Unit 3: Creating value - Practice Quiz

MKT201 — Principles Of Marketing 60 Questions
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1 What is a product?

Product and service decisions Easy
A. Only a physical item sold in a store
B. Only a service provided by an employee
C. Anything offered to satisfy a need or want
D. Only an advertisement for a company

2 Which of the following is an example of a service?

Product and service decisions Easy
A. A haircut
B. A restaurant meal
C. A bottle of water
D. A packaged notebook

3 What does product quality mainly refer to?

Product and service decisions Easy
A. The color of the product package
B. The location of the production facility
C. The number of products in a store
D. The product's ability to meet customer expectations

4 What is a product line?

Product and service decisions Easy
A. A group of related products
B. A single product advertisement
C. A schedule for product delivery
D. A list of company employees

5 What is the first stage in the new product development process?

New product decisions Easy
A. Product launch
B. Commercialization
C. Test marketing
D. Idea generation

6 What is concept testing?

New product decisions Easy
A. Asking target customers to evaluate a product idea
B. Choosing the product's distribution channel
C. Calculating the company's annual profit
D. Checking the product's final sales results

7 What is test marketing?

New product decisions Easy
A. Introducing a product in a limited market
B. Selling a product worldwide immediately
C. Changing the company logo before launch
D. Removing an old product from the market

8 What is commercialization in new product development?

New product decisions Easy
A. Creating the first product idea
B. Launching the product for full-scale sale
C. Rejecting every product proposal
D. Studying only the production process

9 What is a brand?

Brand management and decisions Easy
A. A product's manufacturing machine
B. A store's employee training manual
C. A company's monthly sales report
D. A name, sign, symbol, or design identifying an offering

10 What is brand equity?

Brand management and decisions Easy
A. The cost of printing product labels
B. The value added by a well-known brand
C. The physical size of a brand logo
D. The number of products in a brand line

11 What is brand loyalty?

Brand management and decisions Easy
A. A customer's repeated preference for a brand
B. A retailer's choice of store location
C. A product's ability to last for many years
D. A company's decision to lower its prices

12 What is a private brand?

Brand management and decisions Easy
A. A brand sold only through social media
B. A brand used without a product name
C. A brand owned by a retailer or distributor
D. A brand owned by a government agency

13 What is price?

Price setting policy Easy
A. The level of customer satisfaction
B. The number of products sold by a company
C. The amount charged for a product or service
D. The total cost of a company's employees

14 Which factor directly affects a company's price-setting decision?

Price setting policy Easy
A. Office wall color
B. Production cost
C. Employee uniform style
D. Company holiday schedule

15 What is a pricing objective?

Price setting policy Easy
A. A design used on product packaging
B. A list of customer complaints
C. A method for transporting products
D. A goal that guides pricing decisions

16 What is a break-even point?

Price setting policy Easy
A. The point where a product becomes a brand
B. The point where competitors leave the market
C. The point where demand reaches its highest level
D. The point where total revenue equals total cost

17 What is cost-plus pricing?

Pricing strategies Easy
A. Charging different prices to every customer
B. Matching the lowest competitor price
C. Adding a markup to the product cost
D. Setting a price below the product cost

18 What is penetration pricing?

Pricing strategies Easy
A. Keeping the same price for every product
B. Setting a high price for a luxury image
C. Increasing the price after every purchase
D. Setting a low initial price to gain market share

19 What is price skimming?

Pricing strategies Easy
A. Reducing all prices below production cost
B. Offering a product at no charge
C. Setting a high initial price for a new product
D. Using the same price as every competitor

20 What is psychological pricing?

Pricing strategies Easy
A. Pricing products to influence customer perceptions
B. Pricing products without considering customers
C. Pricing products based only on employee wages
D. Pricing products only according to production cost

21 A smartphone company adds a longer warranty, faster technical support, and free software updates to its existing phone model. Which product decision is the company primarily making?

Product and service decisions Medium
A. Changing the product's basic form
B. Reducing the product's product line
C. Enhancing the product's augmented level
D. Improving the product's core benefit

22 A hotel notices that guests value quick check-in more than elaborate lobby decorations. Which service characteristic should management focus on improving first?

Product and service decisions Medium
A. Physical appearance of facilities
B. Employee scheduling flexibility
C. Consistency of service delivery
D. Speed of customer participation

23 A food manufacturer sells cereal under several sizes and flavors within the same cereal category. What aspect of its product mix is it mainly increasing?

Product and service decisions Medium
A. Product mix width
B. Product mix length
C. Product mix consistency
D. Product mix depth

24 An airline trains employees to handle complaints using the same recovery procedure across all flights. Which service management problem is this approach most likely to reduce?

Product and service decisions Medium
A. Service variability
B. Service perishability
C. Service intangibility
D. Service inseparability

25 Before developing a smart water bottle, a company interviews target users and discovers that most do not want mobile connectivity. Which new product development activity is being performed?

New product decisions Medium
A. Product development
B. Test marketing
C. Commercialization
D. Concept testing

26 A firm develops a prototype of a new electric scooter and tests whether it meets technical performance requirements. Which stage of new product development is this?

New product decisions Medium
A. Idea generation
B. Product development
C. Market testing
D. Commercialization

27 A beverage company launches a new drink in two cities to measure repeat purchases and retailer response before expanding nationally. What is the company doing?

New product decisions Medium
A. Testing the product concept
B. Conducting test marketing
C. Screening product ideas
D. Estimating market potential

28 A company rejects a new product idea because projected sales cannot cover its expected development and launch costs. Which evaluation criterion is being applied?

New product decisions Medium
A. Commercial viability
B. Technical feasibility
C. Customer compatibility
D. Strategic fit

29 A company uses the same brand name for a new flavor of an existing snack product. Which branding strategy is this?

Brand management and decisions Medium
A. Brand extension
B. Private branding
C. Multibranding
D. New-brand strategy

30 A retailer sells batteries under its own name rather than under the manufacturer's name. What type of brand is being used?

Brand management and decisions Medium
A. Private brand
B. Licensed brand
C. National brand
D. Generic brand

31 A premium coffee brand introduces a very low-priced instant coffee under its existing name. Which risk is most relevant to this decision?

Brand management and decisions Medium
A. Brand dilution
B. Brand licensing
C. Brand protection
D. Brand recognition

32 After a redesign, customers still recognize a company's logo and continue associating it with dependable products. Which brand outcome has been preserved?

Brand management and decisions Medium
A. Brand assortment
B. Brand equity
C. Brand licensing
D. Brand breadth

33 A sportswear company allows a famous athlete to use its name on a limited-edition shoe and pays a fee for the right. Which decision does this illustrate?

Brand management and decisions Medium
A. Co-branding
B. Private branding
C. Brand repositioning
D. Brand licensing

34 A company calculates that a product costs $40 per unit and adds a 25% markup on cost. What price should it set?

Price setting policy Medium
A. $45
B. $55
C. $48
D. $50

35 A firm estimates fixed costs of $60,000, a selling price of $20 per unit, and variable costs of $8 per unit. What is the break-even quantity?

Price setting policy Medium
A. 7,500 units
B. 3,000 units
C. 10,000 units
D. 5,000 units

36 A retailer lowers the price of a product after research shows that customers are highly sensitive to price changes. Which pricing consideration is being emphasized?

Price setting policy Medium
A. Competitor branding
B. Product positioning
C. Distribution intensity
D. Demand elasticity

37 A company wants its new medical device to be perceived as superior and uses a high initial price supported by advanced features. Which pricing objective is most evident?

Price setting policy Medium
A. Premium quality positioning
B. Rapid market coverage
C. Retailer traffic generation
D. Short-term inventory clearance

38 A technology firm launches a new gaming console at a high price to recover development costs from customers willing to pay more, then plans later price reductions. Which strategy is this?

Pricing strategies Medium
A. Psychological pricing
B. Market-penetration pricing
C. Product-bundle pricing
D. Market-skimming pricing

39 A streaming service sets a low introductory subscription price to attract many users quickly and build market share. Which strategy is being used?

Pricing strategies Medium
A. Optional-product pricing
B. Market-penetration pricing
C. Captive-product pricing
D. Market-skimming pricing

40 A printer is sold at a low price, but customers must purchase compatible ink cartridges regularly. Which pricing strategy does this represent?

Pricing strategies Medium
A. Captive-product pricing
B. Geographical pricing
C. By-product pricing
D. Product-line pricing

41 A product line generates annual revenue of $500,000, has variable costs of $300,000, avoidable fixed costs of $80,000, and allocated common fixed costs of $100,000. If the line is deleted, 30% of its sales will transfer to another product whose contribution margin ratio is 40%. What is the annual profit effect of deleting the line?

Product and service decisions Hard
A. Profit decreases by $120,000
B. Profit increases by $60,000
C. Profit increases by $40,000
D. Profit decreases by $60,000

42 A clinic offers basic visits and complex visits. A basic visit uses 20 nurse-minutes and 10 doctor-minutes and contributes $50. A complex visit uses 30 nurse-minutes and 30 doctor-minutes and contributes $100. The clinic has 360 nurse-minutes and 240 doctor-minutes, with maximum demands of 12 basic and 10 complex visits. Which daily service mix maximizes contribution?

Product and service decisions Hard
A. 9 basic and 5 complex visits
B. 6 basic and 6 complex visits
C. 0 basic and 8 complex visits
D. 12 basic and 4 complex visits

43 A factory has 500 machine-hours available. Products A, B, and C have unit contribution margins of $60, $50, and $32; require 3, 2, and 1 machine-hours per unit; and have maximum demands of 100, 150, and 200 units, respectively. Which production plan maximizes total contribution?

Product and service decisions Hard
A. 0 A, 150 B, and 200 C
B. 100 A, 0 B, and 200 C
C. 100 A, 100 B, and 0 C
D. 50 A, 75 B, and 200 C

44 A firm sells 10,000 units annually with a pre-warranty contribution of $80 per unit. Its current warranty has an expected claim cost of $6 per unit. An enhanced warranty would raise unit sales by 8% but increase expected claim cost to $15 per unit on every unit sold. Assuming no other changes, what is the annual profit effect?

Product and service decisions Hard
A. Profit increases by $26,000
B. Profit increases by $64,000
C. Profit decreases by $38,000
D. Profit decreases by $90,000

45 A new-product project requires $1 million of research spending now. There is a 60% probability of technical success. If successful, the firm will spend $4 million one year from now and simultaneously receive project benefits valued at $9 million at that date. Failure produces no additional cash flows. At a 10% discount rate, what is the project's expected NPV?

New product decisions Hard
A. $-0.45 million; reject
B. $2.00 million; accept
C. $0.82 million; accept
D. $1.73 million; accept

46 A proposed product is forecast to sell 20,000 units annually at a contribution margin of $30 per unit. Market research indicates that 25% of these sales would replace purchases of an existing product that contributes $20 per unit. Incremental annual marketing costs will be $250,000. What is the new product's incremental annual profit?

New product decisions Hard
A. $150,000
B. $350,000
C. $250,000
D. $450,000

47 Conjoint analysis estimates that upgrading a device's battery adds 1.2 utility units. The estimated price coefficient is utility units per dollar. Holding all other attributes constant, what is the maximum price premium that exactly offsets the battery upgrade's utility gain?

New product decisions Hard
A. $48
B. $36
C. $30
D. $40

48 Before a concept test, a firm assigns a 40% probability that a new product will succeed. The test produces a positive result with probability 75% when the product will succeed and with probability 20% when it will fail. Given a positive result, what is the revised probability of success?

New product decisions Hard
A. 71.4%
B. 75.0%
C. 60.0%
D. 83.3%

49 A proposed brand extension would generate annual contribution of $700,000 and require $300,000 in annual brand support. Research predicts that dilution will reduce the parent brand's $4 million annual revenue by 3%; the parent has a 50% contribution margin ratio. What is the extension's net annual contribution after dilution?

Brand management and decisions Hard
A. $220,000
B. $280,000
C. $400,000
D. $340,000

50 Under the relief-from-royalty method, a brand is expected to support revenue of $10 million annually for three years. An arm's-length royalty rate is 4%, the tax rate is 25%, and the discount rate is 10%. Ignoring terminal value, what is the brand's approximate value?

Brand management and decisions Hard
A. $1.200 million
B. $0.746 million
C. $0.995 million
D. $0.621 million

51 A corporation acquires a niche brand with strong loyalty in a specialized segment but little credibility outside it. The corporate brand is widely trusted, although replacing the niche name would risk losing its existing associations. Which brand architecture best balances these considerations?

Brand management and decisions Hard
A. A single unmodified master brand
B. A fully independent house of brands
C. An endorsed-brand architecture
D. A complete corporate rebranding

52 A branded offering sells 50,000 units at $30, while a no-brand alternative would sell 60,000 units at $24. Both have a variable cost of $12 per unit, but the branded offering requires $300,000 in annual brand spending. Relative to the no-brand alternative, what incremental annual profit does the brand create?

Brand management and decisions Hard
A. $-120,000
B. $-300,000
C. $180,000
D. $120,000

53 Demand for a product is , where is price in dollars. Unit variable cost is $40, annual fixed cost is $100,000, and management requires annual profit of $50,000. Two prices satisfy the target-profit equation. What is the lower target-return price?

Price setting policy Hard
A. $483.07
B. $70.00
C. $50.00
D. $56.93

54 A profit-maximizing firm faces constant own-price elasticity of demand of and has a constant marginal cost of $30. Using the inverse-elasticity pricing rule, what price should it set?

Price setting policy Hard
A. $45
B. $50
C. $42
D. $75

55 A product's consumer price is $200. The retailer requires a gross margin equal to 25% of its selling price. The wholesaler requires a gross margin equal to 20% of its selling price to the retailer. If the manufacturer's variable cost is $70, what contribution per unit does the manufacturer earn?

Price setting policy Hard
A. $60
B. $50
C. $40
D. $80

56 A museum wants to charge a lower price to a segment with more elastic demand while limiting resale and preserving access to the regular-price market. Which policy best satisfies the economic conditions for segmented pricing?

Price setting policy Hard
A. Random discounts on unrestricted admission tickets
B. Verified student discounts on nontransferable tickets
C. Permanent discounts at an adjacent ticket booth
D. Lower prices for anyone paying with cash

57 Two customers have reservation prices for products A and B of and , respectively. Marginal costs are zero, and the firm must choose either separate pricing or pure bundling. Which strategy maximizes revenue?

Pricing strategies Hard
A. Bundle at $130 for revenue of $130
B. Bundle at $120 for revenue of $240
C. Price separately for revenue of $170
D. Price separately for revenue of $160

58 A digital platform has near-zero marginal cost, strong cross-side network effects, and high customer switching costs after adoption. Customers initially perceive little value because few complementary users are present. Which launch pricing strategy is most appropriate?

Pricing strategies Hard
A. Penetration pricing to build installed base
B. Prestige pricing to signal exclusivity
C. Cost-plus pricing to stabilize margins
D. Skimming pricing to recover development cost

59 Identical customers have individual demand for a service with constant marginal cost of and no fixed operating cost. Under an optimal two-part tariff that extracts all consumer surplus, what per-unit price and access fee should the firm charge?

Pricing strategies Hard
A. $20 per unit and a $3,200 fee
B. $20 per unit and a $6,400 fee
C. $40 per unit and a $1,800 fee
D. $60 per unit and an $800 fee

60 An airline sells early seats for $120 and late seats for $300. Late-period demand is normally distributed with mean 40 and standard deviation 10. Using Littlewood's rule, approximately how many seats should be protected for late customers? Use .

Pricing strategies Hard
A. 43 seats
B. 47 seats
C. 40 seats
D. 35 seats