Unit 3: Storage and Compute Services - Practice Quiz

INT364 — Cloud Architecture And Implementation-Ii 50 Questions
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1 What is the primary definition of Amazon S3?

A. An object storage service
B. A relational database service
C. A file storage service
D. A block storage service

2 Which Amazon S3 storage class is best suited for data that is accessed frequently and requires low latency?

A. S3 Standard-IA
B. S3 Glacier
C. S3 One Zone-IA
D. S3 Standard

3 What is the durability guarantee provided by the Amazon S3 Standard storage class?

A. 99.999999999% (11 9s)
B. 99.99%
C. 99.0%
D. 99.9%

4 Which S3 storage class automatically moves objects between two access tiers based on changing access patterns?

A. S3 Standard-IA
B. S3 Intelligent-Tiering
C. S3 Standard
D. S3 Glacier Deep Archive

5 In Amazon S3, what is the maximum size of a single object?

A. 5 TB
B. 100 GB
C. 1 TB
D. 5 GB

6 Which S3 storage class stores data in a single Availability Zone and is less expensive than Standard-IA?

A. S3 One Zone-IA
B. S3 Glacier
C. S3 Intelligent-Tiering
D. S3 Standard

7 What is the primary use case for S3 Glacier Deep Archive?

A. Storing session data for web applications
B. Frequently accessed database backups
C. Long-term data retention (10+ years) accessed rarely
D. Hosting static websites

8 To enable faster file uploads to an S3 bucket from geographically dispersed users, which feature should be used?

A. S3 Select
B. S3 Versioning
C. S3 Lifecycle Policies
D. S3 Transfer Acceleration

9 What requirement must an S3 bucket name fulfill?

A. It must be unique within the user's account only
B. It can contain uppercase letters
C. It must be unique within the region
D. It must be unique across all AWS accounts globally

10 Which S3 feature allows you to define rules to automatically transition objects to cheaper storage classes or expire them?

A. S3 Object Lock
B. S3 Lifecycle Policies
C. Cross-Region Replication
D. S3 Versioning

11 When S3 Versioning is enabled, what happens if you upload a file with the same key (name) as an existing file?

A. The existing file is overwritten permanently
B. The upload fails
C. The old file is moved to Glacier
D. Amazon S3 generates a new version ID for the uploaded object

12 What object is created when you delete a file in a versioning-enabled S3 bucket without specifying a version ID?

A. A null version
B. An archived copy
C. A delete marker
D. A snapshot

13 Which feature creates a physical layer of security by requiring a second form of authentication to permanently delete an object version?

A. Bucket Policy
B. MFA Delete
C. S3 Object Lock
D. IAM Role

14 What is an Amazon Machine Image (AMI)?

A. A virtual network definition
B. A physical server in a data center
C. A template that contains the software configuration (OS, application server, etc.) required to launch an instance
D. A storage volume attached to an instance

15 Which category of AMIs is generally considered the safest and most reliable to use?

A. Private AMIs shared by unknown accounts
B. My AMIs
C. AWS Marketplace AMIs (Verified providers)
D. Community AMIs

16 Which EC2 instance family is optimized for compute-bound applications like high-performance web servers and batch processing?

A. I-series (Storage Optimized)
B. T-series (General Purpose)
C. R-series (Memory Optimized)
D. C-series (Compute Optimized)

17 Which EC2 instance type is ideal for applications that need high memory performance, such as in-memory databases?

A. Memory Optimized
B. Accelerated Computing
C. Compute Optimized
D. General Purpose

18 What is the primary characteristic of EC2 Spot Instances?

A. They offer unused EC2 capacity at a steep discount but can be interrupted
B. They provide dedicated physical hardware
C. They are reserved for a 1 or 3-year term
D. They are always the most expensive option

19 What is 'User Data' in the context of launching an EC2 instance?

A. Scripts or commands entered during launch that run when the instance first boots
B. The login credentials for the instance
C. Data stored in the /home directory
D. The metadata tags attached to the instance

20 What is the special IP address used to retrieve EC2 Instance Metadata from within the instance?

A. 192.168.1.1
B. 169.254.169.254
C. 127.0.0.1
D. 10.0.0.1

21 Which storage option is block-level storage that behaves like a physical hard drive attached to an EC2 instance?

A. Amazon EFS (Elastic File System)
B. Amazon S3
C. Amazon Glacier
D. Amazon EBS (Elastic Block Store)

22 What is a key availability constraint of an Amazon EBS volume?

A. It can be attached to instances in any region
B. It is locked to a specific Availability Zone
C. It can be accessed over the public internet directly
D. It is automatically replicated across all zones in a region

23 If you terminate an EC2 instance, what happens to the attached EBS root volume by default?

A. It is preserved
B. It is deleted
C. It is converted to a snapshot
D. It is archived to Glacier

24 Which EBS volume type is best for mission-critical low-latency or high-throughput workloads requiring sustained IOPS?

A. Throughput Optimized HDD (st1)
B. Provisioned IOPS SSD (io1/io2)
C. Cold HDD (sc1)
D. General Purpose SSD (gp2/gp3)

25 How can you back up an EBS volume?

A. By taking a Snapshot
B. By using S3 Object Lock
C. By converting it to an AMI
D. By copying the data to RAM

26 Which storage service is a fully managed file system that supports the Network File System (NFS) protocol and allows concurrent access from multiple EC2 instances?

A. Amazon EFS
B. Amazon EBS
C. Amazon S3
D. Amazon RDS

27 Unlike EBS, how does Amazon EFS handle storage capacity?

A. It requires manual resizing via the console
B. It is limited to 1 TB
C. It shrinks and grows automatically as you add/remove files
D. You must provision a fixed size

28 Regarding the Well-Architected Framework: Which pillar focuses on selecting the right instance type for the workload?

A. Operational Excellence
B. Security
C. Reliability
D. Performance Efficiency

29 How does using Spot Instances contribute to the 'Cost Optimization' pillar of the Well-Architected Framework?

A. They ensure 100% availability
B. They reduce costs for fault-tolerant, flexible workloads
C. They eliminate the need for storage
D. They provide the highest performance

30 Which security measure applies to the 'Security' pillar when managing EC2 instances?

A. Using IAM roles to grant permissions instead of hardcoding credentials
B. Using the largest instance type available
C. Turning off CloudWatch logs
D. Making all security groups open to 0.0.0.0/0

31 In the context of Reliability, what is the benefit of using an Auto Scaling Group with EC2?

A. It ensures the correct number of instances are running to handle load and recover from failures
B. It automatically encrypts data
C. It serves static content to users
D. It reduces the latency of S3 transfers

32 What is the maximum file size supported by Amazon S3?

A. Unlimited
B. 1 TB
C. 10 TB
D. 5 TB

33 Which tool can be used to physically migrate petabytes of data to Amazon S3 when internet transfer is too slow?

A. AWS Snowball
B. Amazon Kinesis
C. AWS Direct Connect
D. S3 Transfer Acceleration

34 A 'T3' EC2 instance utilizes what type of performance characteristic?

A. Burstable performance
B. Storage optimization
C. Fixed high performance
D. GPU acceleration

35 Which EC2 purchasing option allows you to reserve capacity for a 1 or 3-year term in exchange for a significant discount?

A. Spot Instances
B. Dedicated Hosts
C. On-Demand
D. Reserved Instances

36 To secure login access to a Linux EC2 instance, what must be created and downloaded during launch?

A. An IAM Policy
B. A password file
C. A Security Group
D. A Key Pair (.pem file)

37 Which storage service is region-resilient (stored across multiple AZs) by default?

A. Instance Store
B. Amazon S3 Standard
C. Amazon EBS
D. EBS Snapshots (prior to 2019)

38 What is 'Instance Store' (Ephemeral Storage)?

A. Temporary block-level storage located on disks physically attached to the host computer
B. A database service
C. Permanent block storage
D. A type of S3 bucket

39 EBS Multi-Attach allows you to attach a single io1/io2 volume to:

A. An infinite number of instances
B. Instances and S3 buckets simultaneously
C. Multiple instances in the same Availability Zone
D. Multiple instances in different Regions

40 Which S3 feature allows you to use SQL expressions to retrieve only a subset of data from an object?

A. S3 Inventory
B. S3 Glacier
C. S3 Select
D. S3 Intelligent-Tiering

41 If you need a static IP address for your EC2 instance that persists even if the instance is stopped and restarted, what should you use?

A. Private IP
B. Dynamic DNS
C. Public IP
D. Elastic IP

42 Which of the following is NOT a valid state for an S3 Lifecycle policy rule?

A. Expire (Delete)
B. Transition to EBS
C. Transition to Glacier
D. Transition to Standard-IA

43 In the context of EC2, what acts as a virtual firewall to control inbound and outbound traffic?

A. IAM Role
B. Security Group
C. Network ACL
D. Route Table

44 When launching an EC2 instance, which configuration determines the network location (subnet) of the instance?

A. Network settings / VPC configuration
B. AMI selection
C. Instance type selection
D. Storage configuration

45 Which storage class has the longest retrieval time (ranging from 12 to 48 hours)?

A. S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval
B. S3 Glacier Instant Retrieval
C. S3 Glacier Deep Archive
D. S3 Standard

46 For a High Performance Computing (HPC) workload requiring low network latency between instances, which placement group strategy should be used?

A. Spread
B. Cluster
C. Partition
D. Regional

47 What is the main difference between stopping and terminating an EC2 instance?

A. There is no difference
B. Stopping keeps the EBS volume and instance ID; terminating deletes the instance permanently
C. Stopping deletes the instance; terminating saves it
D. Terminating pauses billing; stopping continues billing

48 Which S3 functionality allows you to host a client-side Single Page Application (SPA)?

A. S3 Transfer Acceleration
B. Static Website Hosting
C. Requester Pays
D. BitTorrent Support

49 If you want to ensure an EC2 instance runs on physical hardware dedicated to your use (for compliance or licensing), what option do you choose?

A. On-Demand Instance
B. Dedicated Host
C. Reserved Instance
D. Spot Instance

50 Applying the 'Operational Excellence' pillar to storage, what is a best practice?

A. Never monitoring storage usage
B. Manually deleting old files
C. Using the most expensive storage tier to ensure safety
D. Using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) to provision storage resources