strategy includes a firewall, an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS), and host-based anti-malware. An attacker uses a zero-day exploit encrypted with TLS to compromise a web server. The malicious payload then uses fileless techniques, operating only in memory to avoid detection by the anti-malware. Which statement best analyzes the failure of the security controls?

Security Controls Hard
A. Only the IPS and anti-malware failed; the firewall operated correctly by allowing legitimate web traffic on port 443.
B. All three controls failed: The firewall because it allowed encrypted traffic, the IPS because it couldn't inspect the encrypted payload, and the anti-malware because it was signature-based and the attack was fileless.
C. This scenario is impossible, as an IPS would have detected the anomalous behavior even if the payload was encrypted.
D. Only the anti-malware failed, as the other controls are not designed to detect zero-day exploits.

52 A security firm observes an ongoing attack that has persisted for 18 months. The attackers use a custom remote access trojan (RAT), move laterally through the network using legitimate credentials obtained via phishing, and slowly exfiltrate small, encrypted chunks of intellectual property. The command-and-control (C2) servers are rotated weekly. The primary goal appears to be long-term espionage. This is characteristic of:

Compare Threat Types Hard
A. A ransomware attack in its initial infiltration phase
B. A botnet focused on distributed denial-of-service (DDoS)
C. A polymorphic worm
D. An Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)

53 An employee in the finance department clicks on a sophisticated spear-phishing email and their workstation becomes infected. The malware logs their keystrokes, capturing credentials for the accounting system, which are then used to initiate a fraudulent wire transfer. From the company's perspective, this employee is best classified as:

Threat Actors Hard
A. A competitor.
B. A malicious insider.
C. An external threat actor.
D. An unintentional insider threat.

54 A developer exposes a new internal REST API endpoint (/api/v1/user/{id}/details) used by the front-end application to fetch user data. They forget to implement an authorization check, assuming that since the API is not public, it's safe. An authenticated but low-privileged user discovers they can change the {id} in the API call to view the details of any other user, including administrators. This vulnerability is best described as:

Attack Surfaces Hard
A. An Insecure Direct Object Reference (IDOR) on a newly exposed internal attack surface.
B. A Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) vulnerability.
C. A failure of the external network firewall.
D. A SQL Injection vulnerability in the API backend.

55 An individual posts on social media about losing their company ID badge. An attacker creates a fake ID with the individual's picture and company logo, then waits by a secure entrance. When an employee approaches, the attacker pretends to be on a call and fumbles with their fake badge, saying "Ugh, my badge isn't working again! Can you let me in?" This technique, where an attacker makes themselves appear to be the one in need of help to exploit the target's desire to be helpful, is known as:

Social Engineering Hard
A. Watering Hole Attack
B. Reverse Social Engineering
C. Shoulder Surfing
D. Phishing

56 The RSA algorithm relies on the mathematical difficulty of factoring the product of two large prime numbers. Let the public key be and the private key be , where . What would be the most direct consequence if an attacker discovered the value of Euler's totient function, , without discovering or themselves?

Cryptographic Algorithms Hard
A. There would be no direct consequence, as and are still unknown.
B. The attacker could easily factor into and .
C. The attacker could efficiently calculate the private exponent from the public exponent .
D. The system would become vulnerable to a chosen-ciphertext attack.

57 A mobile application uses HTTP Public Key Pinning (HPKP) to ensure it only connects to servers presenting a specific public key. The company's server certificate expires, and a new one is issued with a new key pair. Users with the old version of the app are now unable to connect. What is the core security concept that caused this operational failure?

Public Key Infrastructure Hard
A. The pinned key was a 'leaf' key, and no 'backup' key from a different key pair was also pinned in the application's policy.
B. The app failed to check the OCSP status of the new certificate.
C. The new certificate was signed with an SHA-1 hash, which is deprecated.
D. The Certificate Authority used a different intermediate certificate to sign the new server certificate.

58 Given the rise of practical quantum computing, which of the following cryptographic migration strategies is most logical and urgent for an organization that relies on TLS for data-in-transit security?

Cryptographic Solutions Hard
A. Double the key length of all existing algorithms, for example, moving from RSA-2048 to RSA-4096, which provides quantum resistance.
B. Transition all digital signature algorithms to hash-based signatures, but keep RSA for key exchange.
C. Prioritize replacing asymmetric algorithms like RSA and ECDH with quantum-resistant alternatives, while AES-256 remains secure with a larger key size.
D. Immediately replace all symmetric algorithms like AES with a quantum-resistant one, as they are most vulnerable.

59 A hospital's electronic health record (EHR) system is targeted by two separate attacks in one week. Attack A is a DDoS attack that overwhelms the network, making the EHR system inaccessible to doctors. Attack B is a ransomware attack that encrypts all patient records, making them unreadable. Both attacks are a failure of which principle of the CIA triad, but for fundamentally different reasons?

Security Concepts Hard
A. Integrity. The DDoS attack modifies network packets, and the ransomware modifies the files.
B. Availability. Both attacks are identical in that they just make the system unavailable.
C. Confidentiality. The DDoS attack exposes system vulnerabilities, and the ransomware exposes patient data.
D. Availability. The DDoS attack denies access to the system, while the ransomware attack denies access to the data itself.

60 A corporate merger requires trusting certificates issued by the new parent company's PKI. The parent company's Root CA is offline and should not be added to the client trust stores directly. The parent provides a cross-signed intermediate certificate: (Parent Intermediate CA cert, signed by Child Root CA). What is the primary purpose of this specific object in establishing a trust path from a 'child' company client to a server with a cert from the 'parent' company?

Public Key Infrastructure Hard
A. It is used to revoke all certificates from the child company's PKI.
B. It allows the parent company's servers to trust clients from the child company.
C. It replaces the need for the Parent Root CA certificate entirely.
D. It allows a client that trusts the 'Child Root CA' to build a valid certification path to a certificate issued by the 'Parent Intermediate CA', bridging the two PKIs.