1What type of fruit is an apple botanically classified as?
Apple
Easy
A.Drupe
B.Pome
C.Berry
D.Capsule
Correct Answer: Pome
Explanation:
Apple is a pome fruit in which the fleshy thalamus forms most of the edible portion.
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2Which propagation method is commonly used to produce commercial apple plants?
Apple
Easy
A.Grafting
B.Seed sowing
C.Leaf cutting
D.Runner planting
Correct Answer: Grafting
Explanation:
Commercial apple cultivars are commonly grafted onto suitable rootstocks to maintain their desirable traits.
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3Which training system is commonly used for standard apple trees?
Apple
Easy
A.Open center
B.Kniffin system
C.Central leader
D.Bower system
Correct Answer: Central leader
Explanation:
The central leader system develops a strong main trunk with well-spaced scaffold branches.
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4Why are pollinizer cultivars commonly planted in apple orchards?
Apple
Easy
A.To control root growth
B.To improve cross-pollination
C.To reduce soil acidity
D.To prevent fruit cracking
Correct Answer: To improve cross-pollination
Explanation:
Many apple cultivars are self-incompatible and require compatible pollen from another cultivar for good fruit set.
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5What is the botanical fruit type of pear?
Pear
Easy
A.Nut
B.Drupe
C.Legume
D.Pome
Correct Answer: Pome
Explanation:
Pear is classified as a pome fruit, similar to apple.
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6What is the scientific name of the European pear?
Pear
Easy
A.Malus domestica
B.Juglans regia
C.Prunus persica
D.Pyrus communis
Correct Answer: Pyrus communis
Explanation:
The European or common pear is botanically known as Pyrus communis.
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7Which method is commonly used for the commercial propagation of pear?
Pear
Easy
A.Budding
B.Tuber division
C.Leaf cutting
D.Runner formation
Correct Answer: Budding
Explanation:
Pear cultivars are commonly propagated by budding or grafting onto suitable rootstocks.
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8What type of fruit is peach?
Peach
Easy
A.Drupe
B.Berry
C.Pome
D.Capsule
Correct Answer: Drupe
Explanation:
Peach is a drupe because it has fleshy pulp surrounding a hard stone.
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9Which training system is commonly recommended for peach trees?
Peach
Easy
A.Central leader
B.Telephone system
C.Bower system
D.Open center
Correct Answer: Open center
Explanation:
The open-center system allows sunlight to reach the inner canopy and supports good fruit development.
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10Peach trees mainly bear fruit on which type of growth?
Peach
Easy
A.Two-year-old roots
B.Current-season flowers
C.One-year-old shoots
D.Three-year-old trunks
Correct Answer: One-year-old shoots
Explanation:
Peach flowers and fruits are mainly produced on shoots that developed during the previous season.
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11Which structure is commonly used for the vegetative propagation of strawberry?
Strawberry
Easy
A.Runner
B.Sucker
C.Corm
D.Bulb
Correct Answer: Runner
Explanation:
Strawberry produces horizontal stems called runners that form new daughter plants.
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12How is the strawberry fruit botanically classified?
Strawberry
Easy
A.Simple pome fruit
B.Aggregate accessory fruit
C.Single drupe fruit
D.Dry capsule fruit
Correct Answer: Aggregate accessory fruit
Explanation:
Strawberry is an aggregate accessory fruit because its fleshy portion is enlarged receptacle tissue bearing many small fruits.
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13What are the small seed-like structures visible on the surface of a strawberry called?
Strawberry
Easy
A.Achenes
B.Arils
C.Scales
D.Stones
Correct Answer: Achenes
Explanation:
The small structures on the strawberry surface are achenes, and each achene is a true fruit.
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14Which part of a strawberry plant gives rise to leaves, roots, and flower clusters?
Strawberry
Easy
A.Rhizome
B.Tendril
C.Crown
D.Taproot
Correct Answer: Crown
Explanation:
The crown is the short central stem from which strawberry leaves, roots, runners, and flower clusters develop.
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15Which part of the almond fruit is normally eaten?
Almond
Easy
A.Hull
B.Kernel
C.Shell
D.Stalk
Correct Answer: Kernel
Explanation:
The edible part of almond is the kernel, which is the seed enclosed within the hard shell.
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16Which method is commonly used for the commercial propagation of almond?
Almond
Easy
A.Runner planting
B.Budding
C.Corm division
D.Leaf layering
Correct Answer: Budding
Explanation:
Commercial almond cultivars are commonly propagated by budding onto suitable rootstocks.
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17Why are compatible pollinizer cultivars often planted in almond orchards?
Almond
Easy
A.To ensure cross-pollination
B.To reduce tree height
C.To prevent shell splitting
D.To increase soil moisture
Correct Answer: To ensure cross-pollination
Explanation:
Many almond cultivars are self-incompatible and require pollen from a compatible cultivar for good nut set.
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18What is the scientific name of the English or Persian walnut?
Walnut
Easy
A.Pyrus communis
B.Juglans regia
C.Fragaria ananassa
D.Prunus dulcis
Correct Answer: Juglans regia
Explanation:
The English or Persian walnut is scientifically known as Juglans regia.
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19Which part of the walnut is eaten?
Walnut
Easy
A.Shell
B.Pedicel
C.Kernel
D.Husk
Correct Answer: Kernel
Explanation:
The edible portion of walnut is the kernel enclosed within the hard shell.
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20Why are selected walnut cultivars commonly propagated by grafting?
Walnut
Easy
A.To increase seed variation
B.To eliminate all pruning
C.To preserve cultivar traits
D.To produce new hybrids
Correct Answer: To preserve cultivar traits
Explanation:
Grafting produces plants that retain the desirable characteristics of the selected walnut cultivar.
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21An apple orchard established on M.9 rootstock shows tree leaning and rapid moisture stress during dry periods. Which management practice best addresses both problems?
Apple
Medium
A.Provide permanent support and frequent regulated irrigation
B.Apply heavy nitrogen and remove all support stakes
C.Use deep cultivation and infrequent flood irrigation
D.Allow wider canopies and discontinue soil mulching
Correct Answer: Provide permanent support and frequent regulated irrigation
Explanation:
M.9 produces a shallow, relatively weak root system. Trees generally require permanent support and carefully scheduled irrigation.
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22An apple block had a very heavy fruit set last season, followed by poor flowering this season. Which practice would most directly reduce recurrence of this problem?
Apple
Medium
A.Withhold irrigation during flower-bud formation
B.Increase nitrogen during the light crop year
C.Thin fruit early during the heavy crop year
D.Delay pruning until the fruit harvest period
Correct Answer: Thin fruit early during the heavy crop year
Explanation:
Early fruit thinning reduces competition from developing seeds and fruits, promoting flower-bud formation for the following year and limiting biennial bearing.
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23Apple fruits develop small, sunken, corky spots near the calyx end during storage. Which orchard adjustment is most appropriate?
Apple
Medium
A.Apply iron sprays and reduce fruit thinning
B.Apply sulfur sprays and delay fruit harvest
C.Apply calcium sprays and avoid excessive nitrogen
D.Apply boron sprays and increase nitrogen supply
Correct Answer: Apply calcium sprays and avoid excessive nitrogen
Explanation:
These symptoms indicate bitter pit, a calcium-related physiological disorder. Calcium sprays and balanced nitrogen management help reduce its incidence.
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24A large orchard is planted entirely with a self-unfruitful apple cultivar. Flowering is abundant, but fruit set is consistently low. What is the best corrective measure?
Apple
Medium
A.Increase nitrogen fertilization shortly before full bloom
B.Introduce compatible pollinizers and maintain bee colonies
C.Apply growth retardants immediately after petal fall
D.Prune all trees heavily during the flowering period
Correct Answer: Introduce compatible pollinizers and maintain bee colonies
Explanation:
Most apple cultivars require cross-pollination. Compatible cultivars with overlapping bloom and adequate bee activity improve pollen transfer and fruit set.
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25European pears become mealy and develop internal breakdown when allowed to soften fully on the tree. Which harvest strategy is most suitable?
Pear
Medium
A.Harvest overripe fruits and dry them before marketing
B.Harvest fully soft fruits and cool them after packing
C.Harvest mature-green fruits and ripen them after storage
D.Harvest immature fruits before their seeds begin developing
Correct Answer: Harvest mature-green fruits and ripen them after storage
Explanation:
European pears are normally harvested at mature-green stage and ripened off the tree to obtain better texture and reduce internal breakdown.
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26A desirable pear cultivar is incompatible with quince rootstock, but the grower still wants the dwarfing effect of quince. What should be done?
Pear
Medium
A.Plant the scion directly below the quince roots
B.Insert a compatible pear interstem between them
C.Remove the rootstock shoots after every harvest
D.Increase the grafting height above the canopy
Correct Answer: Insert a compatible pear interstem between them
Explanation:
A compatible interstem can bridge graft incompatibility while retaining the dwarfing influence of the quince rootstock.
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27Pear shoots show blackened blossoms and characteristic shepherd's-crook tips after warm, wet weather. Which action best limits further spread?
Pear
Medium
A.Use overhead irrigation to wash affected blossoms
B.Retain infected shoots until normal winter pruning
C.Apply extra nitrogen to stimulate shoot replacement
D.Prune below infected tissue during dry weather
Correct Answer: Prune below infected tissue during dry weather
Explanation:
The symptoms indicate fire blight. Removing shoots well below visible infection during dry weather reduces bacterial inoculum and further spread.
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28A peach orchard has dense canopies and little new shoot growth, causing fruiting to shift toward the outside of the trees. Which pruning approach is most suitable?
Peach
Medium
A.Remove only current-season shoots after fruit set
B.Avoid pruning so older branches retain their spurs
C.Head every branch severely during active flowering
D.Use annual pruning to renew one-year-old shoots
Correct Answer: Use annual pruning to renew one-year-old shoots
Explanation:
Peach fruits mainly on one-year-old shoots. Regular pruning maintains new fruiting wood and improves light distribution within the canopy.
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29A peach tree has set too many fruitlets, and the grower wants to improve fruit size without wasting excessive assimilates. What should be done?
Peach
Medium
A.Thin mature fruits shortly before harvest
B.Thin young fruits before pit hardening
C.Retain clustered fruits until natural fruit drop
D.Remove flowers after the fruits begin coloring
Correct Answer: Thin young fruits before pit hardening
Explanation:
Early thinning, generally before pit hardening, reduces competition among fruits and gives the retained fruits more time to increase in size.
Incorrect! Try again.
30Peach trees in a mild-winter location show delayed leafing, irregular flowering, and poor fruit set. Which long-term decision is most appropriate?
Peach
Medium
A.Increase summer pruning to prolong winter dormancy
B.Delay irrigation until all buds have opened naturally
C.Replace them with cultivars having higher chilling needs
D.Replace them with cultivars having lower chilling needs
Correct Answer: Replace them with cultivars having lower chilling needs
Explanation:
The symptoms indicate inadequate winter chilling. Low-chill cultivars are better adapted to locations that do not accumulate enough chilling hours.
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31Recently planted strawberry plants show crown rotting because the growing point was covered with soil. What is the correct planting depth?
Strawberry
Medium
A.Keep the midpoint of the crown at soil level
B.Cover the crown completely with surface mulch
C.Place the entire crown several centimeters underground
D.Keep all roots and the crown above soil level
Correct Answer: Keep the midpoint of the crown at soil level
Explanation:
Strawberries should be planted with the crown at soil level. Deep planting promotes crown rot, while shallow planting exposes roots to drying.
Incorrect! Try again.
32In an annual plasticulture strawberry system intended mainly for fruit production, numerous runners are forming. How should they be managed?
Strawberry
Medium
A.Root all runners to create a dense matted row
B.Remove runners to direct resources toward fruiting
C.Retain runners until they begin producing flowers
D.Bury runners beneath mulch to strengthen the crown
Correct Answer: Remove runners to direct resources toward fruiting
Explanation:
In annual plasticulture, runners compete with flowers and fruits for assimilates. Their removal supports crown development and marketable fruit production.
Incorrect! Try again.
33Strawberry fruits develop soft brown lesions covered by gray fungal growth during cool, humid weather. Which management combination is most effective?
Strawberry
Medium
A.Use evening sprinklers, retain debris, and increase plant density
B.Use frequent flooding, dense mulch, and retain damaged fruit
C.Use heavy nitrogen, close ventilation, and delay fruit picking
D.Use drip irrigation, improve aeration, and remove infected fruit
Correct Answer: Use drip irrigation, improve aeration, and remove infected fruit
Explanation:
These are symptoms of Botrytis gray mold. Reducing fruit wetness, improving airflow, and removing infected material limit disease development.
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34A strawberry field contains 10,000 plants. Each plant produces an average of kg of fruit, of which is marketable. What is the expected marketable yield?
Strawberry
Medium
A. kg
B. kg
C. kg
D. kg
Correct Answer: kg
Explanation:
Marketable yield is kg.
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35A self-incompatible almond cultivar flowers profusely but sets few nuts in a single-cultivar block. Which orchard modification is most appropriate?
Almond
Medium
A.Apply additional nitrogen while flowers remain unopened
B.Remove bee colonies and depend mainly on wind pollination
C.Add compatible cultivars with overlapping bloom and bees
D.Add the same cultivar in alternate rows with windbreaks
Correct Answer: Add compatible cultivars with overlapping bloom and bees
Explanation:
Self-incompatible almonds need pollen from compatible cultivars. Overlapping flowering and adequate bee activity are essential for effective cross-pollination.
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36A grower is selecting a site and cultivar for almond production in an area with frequent late spring frosts. Which combination offers the best risk reduction?
Almond
Medium
A.A late-blooming cultivar on a site with good air drainage
B.An early-blooming cultivar on a low, enclosed valley floor
C.A late-blooming cultivar on a waterlogged depression
D.An early-blooming cultivar beside a dense frost barrier
Correct Answer: A late-blooming cultivar on a site with good air drainage
Explanation:
Late-blooming cultivars may escape frost-prone periods, while sloping sites with good air drainage reduce the accumulation of cold air.
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37Most almond hulls have split and the nuts have reached harvest maturity. Which postharvest sequence best protects kernel quality?
Almond
Medium
A.Shake the trees, remove hulls, and dry promptly
B.Flood the orchard, retain hulls, and store immediately
C.Delay harvest, soften shells, and dry under plastic
D.Pick unopened nuts, wash kernels, and seal them wet
Correct Answer: Shake the trees, remove hulls, and dry promptly
Explanation:
Mature almonds are commonly shaken from the trees after hull split. Prompt hulling and drying reduce mold, staining, and quality loss.
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38A walnut cultivar releases most of its pollen before its female flowers become receptive. How should this pollination problem be managed?
Walnuts often show dichogamy, with male and female bloom occurring at different times. Suitable pollinizers provide pollen when female flowers are receptive.
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39Walnut blight has repeatedly caused dark lesions on young nuts during wet springs. Which preventive program is most appropriate?
Walnut
Medium
A.Apply nitrogen fertilizer after lesions become clearly visible
B.Delay all disease management until after hull dehiscence
C.Use overhead irrigation to remove bacteria from young nuts
D.Apply a labeled copper protectant before wet infection periods
Correct Answer: Apply a labeled copper protectant before wet infection periods
Explanation:
Walnut blight is favored by wet conditions. A protectant applied before infection periods is more effective than treatments made after symptoms appear.
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40Walnuts have reached physiological maturity, indicated by browning of the packing tissue around the kernel. What should the grower do next?
Walnut
Medium
A.Leave nuts until kernels begin germinating in the hull
B.Soak harvested nuts before placing them in sealed bags
C.Harvest, remove hulls promptly, and dry the nuts
D.Store freshly hulled nuts without reducing moisture
Correct Answer: Harvest, remove hulls promptly, and dry the nuts
Explanation:
Brown packing tissue is a useful maturity indicator. Prompt harvesting, hulling, and drying help preserve kernel color and prevent mold development.
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41An orchard contains alternate rows of triploid 'Jonagold' and diploid 'Gala', whose flowering periods overlap. Fruit set of 'Gala' remains poor despite abundant bees. Which modification most directly addresses the underlying problem?
Apple
Hard
A.Delay bee introduction until full petal fall
B.Increase the proportion of triploid 'Jonagold' trees
C.Add a compatible diploid pollenizer with overlapping bloom
Correct Answer: Add a compatible diploid pollenizer with overlapping bloom
Explanation:
Triploid apples generally produce little viable pollen. 'Gala' may pollinate 'Jonagold', but the reciprocal cross is ineffective, so another compatible diploid pollenizer is required.
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42Apple trees on MM.106 grow normally for several years but then show reddish-brown necrosis at the crown, reduced shoot growth, and sudden collapse following seasons of poor drainage. Which interpretation is most appropriate?
Apple
Hard
A.MM.106 induces severe iron chlorosis in wet soil
B.MM.106 causes graft incompatibility after bearing
C.MM.106 is highly susceptible to crown gall alone
D.MM.106 is vulnerable to Phytophthora collar rot
Correct Answer: MM.106 is vulnerable to Phytophthora collar rot
Explanation:
MM.106 is particularly susceptible to Phytophthora collar and crown rot, especially where water accumulates around the rootstock.
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43A lightly cropped apple block produces unusually large fruit that develop sunken corky lesions near the calyx during storage. Leaf analysis shows high nitrogen, while fruit calcium is low. Which management program is most suitable?
Apple
Hard
A.Apply calcium sprays and moderate nitrogen-driven vigor
B.Apply potassium sprays and delay fruit thinning
C.Increase nitrogen and harvest at advanced maturity
D.Reduce calcium and maintain a lighter crop load
Correct Answer: Apply calcium sprays and moderate nitrogen-driven vigor
Explanation:
The symptoms indicate bitter pit. Low fruit calcium, excessive vigor, large fruit, and light cropping increase risk; repeated calcium applications and balanced nitrogen help reduce it.
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44A strongly biennial apple cultivar has an excessive crop in the current season. Which intervention is most likely to improve both marketable fruit size and return bloom in the following season?
Apple
Hard
A.Apply additional nitrogen during late fruit maturation
B.Thin fruit during the early post-bloom cell-division stage
C.Thin fruit immediately before the commercial harvest date
D.Prune bearing shoots after terminal buds become dormant
Correct Answer: Thin fruit during the early post-bloom cell-division stage
Explanation:
Early thinning, commonly near the 8–12 mm fruit stage, reduces competition while flower initiation for the next season is occurring. Late thinning cannot adequately restore return bloom.
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45A commercially valuable European pear cultivar is incompatible with quince rootstock, but a dwarf tree is required. Which nursery strategy best preserves the dwarfing effect while overcoming incompatibility?
Pear
Hard
A.Insert a quince-compatible pear interstem at the union
B.Insert a vigorous seedling rootstock above the quince
C.Graft the cultivar directly and deepen the planting
D.Use the cultivar itself as a rooted interstock
Correct Answer: Insert a quince-compatible pear interstem at the union
Explanation:
A compatible pear interstem, such as one from a quince-compatible cultivar, bridges an otherwise incompatible scion–quince union while retaining much of the quince dwarfing effect.
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46A grower harvests European pears only after they become soft on the tree, resulting in internal breakdown and poor storage quality. Which replacement practice is physiologically appropriate?
Pear
Hard
A.Leave fruit until full softening and then cool rapidly
B.Harvest mature-green fruit and complete ripening after harvest
C.Harvest after natural drop and immediately apply ethylene
D.Harvest immature fruit before starch conversion has begun
Correct Answer: Harvest mature-green fruit and complete ripening after harvest
Explanation:
Most European pears develop superior texture when harvested physiologically mature but firm, followed by chilling where required and ripening off the tree.
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47Following warm, wet weather at bloom, pear shoots develop blackened shepherd's-crook tips and bacterial ooze. Which integrated response is most appropriate?
Pear
Hard
A.Prune only during rain and stimulate rapid succulent regrowth
B.Retain infected shoots and increase overhead irrigation frequency
C.Apply extra nitrogen and postpone sanitation until leaf fall
D.Remove infected wood in dry weather and restrict excess nitrogen
Correct Answer: Remove infected wood in dry weather and restrict excess nitrogen
Explanation:
These are characteristic fire blight symptoms. Sanitation below visible infection during dry conditions and avoidance of excessive succulent growth reduce further spread.
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48An unpruned peach tree develops a dense canopy, declining fruit size, and long sections of old wood with little cropping. Which pruning principle directly follows from the bearing habit of peach?
Peach
Hard
A.Confine pruning to shortening fruiting spurs older than five years
B.Remove most current shoots and preserve shaded interior wood
C.Renew one-year-old fruiting shoots while opening the canopy
D.Retain old scaffold wood because it bears the main crop
Correct Answer: Renew one-year-old fruiting shoots while opening the canopy
Explanation:
Peach bears mainly on shoots produced during the previous season. Regular renewal pruning maintains productive one-year-old wood and improves light penetration.
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49A peach orchard is planned on a drought-prone, calcareous soil with no history of waterlogging or root-knot nematodes. Which rootstock is generally the best fit?
Peach
Hard
A.Quince A clonal rootstock
B.M.9 dwarf apple rootstock
C.Fragaria seedling rootstock
D.GF 677 peach–almond hybrid
Correct Answer: GF 677 peach–almond hybrid
Explanation:
GF 677 is vigorous and well adapted to calcareous, relatively dry soils. It is unsuitable where poor drainage is the dominant limitation.
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50An early peach cultivar repeatedly develops split pits in oversized fruit. Records show severe thinning immediately after fruit set, high nitrogen, and alternating drought and heavy irrigation before pit hardening. Which adjustment is most defensible?
Peach
Hard
A.Delay irrigation until visible pit splitting has begun
B.Impose stronger drought before the pit-hardening stage
C.Avoid excessively early thinning and stabilize soil moisture
D.Increase nitrogen and intensify early fruit thinning
Correct Answer: Avoid excessively early thinning and stabilize soil moisture
Explanation:
Split pit is promoted by rapid, uneven fruit growth associated with excessive early thinning, high vigor, and fluctuating water supply before pit hardening.
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51After frost during bloom, strawberries develop misshapen receptacles with normal growth on only one side. What mechanism most directly explains this pattern?
Strawberry
Hard
A.Damaged petals produce excess ethylene throughout the receptacle
B.Frozen sepals redirect carbohydrates toward the fruit apex
C.Damaged achenes fail to supply local growth-promoting auxin
D.Injured stamens suppress uniform coloration of the receptacle
Correct Answer: Damaged achenes fail to supply local growth-promoting auxin
Explanation:
Each fertilized achene supplies hormones that stimulate nearby receptacle expansion. Frost injury to pistils or achenes therefore causes localized failure of fruit development.
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52A one-hectare strawberry field is planted on beds spaced 1.2 m center-to-center, with two rows per bed and 0.30 m between plants within each row. Ignoring headlands and vacant spaces, approximately how many plants are required?
Strawberry
Hard
A.66,667 plants
B.41,667 plants
C.27,778 plants
D.55,556 plants
Correct Answer: 55,556 plants
Explanation:
Total row length is m. At 0.30 m spacing, the population is plants.
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53A day-neutral strawberry cultivar flowers continuously during cool months but nearly stops flowering when mean temperatures become very high, even though day length remains suitable. Which conclusion is correct?
Strawberry
Hard
A.Flowering failure proves that the plants are June-bearing types
B.Day neutrality does not eliminate temperature inhibition of flowering
C.Day-neutral cultivars require long days at every temperature
D.High temperature converts the cultivar permanently to short-day behavior
Correct Answer: Day neutrality does not eliminate temperature inhibition of flowering
Explanation:
Day-neutral classification describes reduced dependence on photoperiod, not complete environmental independence. High temperatures can strongly suppress floral initiation.
Incorrect! Try again.
54Two self-incompatible almond cultivars have genotypes and and flower simultaneously. Under gametophytic self-incompatibility, how should their reciprocal compatibility be described?
Almond
Hard
A.They are semicompatible because pollen carrying is rejected
B.They are fully compatible because their genotypes are not identical
C.They are completely incompatible because one allele is shared
D.They are self-compatible because each cultivar has two alleles
Correct Answer: They are semicompatible because pollen carrying is rejected
Explanation:
Pollen expressing the shared allele is rejected by either maternal genotype, while pollen carrying or can function in the reciprocal cross.
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55An almond orchard with excessive late nitrogen and irrigation develops extensive shoot dieback associated with infected hulls shortly after hull split. Which preventive change best targets this disease cycle?
Almond
Hard
A.Remove pollinizers and increase canopy humidity at maturity
B.Increase nitrogen and maintain saturated soil during hull split
C.Moderate nitrogen and reduce irrigation around hull split
D.Delay harvest while applying frequent overhead irrigation
Correct Answer: Moderate nitrogen and reduce irrigation around hull split
Explanation:
Hull rot is favored by lush nitrogen-driven growth and high water status during hull split. Moderate nitrogen and carefully regulated irrigation reduce disease severity.
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56A mature almond orchard is subjected to severe annual heading cuts, after which vegetative growth increases but yields decline. Which change better matches almond's bearing habit?
Almond
Hard
A.Head every scaffold severely to stimulate water sprouts
B.Eliminate short spurs and retain only vigorous terminals
C.Remove all shoots older than one year each winter
D.Use light selective renewal while retaining productive spurs
Correct Answer: Use light selective renewal while retaining productive spurs
Explanation:
Almond crops largely on short-lived but multi-year spurs and some one-year shoots. Severe annual heading removes bearing surface and promotes excessive vegetative growth.
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57A protogynous walnut cultivar has receptive pistillate flowers from 10–16 April but sheds pollen from 18–23 April. Which candidate is the most effective pollenizer based solely on phenology?
Walnut
Hard
A.A cultivar shedding pollen from 11–17 April
B.A cultivar shedding pollen from 25–30 April
C.A cultivar shedding pollen from 18–24 April
D.A cultivar shedding pollen from 1–7 April
Correct Answer: A cultivar shedding pollen from 11–17 April
Explanation:
The pollenizer should shed viable pollen during the main pistillate receptivity period. Its own pistillate bloom date is less important for pollinating the target cultivar.
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58Bench-grafted walnut plants show poor union formation because the nursery remains cool after grafting. Which modification most directly improves graft success without forcing premature scion growth?
Walnut
Hard
A.Cool the graft union while warming the terminal buds
B.Warm the graft union locally while keeping the scion cooler
C.Expose the union to drying winds until bud break begins
D.Submerge the entire graft in cold water during callusing
Correct Answer: Warm the graft union locally while keeping the scion cooler
Explanation:
Walnut requires relatively warm conditions, often about 26–28°C, for effective callusing. Localized hot-callusing promotes union formation while cooler scions limit premature bud growth.
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59A grower replaces terminal-bearing walnut cultivars with precocious lateral-bearing cultivars in a high-density system. Which management consequence is most likely?
Walnut
Hard
A.Later cropping permits indefinite growth without pruning
B.Earlier cropping requires stronger canopy and crop-load control
C.Terminal-only fruiting requires removal of all lateral shoots
D.Reduced productivity permits closer spacing without light management
Correct Answer: Earlier cropping requires stronger canopy and crop-load control
Explanation:
Lateral-bearing walnuts produce pistillate flowers on lateral shoots, resulting in earlier and heavier cropping. High-density orchards therefore require careful pruning, light management, and crop-load regulation.
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60Walnuts have reached the packing-tissue-brown stage, but harvest is delayed for several weeks to obtain maximum natural hull separation. Kernel color and quality subsequently deteriorate. Which practice would better preserve quality?
Walnut
Hard
A.Maintain wet hulls after shaking to prevent kernel moisture loss
B.Harvest promptly at maturity, then hull and dry rapidly
C.Store unhusked nuts in piles until kernels become fully dry
D.Wait for prolonged field drying before removing the hulls
Correct Answer: Harvest promptly at maturity, then hull and dry rapidly
Explanation:
Packing-tissue browning indicates physiological maturity. Delayed harvest and prolonged contact with wet, deteriorating hulls darken kernels, so prompt hulling and drying are essential.
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