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Unit 5: Resiliency, Monitoring, and Automation - Practice Quiz

INT364 — Cloud Architecture And Implementation-Ii 50 Questions
0 Correct 0 Wrong 50 Left
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1 Which AWS service is primarily used for monitoring resources and applications, collecting metrics, logs, and setting alarms?

A. AWS Config
B. AWS CloudTrail
C. Amazon Inspector
D. Amazon CloudWatch

2 In Amazon CloudWatch, what is the default time period for metric data points stored at 1-minute resolution?

A. 63 days
B. 15 days
C. 15 months
D. 1 hour

3 You need to automatically terminate an EC2 instance if its CPU utilization remains below 10% for 24 hours. Which CloudWatch feature should you use?

A. CloudWatch Events
B. CloudWatch Alarms
C. CloudWatch Dashboards
D. CloudWatch Logs

4 Which component of AWS Auto Scaling allows you to define the template for the EC2 instances that will be launched?

A. Launch Configuration or Launch Template
B. Auto Scaling Group
C. Lifecycle Hook
D. Scaling Policy

5 What is the primary benefit of using an Auto Scaling Group?

A. It ensures the correct number of EC2 instances are available to handle the load.
B. It increases the size of the EBS volumes automatically.
C. It automatically registers domain names.
D. It automatically upgrades the operating system of EC2 instances.

6 Which Auto Scaling policy type adjusts the capacity of the group based on a specific metric value, such as keeping average CPU utilization at 50%?

A. Scheduled scaling
B. Target tracking scaling
C. Simple scaling
D. Step scaling

7 What happens when an EC2 instance in an Auto Scaling Group fails a health check?

A. The instance is rebooted.
B. The instance is stopped and an alert is sent.
C. The instance is paused for debugging.
D. The instance is terminated and replaced.

8 Which AWS Load Balancer operates at Layer 7 of the OSI model and is best suited for HTTP/HTTPS traffic?

A. Classic Load Balancer
B. Gateway Load Balancer
C. Network Load Balancer
D. Application Load Balancer

9 Which feature of an Application Load Balancer allows you to direct traffic to different target groups based on the URL path (e.g., /images vs. /api)?

A. Query string routing
B. Path-based routing
C. Host-based routing
D. Source IP routing

10 A Network Load Balancer (NLB) is capable of handling millions of requests per second with ultra-low latencies. At which OSI layer does it operate?

A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 7

11 What mechanism does an Elastic Load Balancer use to ensure it only sends traffic to healthy instances?

A. Placement Groups
B. Health checks
C. CloudWatch Alarms
D. Lifecycle hooks

12 Which AWS service is a highly available and scalable cloud Domain Name System (DNS) web service?

A. AWS Global Accelerator
B. Amazon CloudFront
C. Amazon Route 53
D. AWS Direct Connect

13 In Route 53, which routing policy should be used to route traffic to the resource that provides the best performance for the user based on network round-trip time?

A. Latency routing
B. Simple routing
C. Failover routing
D. Weighted routing

14 Which Route 53 routing policy allows you to route traffic to multiple resources in proportions that you specify (e.g., 20% to test, 80% to prod)?

A. Geolocation routing
B. Weighted routing
C. Failover routing
D. Multivalue answer routing

15 What is the specific Route 53 record type used to map a domain name to an AWS resource (like an ELB or S3 bucket) that is free of charge to query?

A. Alias Record
B. MX Record
C. A Record
D. CNAME Record

16 Which service allows you to model and provision AWS resources using code (Infrastructure as Code)?

A. AWS Systems Manager
B. AWS CodeDeploy
C. AWS OpsWorks
D. AWS CloudFormation

17 What are the two file formats supported by AWS CloudFormation templates?

A. YAML and HTML
B. XML and JSON
C. Python and Node.js
D. JSON and YAML

18 In a CloudFormation template, which section allows you to pass values into your template at runtime?

A. Resources
B. Outputs
C. Mappings
D. Parameters

19 What happens if a CloudFormation stack creation fails by default?

A. It pauses and waits for manual intervention.
B. It keeps the resources created so far.
C. It automatically rolls back (deletes) the created resources.
D. It retries indefinitely.

20 Which CloudFormation feature allows you to preview the changes that will be made to a stack before applying them?

A. Drift Detection
B. Change Sets
C. Stack Policies
D. Nested Stacks

21 What is an AWS Quick Start?

A. Automated reference deployments built by AWS solutions architects and partners.
B. A tutorial for learning AWS.
C. A graphical tool for creating VPCs.
D. A script to start EC2 instances quickly.

22 Which CloudWatch feature would you use to store and search application log files?

A. CloudWatch Events
B. CloudWatch Insights
C. CloudWatch Logs
D. CloudWatch Metrics

23 How does Amazon Q Developer assist in the context of infrastructure automation?

A. It generates, explains, and debugs code and CloudFormation templates via natural language.
B. It replaces the need for an AWS account.
C. It is a load balancing service.
D. It physically manages the data center hardware.

24 You have an application that requires high availability across two Availability Zones. Which architecture should you choose?

A. One EC2 instance in one AZ.
B. Two EC2 instances in the same AZ.
C. An Auto Scaling Group spanning two AZs with a Load Balancer.
D. A single large EC2 instance with vertical scaling.

25 Which Route 53 routing policy is used for active-passive failover configurations?

A. Weighted routing
B. Simple routing
C. Failover routing
D. Geolocation routing

26 In CloudFormation, which intrinsic function is used to retrieve the value of an attribute from a resource in the template?

A. Fn::GetAtt
B. Fn::Ref
C. Fn::FindInMap
D. Fn::Join

27 Which metric is NOT collected by default in CloudWatch for EC2 instances and requires a custom agent?

A. CPU Utilization
B. Memory Utilization
C. Disk Read Operations
D. Network In/Out

28 What is 'Drift Detection' in the context of AWS CloudFormation?

A. Detecting latency in the network.
B. Detecting billing anomalies.
C. Detecting when a stack is being deleted.
D. Detecting if actual resource configurations differ from the CloudFormation template.

29 Which Load Balancer feature solves the problem of session data being lost when requests are routed to different instances?

A. Cross-Zone Load Balancing
B. Sticky Sessions (Session Affinity)
C. Connection Draining
D. SSL Offloading

30 Amazon Q Developer creates code suggestions based on:

A. The context of the code in your IDE and natural language comments.
B. Strictly pre-defined templates only.
C. Only the file currently open.
D. Random algorithms.

31 Which section of a CloudFormation template is mandatory?

A. Mappings
B. Outputs
C. Parameters
D. Resources

32 To reduce the startup time of instances in an Auto Scaling Group, what state can you put a 'warm' instance into using Lifecycle Hooks?

A. Stopped
B. Hibernated
C. Standby
D. Terminated

33 Which Route 53 policy lets you restrict content distribution based on the geographic location of your users?

A. Multivalue answer routing
B. Geolocation routing
C. Geoproximity routing
D. Latency routing

34 What is the purpose of 'Cross-Zone Load Balancing'?

A. To prevent traffic from crossing Availability Zones.
B. To evenly distribute traffic across all registered instances in all enabled Availability Zones.
C. To duplicate traffic to all zones for backup.
D. To balance traffic between different regions.

35 Which AWS service can trigger a CloudWatch Alarm if a specific text pattern is found in a log file?

A. AWS Config
B. CloudWatch Metric Filters
C. CloudTrail
D. CloudWatch Events

36 When using Auto Scaling with an Application Load Balancer, where should you register the instances?

A. To the Route 53 Alias record.
B. Directly to the Load Balancer Listener.
C. To the Target Group associated with the Load Balancer.
D. To the Auto Scaling Group only; ASG registers them to the Target Group.

37 In the context of Amazon Q Developer, what is 'Code Transformation'?

A. Upgrading and modernizing language versions (e.g., Java 8 to Java 17).
B. Encrypting source code.
C. Compressing code files.
D. Converting JSON to YAML.

38 Which CloudFormation intrinsic function allows you to join a list of strings together with a delimiter?

A. Fn::Join
B. Fn::Split
C. Fn::Select
D. Fn::Sub

39 What is the maximum retention period for CloudWatch Logs?

A. 5 years
B. 1 year
C. Indefinitely (Never expire)
D. 10 years

40 Which Route 53 feature checks the health of your resources and removes unhealthy records from DNS responses?

A. DNS Failover
B. Domain Registration
C. Traffic Flow
D. Resolver

41 What is a 'Cool-down period' in Auto Scaling?

A. The time required to install the OS.
B. A configurable setting to prevent the ASG from launching or terminating additional instances before the previous scaling activity takes effect.
C. The time an instance waits before accepting traffic.
D. The time taken to reboot an instance.

42 Which AWS CloudFormation concept is a container for AWS resources that you manage as a single unit?

A. Stack
B. Set
C. Template
D. Group

43 How do AWS Quick Starts differ from standard CloudFormation templates?

A. They only support EC2 instances.
B. They are built by the community without testing.
C. They do not use CloudFormation.
D. They are vetted, gold-standard deployments for specific workloads designed by AWS and partners.

44 Which dashboard type in CloudWatch allows you to combine metrics from multiple regions?

A. Local Dashboard
B. VPC Dashboard
C. Regional Dashboard
D. Global Dashboard (Cross-Region)

45 In Auto Scaling, what is 'Predictive Scaling'?

A. Scaling based on random intervals.
B. Scaling based on immediate CPU spikes only.
C. Scaling based on machine learning models that forecast daily and weekly patterns.
D. Scaling based on manual approval.

46 When defining a CloudFormation template, what is the 'Mappings' section used for?

A. To define resource dependencies.
B. To output results.
C. To map keys to corresponding named values (e.g., Region to AMI ID).
D. To define inputs.

47 What is the primary function of the Gateway Load Balancer (GWLB)?

A. To route DNS queries.
B. To balance database queries.
C. To deploy, scale, and manage virtual appliances like firewalls and intrusion detection systems.
D. To balance HTTP traffic.

48 How can Amazon Q Developer accelerate the onboarding of a new developer to a project?

A. By installing the IDE automatically.
B. By providing code explanations and summarizing the functionality of the existing codebase.
C. By creating their IAM user accounts.
D. By monitoring their screen time.

49 Which Route 53 routing policy is best for a website that requires users to be routed to a resource within a specific geographic area to satisfy data sovereignty laws?

A. Latency routing
B. Failover routing
C. Geolocation routing
D. Geoproximity routing

50 What is the CloudWatch 'Unified CloudWatch Agent' used for?

A. To collect both metrics and logs from EC2 instances and on-premises servers.
B. To manage user permissions.
C. To watch movies on AWS.
D. To automate billing.
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