IPR stands for Intellectual Property Rights, which are legal rights granted to creators over their creations of the mind.
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2Intellectual property rights primarily protect creations of the:
introduction to intellectual property rights
Easy
A.Land
B.Machinery
C.Water
D.Mind
Correct Answer: Mind
Explanation:
IPR protects creations of the mind such as inventions, literary works, designs, and symbols.
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3According to the Labour Theory of intellectual property, a person deserves rights over their creation because they:
concept and theories
Easy
A.Registered it first
B.Paid a government fee
C.Belong to a wealthy family
D.Invested their labour and effort
Correct Answer: Invested their labour and effort
Explanation:
The Labour Theory (based on John Locke) holds that people deserve rights over what they produce through their own labour and effort.
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4Which theory justifies IPR on the grounds that it encourages innovation for the benefit of society?
concept and theories
Easy
A.Labour theory
B.Natural rights theory
C.Utilitarian theory
D.Personality theory
Correct Answer: Utilitarian theory
Explanation:
The Utilitarian theory argues that granting IPR incentivizes creators, leading to more innovation that benefits society as a whole.
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5Which of the following is a kind of intellectual property right?
kinds of intellectual property rights
Easy
A.Tenancy
B.Insurance
C.Copyright
D.Mortgage
Correct Answer: Copyright
Explanation:
Copyright is a form of IPR that protects literary, artistic, and creative works. Mortgage, tenancy, and insurance are not IPRs.
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6A trademark is used to protect a:
kinds of intellectual property rights
Easy
A.Scientific invention
B.Industrial process
C.Literary manuscript
D.Brand name, logo, or symbol
Correct Answer: Brand name, logo, or symbol
Explanation:
A trademark protects a distinctive brand name, logo, or symbol that identifies goods or services of a particular source.
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7Which type of IPR protects new inventions for a limited period?
kinds of intellectual property rights
Easy
A.Trademark
B.Geographical Indication
C.Patent
D.Copyright
Correct Answer: Patent
Explanation:
A patent grants an inventor exclusive rights over a new invention for a limited period, typically 20 years.
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8In which year was the Indian Patent Act enacted?
Indian patent act 1970
Easy
A.1947
B.1970
C.1990
D.2005
Correct Answer: 1970
Explanation:
The Indian Patents Act was enacted in 1970 and came into force in 1972, governing patents in India.
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9Under the Indian Patent Act 1970, what is the standard term of a patent from the date of filing?
Indian patent act 1970
Easy
A.10 years
B.20 years
C.Lifetime of the inventor
D.50 years
Correct Answer: 20 years
Explanation:
As per the Indian Patent Act (amended), the term of a patent is 20 years from the date of filing the application.
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10Which of the following is generally NOT patentable under the Indian Patent Act 1970?
Indian patent act 1970
Easy
A.A novel chemical process
B.A new machine
C.An improved device
D.A mere discovery of a scientific principle
Correct Answer: A mere discovery of a scientific principle
Explanation:
The mere discovery of a scientific principle or an abstract theory is not patentable under the Act; only novel inventions with industrial application qualify.
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11In research, ethics primarily refers to:
ethics
Easy
A.Rules for citing references
B.Techniques for data collection
C.Moral principles guiding proper conduct
D.Methods of statistical analysis
Correct Answer: Moral principles guiding proper conduct
Explanation:
Ethics refers to the moral principles and standards that guide honest, fair, and responsible conduct in research.
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12Which of the following is an ethical issue in research?
ethical issues
Easy
A.Fabrication of data
B.Formatting references
C.Reviewing literature
D.Using citations
Correct Answer: Fabrication of data
Explanation:
Fabrication (making up data) is a serious ethical violation in research, along with falsification and plagiarism.
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13Falsification in research refers to:
ethical issues
Easy
A.Collaborating with co-authors
B.Citing too many sources
C.Manipulating or altering research data
D.Publishing in open-access journals
Correct Answer: Manipulating or altering research data
Explanation:
Falsification means manipulating research materials, equipment, or data so that the results are not accurately represented.
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14The committee that reviews research involving human participants is commonly known as the:
ethical Committees (human and animal)
Easy
A.Finance Committee
B.Institutional Review Board (IRB)
C.Editorial Board
D.Grants Committee
Correct Answer: Institutional Review Board (IRB)
Explanation:
An Institutional Review Board (IRB), also called an Ethics Committee, reviews and approves research involving human subjects to protect their rights.
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15Which principle is central to research involving human subjects?
ethical Committees (human and animal)
Easy
A.Fastest publication
B.Informed consent
C.Largest sample only
D.Maximum profit
Correct Answer: Informed consent
Explanation:
Informed consent ensures participants voluntarily agree to take part after understanding the purpose, risks, and benefits of the research.
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16Listing a person as an author who did not contribute to the research is known as:
ethical issues related to publishing
Easy
A.Gift authorship
B.Open access
C.Corresponding authorship
D.Peer review
Correct Answer: Gift authorship
Explanation:
Gift (or honorary) authorship is an ethical violation where someone is credited as an author without making a genuine contribution.
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17Plagiarism is best defined as:
plagiarism and self-plagiarism
Easy
A.Citing sources correctly
B.Using others' work or ideas without proper acknowledgment
C.Writing an original abstract
D.Peer reviewing a paper
Correct Answer: Using others' work or ideas without proper acknowledgment
Explanation:
Plagiarism is presenting someone else's words, ideas, or work as one's own without giving proper credit.
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18Self-plagiarism occurs when an author:
plagiarism and self-plagiarism
Easy
A.Writes a new research paper
B.Cites another author
C.Reuses their own previously published work without disclosure
D.Acknowledges a funding agency
Correct Answer: Reuses their own previously published work without disclosure
Explanation:
Self-plagiarism is reusing one's own previously published material without proper citation or disclosure, presenting it as new.
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19Which of the following is a common consequence of committing plagiarism in academia?
penalties and consequences
Easy
A.Automatic promotion
B.Award of a scholarship
C.Retraction of the published paper
D.Increased citations
Correct Answer: Retraction of the published paper
Explanation:
Plagiarism can lead to serious consequences such as retraction of papers, loss of reputation, and disciplinary action.
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20The UGC regulations on plagiarism classify similarity up to 10% into which level?
university grants commission's (UGC) policy for curbing plagiarism
Easy
A.Level 2 (major)
B.Level 1 (moderate)
C.Level 3 (severe)
D.Level 0 (minor, no penalty)
Correct Answer: Level 0 (minor, no penalty)
Explanation:
As per UGC (2018) regulations, similarity up to 10% falls under Level 0 and attracts no penalty.
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21A startup develops a unique logo, a secret manufacturing formula, and a novel machine. Which combination of IPR protections is most appropriate for these three assets respectively?
introduction to intellectual property rights
Medium
A.Patent, Copyright, Trademark
B.Copyright, Patent, Trade Secret
C.Trademark, Trade Secret, Patent
D.Trademark, Patent, Copyright
Correct Answer: Trademark, Trade Secret, Patent
Explanation:
A logo is protected by a trademark, a secret formula is best kept as a trade secret, and a novel machine (invention) qualifies for a patent.
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22The Labour Theory of intellectual property, associated with John Locke, primarily justifies IPR on the ground that:
concept and theories
Medium
A.Ideas are natural extensions of one's personality
B.A creator deserves rights because of the mental labour and effort invested
C.The state grants monopolies to encourage industrial growth
D.Society benefits economically from more inventions
Correct Answer: A creator deserves rights because of the mental labour and effort invested
Explanation:
Locke's Labour Theory holds that a person acquires ownership by mixing their labour with the resource, justifying rights over the fruits of their intellectual effort.
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23Which justification theory of IPR argues that creative works are an extension of the creator's personhood and identity?
concept and theories
Medium
A.Labour Theory
B.Utilitarian Theory
C.Reward Theory
D.Personality Theory
Correct Answer: Personality Theory
Explanation:
The Personality Theory, rooted in Hegel's philosophy, treats creations as expressions of the creator's will and personality, deserving protection.
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24A company wants to protect the unique aesthetic shape and surface pattern of a new bottle, not its function. Which IPR is most suitable?
kinds of intellectual property rights
Medium
A.Geographical Indication
B.Industrial Design
C.Patent
D.Copyright
Correct Answer: Industrial Design
Explanation:
Industrial Design rights protect the ornamental or aesthetic aspects (shape, configuration, pattern) of an article, not its technical function.
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25"Darjeeling Tea" and "Basmati Rice" are protected under which category of IPR?
kinds of intellectual property rights
Medium
A.Geographical Indications
B.Collective Copyrights
C.Trademarks
D.Trade Secrets
Correct Answer: Geographical Indications
Explanation:
Geographical Indications (GI) identify goods originating from a specific place where a given quality or reputation is essentially attributable to that origin.
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26Under the Indian Patents Act, 1970 (as amended), the term of a granted patent is:
Indian patent act 1970
Medium
A.14 years from the date of grant
B.20 years from the date of filing
C.Life of the inventor plus 60 years
D.10 years renewable indefinitely
Correct Answer: 20 years from the date of filing
Explanation:
Following the 2005 amendment aligning with TRIPS, a patent in India lasts 20 years from the date of filing of the application.
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27A pharmaceutical company files for a patent on a new form of a known drug that shows no enhanced therapeutic efficacy. This is likely rejected under which key section of the Indian Patents Act?
Indian patent act 1970
Medium
A.Section 3(d)
B.Section 53
C.Section 25
D.Section 10
Correct Answer: Section 3(d)
Explanation:
Section 3(d) bars patenting of new forms of known substances unless they demonstrate significantly enhanced efficacy, preventing 'evergreening'.
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28Which of the following is considered patentable under the Indian Patents Act, 1970?
Indian patent act 1970
Medium
A.A novel, non-obvious industrially applicable process
B.A method of medical treatment of humans
C.A mathematical method
D.A mere discovery of a scientific principle
Correct Answer: A novel, non-obvious industrially applicable process
Explanation:
To be patentable an invention must be novel, involve an inventive step, and be industrially applicable. Mathematical methods, medical treatment methods, and mere discoveries are excluded under Section 3.
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29In research ethics, the principle of beneficence primarily requires researchers to:
ethics
Medium
A.Ensure results are statistically significant
B.Publish findings only in high-impact journals
C.Maximize benefits and minimize possible harms to participants
D.Obtain approval from a funding agency
Correct Answer: Maximize benefits and minimize possible harms to participants
Explanation:
Beneficence obligates researchers to act for the participants' welfare by maximizing benefits while minimizing potential harm.
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30A researcher lists a senior colleague as a co-author who made no intellectual contribution, merely to increase acceptance chances. This is an example of:
ethical issues
Medium
A.Ghost authorship
B.Salami slicing
C.Fabrication
D.Gift (honorary) authorship
Correct Answer: Gift (honorary) authorship
Explanation:
Gift or honorary authorship occurs when someone is credited without a substantial contribution, violating authorship ethics.
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31Deliberately manipulating research images or altering data points to fit a hypothesis is best classified as:
ethical issues
Medium
A.Conflict of interest
B.Plagiarism
C.Falsification
D.Redundant publication
Correct Answer: Falsification
Explanation:
Falsification is manipulating research materials, equipment, processes, or changing/omitting data so results are not accurately represented.
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32In India, research involving animals must be approved by which committee?
The 3Rs—Replacement, Reduction, and Refinement—aim to replace animals where possible, reduce numbers used, and refine procedures to minimize suffering.
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34Splitting a single coherent study into several smaller papers to inflate publication count is known as:
ethical issues related to publishing
Medium
A.Salami slicing
B.Ghostwriting
C.Duplicate submission
D.Peer-review manipulation
Correct Answer: Salami slicing
Explanation:
Salami slicing is fragmenting one study into multiple 'least publishable units', an unethical practice that distorts the literature.
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35Submitting the same manuscript simultaneously to two different journals violates which publication ethic?
ethical issues related to publishing
Medium
A.Prohibition of simultaneous/duplicate submission
B.Rule of first authorship
C.Confidentiality of peer review
D.Disclosure of conflict of interest
Correct Answer: Prohibition of simultaneous/duplicate submission
Explanation:
Ethical publishing prohibits simultaneous submission of the same work to multiple journals, as it wastes reviewer effort and risks duplicate publication.
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36An author reuses large verbatim portions of their own previously published paper in a new article without citation. This is best described as:
plagiarism and self-plagiarism
Medium
A.Falsification
B.Gift authorship
C.Self-plagiarism
D.Fabrication
Correct Answer: Self-plagiarism
Explanation:
Self-plagiarism (text recycling) is reusing one's own prior published work without proper acknowledgment, misleading readers about originality.
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37Rewording another author's ideas in your own words but without any citation constitutes:
plagiarism and self-plagiarism
Medium
A.Proper attribution
B.Common knowledge use
C.Acceptable summarizing
D.Paraphrasing plagiarism
Correct Answer: Paraphrasing plagiarism
Explanation:
Even when text is reworded, using another's ideas without citation is paraphrasing plagiarism; attribution is still required.
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38Under the UGC (2018) plagiarism regulations, similarity up to 10% falls under which level?
university grants commission's (UGC) policy for curbing plagiarism
Medium
A.Level 0 — minor similarities, no penalty
B.Level 3 — above 60%
C.Level 2 — 40% to 60%
D.Level 1 — 10% to 40%
Correct Answer: Level 0 — minor similarities, no penalty
Explanation:
Per UGC 2018 rules, similarity up to 10% (Level 0) is exempt from penalty; higher bands (Level 1–3) attract progressive penalties.
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39According to UGC regulations, if a student's thesis shows Level 3 plagiarism (above 60%), the typical consequence is:
university grants commission's (UGC) policy for curbing plagiarism
Medium
A.Only a warning is issued
B.Registration cancelled and no revised submission for that thesis
C.Resubmission allowed within one month
D.A 5% marks deduction
Correct Answer: Registration cancelled and no revised submission for that thesis
Explanation:
For Level 3 (>60%), UGC prescribes the most severe penalty, including cancellation of registration for that program/thesis.
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40Under UGC rules, a faculty member found guilty of Level 2 plagiarism typically faces:
penalties and consequences
Medium
A.Immediate dismissal from service
B.Denial of a pay increment and being barred from supervising new students for a period
C.Only a written apology
D.Suspension of salary for five years
Correct Answer: Denial of a pay increment and being barred from supervising new students for a period
Explanation:
For Level 2, penalties on faculty include losing annual increments and being barred from supervising new MPhil/PhD scholars for a specified duration.
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41A pharmaceutical firm argues that its patent monopoly is justified because it invested labour and capital into isolating a compound from nature. A critic counters that mere effort should not create ownership if the resulting knowledge does not enrich the public. Which pairing of IP justification theories BEST characterizes this dispute?
concept and theories
Hard
A.Firm relies on the Reward theory; critic invokes the Natural Rights theory
B.Firm relies on the Utilitarian theory; critic invokes the Personality theory
C.Firm relies on the Labour (Lockean) theory; critic invokes the Utilitarian/Social-benefit theory
D.Firm relies on the Personality (Hegelian) theory; critic invokes the Labour theory
Correct Answer: Firm relies on the Labour (Lockean) theory; critic invokes the Utilitarian/Social-benefit theory
Explanation:
The firm's 'mixing labour' argument is classic Lockean labour-desert theory. The critic's demand that protection be justified only by net public enrichment reflects the utilitarian/social-benefit rationale, which conditions IP on aggregate welfare.
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42An applicant seeks a patent for a new dosage form of a known drug that shows no enhanced therapeutic efficacy. Which provision of the Indian Patents Act, 1970 (as amended) would MOST directly bar this application?
Indian patent act 1970
Hard
A.Section 25
B.Section 3(d)
C.Section 53
D.Section 3(b)
Correct Answer: Section 3(d)
Explanation:
Section 3(d) excludes new forms of known substances that do not demonstrate enhanced therapeutic efficacy, the provision central to the Novartis case. Section 3(b) concerns morality/public order, Section 25 covers opposition, and Section 53 covers patent term.
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43A patentee refuses to work an invention in India and prices it beyond public reach three years after grant. Under the Indian Patents Act, 1970, which mechanism allows a third party to obtain rights to manufacture without the patentee's consent?
Indian patent act 1970
Hard
A.Patent of addition under Section 54
B.Compulsory licensing under Section 84
C.Voluntary licensing under Section 68
D.Revocation for non-use under Section 25(2)
Correct Answer: Compulsory licensing under Section 84
Explanation:
Section 84 permits any interested person to apply for a compulsory licence after three years if reasonable requirements of the public are unmet, the invention is not available at a reasonable price, or it is not worked in India, as applied in the Natco v. Bayer case.
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44A company develops a secret manufacturing process, a distinctive logo, a novel machine, and a proprietary user manual. Which mapping of each asset to its MOST appropriate primary IP protection is correct?
Correct Answer: Process → trade secret; logo → trademark; machine → patent; manual → copyright
Explanation:
A secret process is best kept as a trade secret, a brand logo is a trademark, a novel functional machine is patentable, and written expression like a manual is protected by copyright. Each right protects a distinct subject matter.
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45A researcher reuses substantial verbatim passages from their own previously published paper in a new submission without citation or disclosure. Which statement MOST accurately describes the ethical status of this act?
plagiarism and self-plagiarism
Hard
A.It is acceptable because authors cannot plagiarize their own words
B.It is duplicate authorship but not an ethical violation
C.It is plagiarism only if the earlier paper had co-authors
D.It is self-plagiarism (text recycling) and can breach copyright transferred to the earlier publisher
Correct Answer: It is self-plagiarism (text recycling) and can breach copyright transferred to the earlier publisher
Explanation:
Reusing one's own text without disclosure is self-plagiarism/text recycling; it misleads readers about novelty and may infringe copyright if publication rights were assigned to the first publisher, regardless of authorship.
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46Under the UGC (Promotion of Academic Integrity and Prevention of Plagiarism) Regulations, 2018, a student's thesis is found to contain 45% similarity (excluding exempted material). Into which level does this fall and what is the prescribed consequence?
university grants commission's (UGC) policy for curbing plagiarism
Hard
A.Level 1 (10–40%): revised submission within six months
B.Level 3 (>60%): registration cancelled with no resubmission
C.Level 2 (40–60%): revised submission after six months
Correct Answer: Level 2 (40–60%): revised submission after six months
Explanation:
The 2018 Regulations set Level 2 as 40–60% similarity; a student is required to submit a revised script within six months. Below 10% attracts no penalty, and above 60% is Level 3 with harsher action.
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47A faculty member is found guilty of Level 3 plagiarism (>60%) for the second time under the UGC 2018 Regulations. Which combination of penalties is prescribed for this repeat offence?
university grants commission's (UGC) policy for curbing plagiarism
Hard
A.One-time warning with mandatory counselling
B.Denial of annual increments and dismissal from service
C.Suspension for six months with no further action
D.Withdrawal of one increment and a two-year publication ban
Correct Answer: Denial of annual increments and dismissal from service
Explanation:
For a second Level 3 offence, the Regulations escalate to the most serious sanctions for faculty, including denial of increments and dismissal, reflecting the graded, cumulative penalty structure.
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48Which category of matter is EXPLICITLY excluded from similarity checks under the UGC 2018 anti-plagiarism Regulations?
university grants commission's (UGC) policy for curbing plagiarism
Hard
A.The abstract and conclusion of the thesis
B.Any text under 15 consecutive words
C.References cited by the candidate's own supervisor
D.Quoted work with proper attribution and common/standard terms
Correct Answer: Quoted work with proper attribution and common/standard terms
Explanation:
The Regulations exempt properly attributed quotations, references/bibliography, common knowledge, and standard/generic terms from the similarity computation, not entire structural sections like the abstract.
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49In India, a study involving both human clinical subjects and laboratory rodents requires clearance. Which pairing of oversight bodies is correct for these two components?
ethical Committees (human and animal)
Hard
A.CPCSEA for humans; IEC for animals
B.IEC for humans; IAEC/CPCSEA for animals
C.IRB for humans; ICMR for animals
D.DCGI for humans; IAEC for animals
Correct Answer: IEC for humans; IAEC/CPCSEA for animals
Explanation:
Human research requires Institutional Ethics Committee (IEC) approval per ICMR/CDSCO norms, while animal experiments require Institutional Animal Ethics Committee (IAEC) clearance under CPCSEA oversight.
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50A researcher plans to reduce the number of animals per group, replace live animals with cell cultures where possible, and refine procedures to minimize distress. This design directly operationalizes which foundational principle of animal research ethics?
ethical Committees (human and animal)
Hard
A.The Helsinki safeguards
B.The Belmont principles
C.The 3Rs: Replacement, Reduction, Refinement
D.The Nuremberg conditions
Correct Answer: The 3Rs: Replacement, Reduction, Refinement
Explanation:
Replacing animals, reducing numbers, and refining procedures to minimize suffering are precisely Russell and Burch's 3Rs, the cornerstone of humane animal research. The Belmont, Nuremberg, and Helsinki frameworks govern human subjects.
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51An author submits the same manuscript to two journals simultaneously to maximize acceptance chances. This practice is BEST classified as which publishing misconduct, and why is it problematic?
ethical issues related to publishing
Hard
A.Simultaneous/dual submission; it wastes reviewer effort and risks duplicate publication
B.Citation manipulation; it inflates impact metrics
C.Ghost authorship; it hides the true contributor
D.Salami slicing; it fragments one study into many papers
Correct Answer: Simultaneous/dual submission; it wastes reviewer effort and risks duplicate publication
Explanation:
Submitting the same work to multiple journals concurrently is dual/simultaneous submission. It duplicates peer-review labour and can lead to redundant publication and copyright conflicts if both accept.
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52A senior researcher who contributed no intellectual input is added to a paper solely due to seniority, while a junior who did the core work is included. The senior's inclusion exemplifies which authorship problem under ICMJE criteria?
ethical issues related to publishing
Hard
A.Guest reviewing, which biases peer review
B.Ghost authorship, which conceals a real author
C.Gift/honorary authorship, which violates ICMJE contribution requirements
D.Corresponding authorship, which is always improper
Correct Answer: Gift/honorary authorship, which violates ICMJE contribution requirements
Explanation:
Naming someone who did not meet all ICMJE authorship criteria (substantial contribution, drafting/revising, final approval, accountability) purely for status is gift/honorary authorship. Ghost authorship is the opposite—omitting a genuine contributor.
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53Two labs independently follow the same published protocol on the same dataset but obtain differing results. Using standard terminology, the failure here is BEST described as a lack of:
reproducibility and accountability
Hard
A.Generalizability (results should extend to new populations)
B.Reproducibility (same data/methods should yield same results)
C.Replicability (new data should yield consistent results)
D.Robustness (results should hold under varied analyses)
Correct Answer: Reproducibility (same data/methods should yield same results)
Explanation:
Reproducibility means the same data and analysis pipeline produce the same result. Replicability refers to obtaining consistent results with new data. The scenario reuses the same dataset, so reproducibility is the failing property.
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54A team publishes striking results but withholds raw data and analysis code, citing convenience. Which combination of open-science practices would MOST directly address the resulting accountability gap?
reproducibility and accountability
Hard
A.Data and code deposition in a repository with a pre-registered analysis plan
B.Adding a longer discussion section and more citations
C.Increasing the sample size and adding more co-authors
D.Publishing in a higher impact-factor journal
Correct Answer: Data and code deposition in a repository with a pre-registered analysis plan
Explanation:
Depositing data/code and pre-registering the analysis lets others verify the pipeline and guards against post-hoc flexibility, directly restoring reproducibility and accountability. Sample size or journal prestige do not address transparency.
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55A designer's original fabric pattern is copied by a competitor. The designer is unsure whether design registration or copyright applies. Under Indian law, which principle governs the overlap between the Designs Act and the Copyright Act for an industrially applied design?
introduction to intellectual property rights
Hard
A.Design registration is void if any copyright ever subsisted in the work
B.Copyright ceases once the design is applied industrially more than 50 times, if it was registrable as a design but unregistered
C.Both protections always coexist indefinitely regardless of registration
D.Copyright automatically converts into a registered design after first sale
Correct Answer: Copyright ceases once the design is applied industrially more than 50 times, if it was registrable as a design but unregistered
Explanation:
Section 15(2) of the Copyright Act extinguishes copyright in a design capable of registration under the Designs Act once articles are industrially reproduced more than 50 times, steering such works toward design registration.
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56Darjeeling tea and Basmati rice are protected in India by a form of IP that ties product reputation to a specific place of origin. This right is:
kinds of intellectual property rights
Hard
A.A trade secret, which lapses on public disclosure
B.A trademark, which is owned individually by the first registrant
C.A Geographical Indication, which is a collective right held by producers of the region
D.A patent, which expires 20 years from filing
Correct Answer: A Geographical Indication, which is a collective right held by producers of the region
Explanation:
GIs protect goods whose qualities/reputation are essentially due to geographic origin and are held collectively by authorized regional producers, unlike trademarks (individually owned) or patents (time-limited technical inventions).
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57A researcher fabricates several data points to strengthen a weak trend, alters an image to remove an inconvenient outlier, and cites unread sources. Which set correctly labels these three acts under the FFP framework and beyond?
ethical issues
Hard
A.Falsification, fabrication, and plagiarism
B.Fabrication, falsification, and a questionable research practice (citation misconduct)
C.Falsification, plagiarism, and gift authorship
D.Fabrication, plagiarism, and duplication
Correct Answer: Fabrication, falsification, and a questionable research practice (citation misconduct)
Explanation:
Inventing data is fabrication; manipulating an image to distort findings is falsification. Citing unread sources is not FFP but a questionable research practice affecting integrity of the literature.
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58In human-subjects research, a design withholds a proven effective treatment from a control group when one exists, using a placebo instead. Which core bioethical principle is MOST directly violated, per the Declaration of Helsinki?
ethics
Hard
A.Justice (the burden falls on a vulnerable group)
B.Confidentiality (participant identities were exposed)
C.Beneficence/non-maleficence (denying established effective care harms participants)
D.Autonomy (participants were not enrolled voluntarily)
Correct Answer: Beneficence/non-maleficence (denying established effective care harms participants)
Explanation:
Helsinki generally prohibits placebo use where a proven intervention exists because withholding effective treatment risks harm, breaching beneficence/non-maleficence. The scenario does not describe consent, group-selection, or privacy failures.
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59A published paper is later found to rest on fabricated data. Which sequence of consequences reflects the standard escalation typically imposed by journals and institutions?
penalties and consequences
Hard
A.Immediate criminal imprisonment followed by journal apology
B.Automatic patent revocation and loss of copyright only
C.Mandatory re-review with no retraction if the author apologizes
D.Retraction of the article, institutional inquiry, and possible funding/employment sanctions
Correct Answer: Retraction of the article, institutional inquiry, and possible funding/employment sanctions
Explanation:
Confirmed fabrication typically triggers formal retraction (per COPE guidelines), an institutional integrity investigation, and administrative penalties such as loss of funding or employment—not automatic criminal or IP outcomes.
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60An inventor publicly demonstrates and discloses an invention at a trade fair before filing any patent application in India. What is the MOST likely consequence for patentability, absent any statutory grace provision being met?
Indian patent act 1970
Hard
A.The disclosure destroys novelty, rendering the invention unpatentable
B.Novelty is preserved because trade-fair displays are always exempt
C.Patentability is unaffected as long as filing occurs within 20 years
D.The invention gains automatic priority from the fair date
Correct Answer: The disclosure destroys novelty, rendering the invention unpatentable
Explanation:
India follows an absolute-novelty standard; prior public disclosure generally defeats novelty. Limited exceptions (e.g., certain government exhibitions under Sections 30–31) apply only within narrow conditions and timelines, not assumed here.
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