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Unit 5: Resiliency, Monitoring, and Automation - Practice Quiz

INT364 — Cloud Architecture And Implementation-Ii 50 Questions
0 Correct 0 Wrong 50 Left
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1 Which AWS service is primarily used for monitoring resources and applications, collecting metrics, logs, and setting alarms?

A. Amazon CloudWatch
B. AWS CloudTrail
C. Amazon Inspector
D. AWS Config

2 In Amazon CloudWatch, what is the default time period for metric data points stored at 1-minute resolution?

A. 63 days
B. 1 hour
C. 15 days
D. 15 months

3 You need to automatically terminate an EC2 instance if its CPU utilization remains below 10% for 24 hours. Which CloudWatch feature should you use?

A. CloudWatch Events
B. CloudWatch Alarms
C. CloudWatch Dashboards
D. CloudWatch Logs

4 Which component of AWS Auto Scaling allows you to define the template for the EC2 instances that will be launched?

A. Launch Configuration or Launch Template
B. Scaling Policy
C. Auto Scaling Group
D. Lifecycle Hook

5 What is the primary benefit of using an Auto Scaling Group?

A. It automatically upgrades the operating system of EC2 instances.
B. It automatically registers domain names.
C. It ensures the correct number of EC2 instances are available to handle the load.
D. It increases the size of the EBS volumes automatically.

6 Which Auto Scaling policy type adjusts the capacity of the group based on a specific metric value, such as keeping average CPU utilization at 50%?

A. Target tracking scaling
B. Simple scaling
C. Scheduled scaling
D. Step scaling

7 What happens when an EC2 instance in an Auto Scaling Group fails a health check?

A. The instance is paused for debugging.
B. The instance is terminated and replaced.
C. The instance is stopped and an alert is sent.
D. The instance is rebooted.

8 Which AWS Load Balancer operates at Layer 7 of the OSI model and is best suited for HTTP/HTTPS traffic?

A. Classic Load Balancer
B. Gateway Load Balancer
C. Application Load Balancer
D. Network Load Balancer

9 Which feature of an Application Load Balancer allows you to direct traffic to different target groups based on the URL path (e.g., /images vs. /api)?

A. Source IP routing
B. Query string routing
C. Host-based routing
D. Path-based routing

10 A Network Load Balancer (NLB) is capable of handling millions of requests per second with ultra-low latencies. At which OSI layer does it operate?

A. Layer 2
B. Layer 7
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4

11 What mechanism does an Elastic Load Balancer use to ensure it only sends traffic to healthy instances?

A. Lifecycle hooks
B. CloudWatch Alarms
C. Health checks
D. Placement Groups

12 Which AWS service is a highly available and scalable cloud Domain Name System (DNS) web service?

A. AWS Global Accelerator
B. AWS Direct Connect
C. Amazon Route 53
D. Amazon CloudFront

13 In Route 53, which routing policy should be used to route traffic to the resource that provides the best performance for the user based on network round-trip time?

A. Weighted routing
B. Latency routing
C. Failover routing
D. Simple routing

14 Which Route 53 routing policy allows you to route traffic to multiple resources in proportions that you specify (e.g., 20% to test, 80% to prod)?

A. Geolocation routing
B. Multivalue answer routing
C. Weighted routing
D. Failover routing

15 What is the specific Route 53 record type used to map a domain name to an AWS resource (like an ELB or S3 bucket) that is free of charge to query?

A. A Record
B. CNAME Record
C. Alias Record
D. MX Record

16 Which service allows you to model and provision AWS resources using code (Infrastructure as Code)?

A. AWS OpsWorks
B. AWS CloudFormation
C. AWS Systems Manager
D. AWS CodeDeploy

17 What are the two file formats supported by AWS CloudFormation templates?

A. XML and JSON
B. JSON and YAML
C. Python and Node.js
D. YAML and HTML

18 In a CloudFormation template, which section allows you to pass values into your template at runtime?

A. Outputs
B. Resources
C. Parameters
D. Mappings

19 What happens if a CloudFormation stack creation fails by default?

A. It retries indefinitely.
B. It keeps the resources created so far.
C. It pauses and waits for manual intervention.
D. It automatically rolls back (deletes) the created resources.

20 Which CloudFormation feature allows you to preview the changes that will be made to a stack before applying them?

A. Drift Detection
B. Nested Stacks
C. Change Sets
D. Stack Policies

21 What is an AWS Quick Start?

A. Automated reference deployments built by AWS solutions architects and partners.
B. A script to start EC2 instances quickly.
C. A tutorial for learning AWS.
D. A graphical tool for creating VPCs.

22 Which CloudWatch feature would you use to store and search application log files?

A. CloudWatch Metrics
B. CloudWatch Insights
C. CloudWatch Logs
D. CloudWatch Events

23 How does Amazon Q Developer assist in the context of infrastructure automation?

A. It generates, explains, and debugs code and CloudFormation templates via natural language.
B. It physically manages the data center hardware.
C. It is a load balancing service.
D. It replaces the need for an AWS account.

24 You have an application that requires high availability across two Availability Zones. Which architecture should you choose?

A. A single large EC2 instance with vertical scaling.
B. An Auto Scaling Group spanning two AZs with a Load Balancer.
C. Two EC2 instances in the same AZ.
D. One EC2 instance in one AZ.

25 Which Route 53 routing policy is used for active-passive failover configurations?

A. Simple routing
B. Weighted routing
C. Failover routing
D. Geolocation routing

26 In CloudFormation, which intrinsic function is used to retrieve the value of an attribute from a resource in the template?

A. Fn::Join
B. Fn::FindInMap
C. Fn::Ref
D. Fn::GetAtt

27 Which metric is NOT collected by default in CloudWatch for EC2 instances and requires a custom agent?

A. Memory Utilization
B. CPU Utilization
C. Disk Read Operations
D. Network In/Out

28 What is 'Drift Detection' in the context of AWS CloudFormation?

A. Detecting billing anomalies.
B. Detecting when a stack is being deleted.
C. Detecting latency in the network.
D. Detecting if actual resource configurations differ from the CloudFormation template.

29 Which Load Balancer feature solves the problem of session data being lost when requests are routed to different instances?

A. Cross-Zone Load Balancing
B. Sticky Sessions (Session Affinity)
C. Connection Draining
D. SSL Offloading

30 Amazon Q Developer creates code suggestions based on:

A. The context of the code in your IDE and natural language comments.
B. Only the file currently open.
C. Strictly pre-defined templates only.
D. Random algorithms.

31 Which section of a CloudFormation template is mandatory?

A. Parameters
B. Resources
C. Mappings
D. Outputs

32 To reduce the startup time of instances in an Auto Scaling Group, what state can you put a 'warm' instance into using Lifecycle Hooks?

A. Stopped
B. Terminated
C. Hibernated
D. Standby

33 Which Route 53 policy lets you restrict content distribution based on the geographic location of your users?

A. Geolocation routing
B. Geoproximity routing
C. Multivalue answer routing
D. Latency routing

34 What is the purpose of 'Cross-Zone Load Balancing'?

A. To duplicate traffic to all zones for backup.
B. To balance traffic between different regions.
C. To prevent traffic from crossing Availability Zones.
D. To evenly distribute traffic across all registered instances in all enabled Availability Zones.

35 Which AWS service can trigger a CloudWatch Alarm if a specific text pattern is found in a log file?

A. CloudWatch Metric Filters
B. CloudTrail
C. AWS Config
D. CloudWatch Events

36 When using Auto Scaling with an Application Load Balancer, where should you register the instances?

A. Directly to the Load Balancer Listener.
B. To the Route 53 Alias record.
C. To the Target Group associated with the Load Balancer.
D. To the Auto Scaling Group only; ASG registers them to the Target Group.

37 In the context of Amazon Q Developer, what is 'Code Transformation'?

A. Compressing code files.
B. Upgrading and modernizing language versions (e.g., Java 8 to Java 17).
C. Converting JSON to YAML.
D. Encrypting source code.

38 Which CloudFormation intrinsic function allows you to join a list of strings together with a delimiter?

A. Fn::Join
B. Fn::Split
C. Fn::Sub
D. Fn::Select

39 What is the maximum retention period for CloudWatch Logs?

A. Indefinitely (Never expire)
B. 5 years
C. 10 years
D. 1 year

40 Which Route 53 feature checks the health of your resources and removes unhealthy records from DNS responses?

A. Traffic Flow
B. Domain Registration
C. Resolver
D. DNS Failover

41 What is a 'Cool-down period' in Auto Scaling?

A. A configurable setting to prevent the ASG from launching or terminating additional instances before the previous scaling activity takes effect.
B. The time required to install the OS.
C. The time taken to reboot an instance.
D. The time an instance waits before accepting traffic.

42 Which AWS CloudFormation concept is a container for AWS resources that you manage as a single unit?

A. Set
B. Template
C. Stack
D. Group

43 How do AWS Quick Starts differ from standard CloudFormation templates?

A. They do not use CloudFormation.
B. They only support EC2 instances.
C. They are vetted, gold-standard deployments for specific workloads designed by AWS and partners.
D. They are built by the community without testing.

44 Which dashboard type in CloudWatch allows you to combine metrics from multiple regions?

A. VPC Dashboard
B. Global Dashboard (Cross-Region)
C. Local Dashboard
D. Regional Dashboard

45 In Auto Scaling, what is 'Predictive Scaling'?

A. Scaling based on manual approval.
B. Scaling based on machine learning models that forecast daily and weekly patterns.
C. Scaling based on immediate CPU spikes only.
D. Scaling based on random intervals.

46 When defining a CloudFormation template, what is the 'Mappings' section used for?

A. To define resource dependencies.
B. To define inputs.
C. To map keys to corresponding named values (e.g., Region to AMI ID).
D. To output results.

47 What is the primary function of the Gateway Load Balancer (GWLB)?

A. To balance database queries.
B. To route DNS queries.
C. To deploy, scale, and manage virtual appliances like firewalls and intrusion detection systems.
D. To balance HTTP traffic.

48 How can Amazon Q Developer accelerate the onboarding of a new developer to a project?

A. By creating their IAM user accounts.
B. By providing code explanations and summarizing the functionality of the existing codebase.
C. By monitoring their screen time.
D. By installing the IDE automatically.

49 Which Route 53 routing policy is best for a website that requires users to be routed to a resource within a specific geographic area to satisfy data sovereignty laws?

A. Geolocation routing
B. Latency routing
C. Failover routing
D. Geoproximity routing

50 What is the CloudWatch 'Unified CloudWatch Agent' used for?

A. To watch movies on AWS.
B. To manage user permissions.
C. To automate billing.
D. To collect both metrics and logs from EC2 instances and on-premises servers.
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