Unit 3: Earth movements - Practice Quiz

GEO101 — Geomorphology 60 Questions
0 Correct 0 Wrong 60 Left
0/60

1 What is folding in geomorphology?

folding Easy
A. Breaking of rock layers
B. Bending of rock layers
C. Wearing away of rock layers
D. Melting of rock layers

2 Which type of stress commonly causes folding?

folding Easy
A. Tensional stress
B. Compressional stress
C. Magnetic stress
D. Thermal stress

3 What is an upward-arching fold called?

folding Easy
A. Graben
B. Syncline
C. Horst
D. Anticline

4 What is a downward-curving fold called?

folding Easy
A. Anticline
B. Dome
C. Fault
D. Syncline

5 Fold mountains are mainly formed by the folding of rock layers due to:

folding Easy
A. River erosion
B. Wind deposition
C. Plate collision
D. Glacier melting

6 What is a fault?

faulting Easy
A. A curved mountain ridge
B. A crack with rock movement
C. A deep ocean current
D. A layer of volcanic ash

7 Which stress pulls rocks apart and commonly produces normal faults?

faulting Easy
A. Shearing stress
B. Compressional stress
C. Tensional stress
D. Gravitational pressure

8 A fault caused mainly by rocks sliding past each other horizontally is called a:

faulting Easy
A. Normal fault
B. Strike-slip fault
C. Reverse fault
D. Thrust fold

9 What is a block of land that is uplifted between two faults called?

faulting Easy
A. Caldera
B. Syncline
C. Horst
D. Graben

10 What is a down-dropped block of land between two faults called?

faulting Easy
A. Anticline
B. Horst
C. Graben
D. Volcanic neck

11 What is an earthquake?

earthquakes Easy
A. Slow soil formation
B. Sudden ground shaking
C. Daily temperature change
D. Steady ocean movement

12 The point inside Earth where an earthquake begins is called the:

earthquakes Easy
A. Ridge
B. Crater
C. Focus
D. Epicenter

13 What is the point on Earth's surface directly above the focus called?

earthquakes Easy
A. Fault plane
B. Focus
C. Epicenter
D. Seismic gap

14 Which instrument records earthquake vibrations?

earthquakes Easy
A. Thermometer
B. Anemometer
C. Seismograph
D. Barometer

15 Most earthquakes occur along:

earthquakes Easy
A. Stable plains
B. Desert centers
C. River valleys
D. Plate boundaries

16 What is a volcano?

volcanoes Easy
A. A folded rock layer
B. A wind-shaped sand hill
C. A deep underground fault
D. An opening for molten rock

17 Molten rock beneath Earth's surface is called:

volcanoes Easy
A. Pumice
B. Ash
C. Magma
D. Lava

18 Molten rock that reaches Earth's surface is called:

volcanoes Easy
A. Basaltic soil
B. Tephra
C. Lava
D. Magma

19 The bowl-shaped depression at the top of many volcanoes is called a:

volcanoes Easy
A. Crater
B. Valley
C. Graben
D. Syncline

20 Which material is commonly released during a volcanic eruption?

volcanoes Easy
A. Saltwater
B. Ash
C. River gravel
D. Humus

21 A rock layer is bent upward so that the limbs dip away from the center. Which fold has formed?

folding Medium
A. A thrust fold
B. A syncline
C. A monocline
D. An anticline

22 A sequence of sedimentary rocks has the oldest beds exposed in the center of a circular fold. Which structure is most likely present?

folding Medium
A. A monocline
B. A basin
C. A syncline
D. An anticline

23 Which tectonic force most directly produces folding when rocks are subjected to prolonged horizontal compression?

folding Medium
A. Isostatic stress
B. Shearing stress
C. Tensional stress
D. Compressional stress

24 A fold has one short, steep limb and one long, gentle limb. Which classification best describes it?

folding Medium
A. Isoclinal fold
B. Recumbent fold
C. Symmetrical fold
D. Asymmetrical fold

25 If intense compression causes both limbs of a fold to dip in nearly the same direction, which fold type is indicated?

folding Medium
A. Overturned fold
B. Symmetrical fold
C. Dome
D. Open fold

26 A rock block above an inclined fault plane moves downward relative to the block below it. What type of fault is this?

faulting Medium
A. Strike-slip fault
B. Thrust fault
C. Normal fault
D. Reverse fault

27 Two crustal blocks move horizontally past one another with little vertical displacement. Which fault is most likely involved?

faulting Medium
A. Normal fault
B. Dip-slip fault
C. Reverse fault
D. Strike-slip fault

28 A region contains a raised central block bounded by two roughly parallel normal faults. Which landform has probably developed?

faulting Medium
A. Syncline
B. Volcanic neck
C. Graben
D. Horst

29 Which combination of stress and fault movement is most consistent with a reverse fault?

faulting Medium
A. Compression and upward movement
B. Shear and horizontal movement
C. Tension and horizontal movement
D. Tension and downward movement

30 A long, down-dropped block forms between two normal faults in a region undergoing crustal stretching. What is this feature called?

faulting Medium
A. Horst
B. Graben
C. Anticline
D. Batholith

31 An earthquake's focus lies km below the surface, while its epicenter is directly above it. What does the epicenter represent?

earthquakes Medium
A. The point of greatest depth
B. The boundary of the fault
C. The surface point above the focus
D. The zone of permanent rupture

32 A station records the P-wave at 10:00:00 and the S-wave at 10:00:40. What does the time difference mainly indicate?

earthquakes Medium
A. The direction of plate motion
B. The depth of the mantle
C. The distance to the epicenter
D. The earthquake's magnitude

33 Which observation would provide the strongest evidence that an earthquake occurred along a shallow fault?

earthquakes Medium
A. A long period of volcanic activity
B. A gradual rise in sea level
C. A surface rupture crossing the ground
D. A deep ocean trench offshore

34 Why can an earthquake of moderate magnitude cause more damage in a densely populated city than a stronger earthquake in a remote area?

earthquakes Medium
A. Magnitude is measured only in cities
B. Damage depends on exposure and vulnerability
C. Urban areas receive no seismic waves
D. Remote earthquakes have no ground motion

35 An earthquake occurs beneath the ocean and suddenly displaces the seafloor upward. Which hazard is most likely to follow?

earthquakes Medium
A. A tsunami
B. A glacial surge
C. A dust storm
D. A lava plateau

36 A volcano has broad, gently sloping sides built mainly from fluid basaltic lava. Which type is most likely?

volcanoes Medium
A. Shield volcano
B. Cinder cone
C. Composite volcano
D. Lava dome

37 Why are composite volcanoes generally more explosive than shield volcanoes?

volcanoes Medium
A. Their vents are permanently underwater
B. They form only beneath polar ice
C. Their magma is more viscous and gas-rich
D. Their lava always has a lower temperature

38 A volcano produces ash, pumice, and a high column of eruptive material. Which eruption style is most consistent with these observations?

volcanoes Medium
A. Subglacial seepage
B. Explosive eruption
C. Effusive eruption
D. Geothermal emission

39 Which setting most commonly produces a chain of volcanoes on the overriding plate above a subducting oceanic plate?

volcanoes Medium
A. A divergent plate boundary
B. A stable continental interior
C. A transform plate boundary
D. A convergent plate boundary

40 A volcanic hazard map shows valleys extending from a steep volcano as high-risk zones. Which hazard is most likely being emphasized?

volcanoes Medium
A. Lahars
B. Tectonic folding
C. Lava domes
D. Magnetic reversals

41 A sedimentary sequence contains upright anticlines and synclines whose axial planes dip consistently eastward. The fold limbs are unequal, and the western limb is steeper. Which interpretation is most defensible?

folding Hard
A. The folds are recumbent because both axial planes dip eastward
B. The folds are overturned toward the west by directed compression
C. The folds are symmetrical and formed under vertical compression
D. The folds formed by extension along a west-dipping normal fault

42 On a geological map, beds dip outward from a central area, and the strata become progressively older toward the center. Which structure and erosion history best explain the pattern?

folding Hard
A. A syncline exposed by erosion of its youngest core
B. An anticline exposed by erosion of its uplifted core
C. A basin formed by subsidence around a resistant intrusion
D. A monocline produced by movement on a reverse fault

43 A fold has an axial-plane orientation of and a hinge plunging toward . Which description is most appropriate?

folding Hard
A. A steeply plunging recumbent fold
B. A gently plunging upright fold
C. A gently plunging overturned fold
D. A non-plunging symmetrical fold

44 In a fold belt, cleavage is axial-planar, mineral lineations parallel the fold hinges, and stretching lineations plunge down the dip of the cleavage. What deformation history is most likely?

folding Hard
A. Simple shear accompanying progressive horizontal shortening
B. Pure vertical shortening with no lateral transport
C. Uniform extension perpendicular to the fold hinges
D. Thermal doming followed by passive surface erosion

45 A fold pair has interlimb angles of in one area and in another, with the same fold trend. Which classification change occurs across the area?

folding Hard
A. From tight to close folding
B. From open to gentle folding
C. From tight to open folding
D. From isoclinal to overturned folding

46 A fault plane dips east. The hanging wall moved upward and eastward relative to the footwall. Which fault type and stress regime are indicated?

faulting Hard
A. A normal fault associated with horizontal extension
B. A reverse fault associated with horizontal compression
C. A left-lateral strike-slip fault associated with transpression
D. A thrust fault associated with vertical crustal stretching

47 A river is offset 2.4 km dextrally by a fault. Its valley contains four abandoned channels, each formed during a separate period of incision. What can be inferred most cautiously?

faulting Hard
A. The average displacement per event was exactly km
B. All displacement occurred during one continuous earthquake
C. The fault has produced at least four displacement episodes
D. The river formed after the fault became completely inactive

48 A seismic section shows a fault that terminates upward within a sedimentary package, while the beds thicken toward the fault and progressively onlap its footwall. Which interpretation is strongest?

faulting Hard
A. A blind reverse fault active during sediment deposition
B. A thrust fault that displaced only crystalline basement
C. A listric normal fault active during sediment deposition
D. A strike-slip fault that formed after all sedimentation

49 A fault has a rake of measured from the strike direction. The hanging wall moves m along the fault, and the fault strikes north-south. What is the approximate vertical component of displacement?

faulting Hard
A. m
B. m
C. m
D. m

50 Two faults intersect: Fault A has a steep dip and normal displacement, while Fault B has a shallow dip and reverse displacement. Offset markers show that A cuts B. Which event sequence is supported?

faulting Hard
A. Reverse faulting on B preceded normal faulting on A
B. The cross-cutting relationship cannot constrain relative age
C. Both faults formed simultaneously under identical stress
D. Normal faulting on A preceded reverse faulting on B

51 Two earthquakes have identical rupture areas and stress drops, but one has twice the average slip. Which conclusion is most justified?

earthquakes Hard
A. Its recurrence interval must be exactly twice as long
B. Its wave amplitude must be independent of magnitude
C. Its seismic moment is approximately twice as large
D. Its seismic energy must be exactly twice as large

52 A station records a wave at 10:00:00 and an wave at 10:00:40. If the assumed - and -wave speeds are km/s and km/s, respectively, what is the approximate epicentral distance?

earthquakes Hard
A. km
B. km
C. km
D. km

53 A shallow earthquake occurs beneath a soft, water-saturated alluvial basin. Which combination best explains why damage may exceed that predicted from magnitude alone?

earthquakes Hard
A. Site amplification, basin resonance, and liquefaction
B. Low frequency, deep focus, and reduced wave duration
C. Small slip, weak shaking, and absence of surface deformation
D. High rigidity, thin sediment, and rapid wave attenuation

54 After a major earthquake, the number of aftershocks decreases approximately according to the modified Omori relation. If the elapsed time is increased from day to days, what does the relation primarily predict?

earthquakes Hard
A. A complete cessation of aftershocks after one day
B. A tenfold increase in aftershock magnitude
C. A constant aftershock rate through both intervals
D. A gradual decline in aftershock rate with time

55 A coastal earthquake has a -wave first motion pattern showing compression in quadrants aligned northeast-southwest and dilatation in the perpendicular quadrants. What can be determined most reliably?

earthquakes Hard
A. The precise tsunami height at every coastline
B. A focal mechanism with two possible nodal planes
C. A unique fault plane and exact rupture length
D. The earthquake's magnitude without amplitude measurements

56 A volcano produces highly viscous, silica-rich magma with abundant dissolved gas and eruptions dominated by ash columns and pyroclastic flows. Which setting and magma behavior are most consistent?

volcanoes Hard
A. A transform boundary with passive rhyolite extrusion
B. A mid-ocean ridge with effusive basaltic fountains
C. A continental rift with low-viscosity lava lakes
D. A subduction zone with explosive fragmentation

57 A stratovolcano shows increasing seismicity, ground inflation, rising volcanic gas emissions, and a shift from sulfur dioxide toward carbon dioxide dominance. What is the most cautious interpretation?

volcanoes Hard
A. Magma or hydrothermal fluids are migrating upward
B. The volcano is undergoing only surface erosion
C. The volcanic system has permanently lost its magma supply
D. An eruption is certain to occur within one hour

58 A lava flow advances at m/min and has a front km from a settlement. If the rate remains constant, approximately how long is available before arrival?

volcanoes Hard
A. 900 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 9 minutes
D. 1,800 minutes

59 A volcano's eruption column collapses because the mass eruption rate exceeds the atmosphere's ability to support the column. Which hazard is consequently enhanced?

volcanoes Hard
A. A purely tectonic surface rupture
B. A widespread but dilute ash veil only
C. A dense pyroclastic density current
D. A slow-moving basaltic tube flow

60 A shield volcano has a broad profile, low-angle slopes, and repeated extensive flows with low silica content. Which process most directly explains its morphology?

volcanoes Hard
A. Repeated effusion of low-viscosity basaltic lava
B. Deposition of thick welded ash-flow sheets
C. Accumulation of highly viscous rhyolitic domes
D. Collapse of a composite cone during a lahar