Unit 1: Cloud Fundamentals and Security - Practice Quiz

INT364 — Cloud Architecture And Implementation-Ii 50 Questions
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1 Which component of the AWS Global Infrastructure consists of one or more discrete data centers with redundant power, networking, and connectivity?

A. Availability Zone
B. Local Zone
C. Edge Location
D. AWS Region

2 Which factor should primarily be considered when choosing an AWS Region to reduce latency for end-users?

A. Cost of services
B. Number of Availability Zones
C. Proximity to the end-users
D. Compliance requirements

3 What is the primary function of AWS Edge Locations?

A. To host EC2 instances
B. To store cold data archives
C. To manage IAM policies
D. To provide low-latency content delivery via CloudFront

4 Which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework focuses on the ability to run and monitor systems to deliver business value and to continually improve processes and procedures?

A. Reliability
B. Operational Excellence
C. Performance Efficiency
D. Security

5 Which design principle is recommended by the AWS Well-Architected Framework regarding capacity planning?

A. Manually adjust capacity once a month
B. Always over-provision to ensure performance
C. Stop guessing capacity needs
D. Guess capacity needs based on averages

6 In the Shared Responsibility Model, which of the following is the customer's responsibility?

A. Client-side data encryption
B. Patching the underlying host infrastructure
C. decommissioning storage devices
D. Physical security of data centers

7 What is the primary purpose of AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)?

A. To manage DNS records
B. To securely control access to AWS services and resources
C. To monitor network traffic
D. To deploy applications

8 Which IAM entity represents a person or service that interacts with AWS?

A. IAM Policy
B. IAM Role
C. IAM Group
D. IAM User

9 What is the recommended best practice for the AWS account root user?

A. Enable Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) and lock away credentials
B. Use it for daily administrative tasks
C. Create access keys for the root user for API access
D. Share the password with the development team

10 Which IAM feature allows you to associate permissions with a collection of users?

A. IAM Role
B. IAM Group
C. IAM Policy
D. Access Key

11 What format are IAM policies written in?

A. HTML
B. XML
C. JSON
D. YAML

12 Which principle suggests granting only the permissions required to perform a task?

A. Principle of Shared Responsibility
B. Principle of Root Access
C. Principle of Maximum Authority
D. Principle of Least Privilege

13 An IAM Role is best described as:

A. A permanent identity with long-term credentials
B. A group of users with shared permissions
C. An identity with permission policies that can be assumed by a user or service
D. A document defining password policies

14 What is the default effect of an IAM policy if no Allow or Deny is explicitly stated?

A. Explicit Deny
B. Implicit Deny
C. Conditional Allow
D. Implicit Allow

15 Which AWS service enables you to manage access across multiple AWS accounts centrally?

A. AWS Config
B. Amazon CloudWatch
C. Amazon Inspector
D. AWS Organizations

16 What mechanism allows users from an external identity provider (IdP) like Active Directory to access AWS resources without creating IAM users?

A. MFA
B. Identity Federation
C. IAM Groups
D. Access Keys

17 Which industry standard is commonly used for federating users into AWS?

A. FTP
B. HTML5
C. HTTP
D. SAML 2.0

18 To allow an application running on an EC2 instance to access an S3 bucket securely, what should you configure?

A. Attach an IAM Role to the EC2 instance
B. Embed Access Keys in the application code
C. Create a new IAM User for the instance
D. Make the S3 bucket public

19 Which API call is used to obtain temporary security credentials when assuming a role?

A. sts:GetSessionToken
B. sts:AssumeRole
C. iam:CreateUser
D. iam:GetRole

20 What is the primary service used for creating and managing cryptographic keys in AWS?

A. Amazon Macie
B. AWS Key Management Service (KMS)
C. AWS Secrets Manager
D. AWS Shield

21 Which type of encryption protects data while it is stored on a disk?

A. End-to-End Encryption
B. SSL/TLS
C. Encryption at Rest
D. Encryption in Transit

22 What does Server-Side Encryption (SSE) on Amazon S3 imply?

A. AWS encrypts the data after it is received and before saving it to disk
B. The user encrypts data before uploading
C. AWS stores the encryption keys on the user's computer
D. The data is encrypted during transfer over the internet only

23 Which AWS service protects against Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks?

A. AWS WAF
B. Amazon Inspector
C. AWS Shield
D. AWS Artifact

24 Which service helps protect your web applications from common web exploits like SQL injection and cross-site scripting?

A. AWS Firewall Manager
B. AWS WAF
C. Amazon GuardDuty
D. AWS Shield

25 Amazon GuardDuty is best described as:

A. A compliance reporting tool
B. An intelligent threat detection service
C. A firewall for EC2 instances
D. An automated vulnerability assessment service

26 Which service automatically discovers, classifies, and protects sensitive data (like PII) in AWS?

A. AWS Config
B. AWS Secrets Manager
C. Amazon Macie
D. Amazon Inspector

27 Which service is used to assess applications for exposure, vulnerabilities, and deviations from best practices?

A. Amazon Inspector
B. AWS Trusted Advisor
C. AWS Shield
D. AWS WAF

28 What does the 'Sustainability' pillar of the Well-Architected Framework focus on?

A. Minimizing the environmental impacts of running cloud workloads
B. Managing access controls
C. Ensuring high availability
D. Reducing cost

29 Which AWS service records API calls for your account and delivers log files to you?

A. AWS CloudTrail
B. Amazon CloudWatch
C. AWS X-Ray
D. AWS Config

30 In IAM, what is the 'PowerUserAccess' managed policy?

A. Full access to all services including IAM
B. Read-only access to all services
C. Access to billing information only
D. Full access to all services excluding IAM management

31 What feature allows you to grant cross-account access to S3 resources explicitly within the S3 service?

A. Bucket Policies
B. NACLs
C. Security Groups
D. Service Control Policies

32 Which cryptographic method uses a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption?

A. Symmetric encryption
B. Hashing
C. Obfuscation
D. Asymmetric encryption

33 What is 'Envelope Encryption'?

A. Encrypting plaintext data with a data key, then encrypting the data key with a master key
B. Encrypting the email used to send keys
C. Encrypting data only at the network edge
D. Wrapping a physical hard drive in a secure envelope

34 Which AWS feature can be used to ensure that EBS volumes created by users are always encrypted?

A. IAM Roles
B. VPC Flow Logs
C. AWS Config Rules
D. EBS Snapshots

35 When designing for failure in the Cloud, what is a key concept?

A. Single point of failure
B. Vertical scaling only
C. Tightly coupled components
D. Decoupling components

36 What is the purpose of Service Control Policies (SCPs) in AWS Organizations?

A. To manage encryption keys
B. To configure firewall rules
C. To define the maximum available permissions for member accounts
D. To grant permissions to IAM users

37 Which credential is required for programmatic access to AWS via the CLI?

A. MFA Token only
B. SSH Key Pair
C. Access Key ID and Secret Access Key
D. User Name and Password

38 What is the function of AWS Secrets Manager?

A. To firewall web applications
B. To encrypt EBS volumes
C. To rotate, manage, and retrieve database credentials and API keys
D. To store IAM user passwords

39 Which pillar of the Well-Architected Framework focuses on the ability to prevent financial loss?

A. Cost Optimization
B. Reliability
C. Security
D. Performance Efficiency

40 Which security service provides on-demand access to AWS compliance reports (e.g., SOC, PCI)?

A. AWS Config
B. AWS Shield
C. Amazon Inspector
D. AWS Artifact

41 In IAM, what is the 'Principal' in a policy statement?

A. The entity (user/role) allowed or denied access
B. The action being performed
C. The resource being accessed
D. The condition under which access is granted

42 What is the difference between a Security Group and a Network ACL (NACL)?

A. Security Groups act at the subnet level; NACLs act at the instance level
B. Security Groups are stateless; NACLs are stateful
C. Security Groups are stateful; NACLs are stateless
D. There is no difference

43 Which AWS service allows you to manage encryption keys in a dedicated, single-tenant hardware security module (HSM)?

A. AWS CloudHSM
B. AWS KMS
C. AWS Secrets Manager
D. Amazon S3

44 How often should IAM Access Keys be rotated according to best practices?

A. Regularly
B. Never
C. Once every 10 years
D. Only when a breach occurs

45 Which IAM tool helps you identify unused credentials and excessive permissions?

A. AWS Cost Explorer
B. Route 53
C. AWS CloudFormation
D. IAM Credential Report / Access Analyzer

46 If an explicit Deny and an explicit Allow exist for the same request, which one takes precedence?

A. Explicit Allow
B. The policy with the most permissions
C. The most recent policy
D. Explicit Deny

47 Which is a valid use case for Web Identity Federation?

A. Authenticating users via Google or Facebook to access AWS resources
B. Encrypting S3 buckets
C. Connecting an on-premise data center to VPC
D. Managing EC2 instances

48 What is the 'Condition' element in an IAM JSON policy used for?

A. To specify circumstances under which the policy grants permission
B. To specify the resource ARN
C. To list the allowed actions
D. To define who can access the resource

49 Which service acts as a threat detection service that continuously monitors for malicious activity and unauthorized behavior to protect your AWS accounts and workloads?

A. AWS Shield
B. Amazon GuardDuty
C. Amazon Macie
D. AWS WAF

50 What type of scaling is described as adding more power (CPU, RAM) to an existing machine?

A. Horizontal Scaling
B. Auto Scaling
C. Diagonal Scaling
D. Vertical Scaling