1Which AWS service is primarily used for monitoring resources and applications, collecting metrics, logs, and setting alarms?
A.Amazon Inspector
B.AWS Config
C.AWS CloudTrail
D.Amazon CloudWatch
Correct Answer: Amazon CloudWatch
Explanation:
Amazon CloudWatch is the monitoring and observability service that collects monitoring data in the form of logs, metrics, and events.
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2In Amazon CloudWatch, what is the default time period for metric data points stored at 1-minute resolution?
A.15 days
B.1 hour
C.15 months
D.63 days
Correct Answer: 15 days
Explanation:
Data points with a period of 1 minute are available for 15 days. After that, data is aggregated to lower resolutions.
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3You need to automatically terminate an EC2 instance if its CPU utilization remains below 10% for 24 hours. Which CloudWatch feature should you use?
A.CloudWatch Logs
B.CloudWatch Alarms
C.CloudWatch Events
D.CloudWatch Dashboards
Correct Answer: CloudWatch Alarms
Explanation:
CloudWatch Alarms allow you to watch a single metric over a time period and perform one or more actions (like terminating an instance) based on the value of the metric.
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4Which component of AWS Auto Scaling allows you to define the template for the EC2 instances that will be launched?
A.Scaling Policy
B.Lifecycle Hook
C.Auto Scaling Group
D.Launch Configuration or Launch Template
Correct Answer: Launch Configuration or Launch Template
Explanation:
Launch Templates (and the older Launch Configurations) specify the ID of the AMI, the instance type, a key pair, and security groups for instances launched by Auto Scaling.
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5What is the primary benefit of using an Auto Scaling Group?
A.It ensures the correct number of EC2 instances are available to handle the load.
B.It automatically upgrades the operating system of EC2 instances.
C.It automatically registers domain names.
D.It increases the size of the EBS volumes automatically.
Correct Answer: It ensures the correct number of EC2 instances are available to handle the load.
Explanation:
Auto Scaling Groups manage the collection of EC2 instances, adding or removing instances to match demand and maintain application availability.
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6Which Auto Scaling policy type adjusts the capacity of the group based on a specific metric value, such as keeping average CPU utilization at 50%?
A.Step scaling
B.Target tracking scaling
C.Simple scaling
D.Scheduled scaling
Correct Answer: Target tracking scaling
Explanation:
Target tracking scaling policies increase or decrease the current capacity of the group based on a target value for a specific metric.
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7What happens when an EC2 instance in an Auto Scaling Group fails a health check?
A.The instance is terminated and replaced.
B.The instance is rebooted.
C.The instance is stopped and an alert is sent.
D.The instance is paused for debugging.
Correct Answer: The instance is terminated and replaced.
Explanation:
When an instance fails a health check, Auto Scaling terminates the unhealthy instance and launches a new one to replace it.
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8Which AWS Load Balancer operates at Layer 7 of the OSI model and is best suited for HTTP/HTTPS traffic?
A.Network Load Balancer
B.Application Load Balancer
C.Classic Load Balancer
D.Gateway Load Balancer
Correct Answer: Application Load Balancer
Explanation:
The Application Load Balancer (ALB) operates at the request level (Layer 7), routing traffic to targets based on the content of the request.
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9Which feature of an Application Load Balancer allows you to direct traffic to different target groups based on the URL path (e.g., /images vs. /api)?
A.Query string routing
B.Host-based routing
C.Source IP routing
D.Path-based routing
Correct Answer: Path-based routing
Explanation:
Path-based routing allows the listener to forward requests to specific target groups based on the URL path pattern.
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10A Network Load Balancer (NLB) is capable of handling millions of requests per second with ultra-low latencies. At which OSI layer does it operate?
A.Layer 2
B.Layer 3
C.Layer 7
D.Layer 4
Correct Answer: Layer 4
Explanation:
Network Load Balancers operate at the connection level (Layer 4), routing traffic based on IP protocol data.
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11What mechanism does an Elastic Load Balancer use to ensure it only sends traffic to healthy instances?
A.Placement Groups
B.Health checks
C.Lifecycle hooks
D.CloudWatch Alarms
Correct Answer: Health checks
Explanation:
The load balancer periodically sends requests (health checks) to its registered targets to test their status and only routes traffic to healthy ones.
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12Which AWS service is a highly available and scalable cloud Domain Name System (DNS) web service?
A.AWS Direct Connect
B.Amazon CloudFront
C.AWS Global Accelerator
D.Amazon Route 53
Correct Answer: Amazon Route 53
Explanation:
Amazon Route 53 is a scalable and highly available Domain Name System (DNS) web service.
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13In Route 53, which routing policy should be used to route traffic to the resource that provides the best performance for the user based on network round-trip time?
A.Latency routing
B.Weighted routing
C.Failover routing
D.Simple routing
Correct Answer: Latency routing
Explanation:
Latency routing policy allows Route 53 to route traffic to the AWS region that provides the lowest latency for the user.
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14Which Route 53 routing policy allows you to route traffic to multiple resources in proportions that you specify (e.g., 20% to test, 80% to prod)?
A.Failover routing
B.Weighted routing
C.Multivalue answer routing
D.Geolocation routing
Correct Answer: Weighted routing
Explanation:
Weighted routing lets you associate multiple resources with a single domain name and choose how much traffic is routed to each resource.
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15What is the specific Route 53 record type used to map a domain name to an AWS resource (like an ELB or S3 bucket) that is free of charge to query?
A.A Record
B.Alias Record
C.CNAME Record
D.MX Record
Correct Answer: Alias Record
Explanation:
Alias records provide a Route 53-specific extension to DNS functionality, allowing you to route traffic to selected AWS resources, often free of charge.
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16Which service allows you to model and provision AWS resources using code (Infrastructure as Code)?
A.AWS Systems Manager
B.AWS CloudFormation
C.AWS CodeDeploy
D.AWS OpsWorks
Correct Answer: AWS CloudFormation
Explanation:
AWS CloudFormation allows you to use a common language (JSON or YAML) to describe and provision all the infrastructure resources in your cloud environment.
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17What are the two file formats supported by AWS CloudFormation templates?
A.Python and Node.js
B.XML and JSON
C.YAML and HTML
D.JSON and YAML
Correct Answer: JSON and YAML
Explanation:
CloudFormation templates can be authored in either JSON (JavaScript Object Notation) or YAML (YAML Ain't Markup Language).
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18In a CloudFormation template, which section allows you to pass values into your template at runtime?
A.Mappings
B.Parameters
C.Resources
D.Outputs
Correct Answer: Parameters
Explanation:
The Parameters section enables you to input custom values to your template each time you create or update a stack.
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19What happens if a CloudFormation stack creation fails by default?
A.It pauses and waits for manual intervention.
B.It retries indefinitely.
C.It automatically rolls back (deletes) the created resources.
D.It keeps the resources created so far.
Correct Answer: It automatically rolls back (deletes) the created resources.
Explanation:
By default, the 'Rollback on failure' feature is enabled, meaning CloudFormation deletes all resources it created if the stack creation fails.
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20Which CloudFormation feature allows you to preview the changes that will be made to a stack before applying them?
A.Nested Stacks
B.Stack Policies
C.Drift Detection
D.Change Sets
Correct Answer: Change Sets
Explanation:
Change Sets allow you to see how your changes might impact your running resources before you execute the update.
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21What is an AWS Quick Start?
A.A graphical tool for creating VPCs.
B.Automated reference deployments built by AWS solutions architects and partners.
C.A script to start EC2 instances quickly.
D.A tutorial for learning AWS.
Correct Answer: Automated reference deployments built by AWS solutions architects and partners.
Explanation:
AWS Quick Starts are automated reference deployments that use CloudFormation to deploy key technologies on AWS according to best practices.
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22Which CloudWatch feature would you use to store and search application log files?
A.CloudWatch Events
B.CloudWatch Logs
C.CloudWatch Metrics
D.CloudWatch Insights
Correct Answer: CloudWatch Logs
Explanation:
CloudWatch Logs allows you to monitor, store, and access your log files from Amazon EC2 instances, CloudTrail, and other sources.
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23How does Amazon Q Developer assist in the context of infrastructure automation?
A.It replaces the need for an AWS account.
B.It is a load balancing service.
C.It physically manages the data center hardware.
D.It generates, explains, and debugs code and CloudFormation templates via natural language.
Correct Answer: It generates, explains, and debugs code and CloudFormation templates via natural language.
Explanation:
Amazon Q Developer is an AI-powered assistant that can help write Infrastructure as Code (IaC), explain complex code, and suggest optimizations.
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24You have an application that requires high availability across two Availability Zones. Which architecture should you choose?
A.An Auto Scaling Group spanning two AZs with a Load Balancer.
B.One EC2 instance in one AZ.
C.Two EC2 instances in the same AZ.
D.A single large EC2 instance with vertical scaling.
Correct Answer: An Auto Scaling Group spanning two AZs with a Load Balancer.
Explanation:
Spanning an Auto Scaling Group across multiple AZs combined with a Load Balancer ensures redundancy and high availability if one AZ fails.
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25Which Route 53 routing policy is used for active-passive failover configurations?
A.Failover routing
B.Simple routing
C.Weighted routing
D.Geolocation routing
Correct Answer: Failover routing
Explanation:
Failover routing is used to configure active-passive failover, routing traffic to a secondary resource only when the primary resource is unhealthy.
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26In CloudFormation, which intrinsic function is used to retrieve the value of an attribute from a resource in the template?
A.Fn::GetAtt
B.Fn::Ref
C.Fn::FindInMap
D.Fn::Join
Correct Answer: Fn::GetAtt
Explanation:
The Fn::GetAtt intrinsic function returns the value of an attribute from a resource in the template (e.g., the DNS name of a Load Balancer).
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27Which metric is NOT collected by default in CloudWatch for EC2 instances and requires a custom agent?
A.CPU Utilization
B.Disk Read Operations
C.Memory Utilization
D.Network In/Out
Correct Answer: Memory Utilization
Explanation:
Memory utilization is a custom metric; the hypervisor does not have visibility into the guest OS memory usage by default.
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28What is 'Drift Detection' in the context of AWS CloudFormation?
A.Detecting billing anomalies.
B.Detecting if actual resource configurations differ from the CloudFormation template.
C.Detecting when a stack is being deleted.
D.Detecting latency in the network.
Correct Answer: Detecting if actual resource configurations differ from the CloudFormation template.
Explanation:
Drift detection identifies configuration changes made to stack resources outside of CloudFormation (e.g., manually changing a Security Group rule).
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29Which Load Balancer feature solves the problem of session data being lost when requests are routed to different instances?
Sticky sessions bind a user's session to a specific instance so that all requests from that user during the session are sent to the same instance.
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30Amazon Q Developer creates code suggestions based on:
A.Random algorithms.
B.Strictly pre-defined templates only.
C.Only the file currently open.
D.The context of the code in your IDE and natural language comments.
Correct Answer: The context of the code in your IDE and natural language comments.
Explanation:
Amazon Q analyzes the context of your current file, project, and comments to generate relevant code suggestions.
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31Which section of a CloudFormation template is mandatory?
A.Resources
B.Mappings
C.Outputs
D.Parameters
Correct Answer: Resources
Explanation:
The Resources section is the only required section in a CloudFormation template, declaring the AWS resources you want to create.
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32To reduce the startup time of instances in an Auto Scaling Group, what state can you put a 'warm' instance into using Lifecycle Hooks?
A.Hibernated
B.Terminated
C.Stopped
D.Standby
Correct Answer: Standby
Explanation:
While 'Hibernated' saves memory to disk, creating a warm pool often involves keeping instances in a Stopped or specialized state, but 'Standby' allows you to troubleshoot or modify an instance without terminating it from the ASG.
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33Which Route 53 policy lets you restrict content distribution based on the geographic location of your users?
A.Geolocation routing
B.Latency routing
C.Geoproximity routing
D.Multivalue answer routing
Correct Answer: Geolocation routing
Explanation:
Geolocation routing lets you choose the resources that serve your traffic based on the geographic location of your users (i.e., by continent, country, or state).
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34What is the purpose of 'Cross-Zone Load Balancing'?
A.To evenly distribute traffic across all registered instances in all enabled Availability Zones.
B.To balance traffic between different regions.
C.To duplicate traffic to all zones for backup.
D.To prevent traffic from crossing Availability Zones.
Correct Answer: To evenly distribute traffic across all registered instances in all enabled Availability Zones.
Explanation:
Cross-Zone Load Balancing ensures that each load balancer node distributes traffic across the registered targets in all enabled Availability Zones, preventing imbalances.
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35Which AWS service can trigger a CloudWatch Alarm if a specific text pattern is found in a log file?
A.CloudWatch Events
B.CloudTrail
C.AWS Config
D.CloudWatch Metric Filters
Correct Answer: CloudWatch Metric Filters
Explanation:
Metric filters define the terms and patterns to look for in log data as it is sent to CloudWatch Logs and transform these into numerical CloudWatch metrics.
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36When using Auto Scaling with an Application Load Balancer, where should you register the instances?
A.To the Auto Scaling Group only; ASG registers them to the Target Group.
B.To the Target Group associated with the Load Balancer.
C.To the Route 53 Alias record.
D.Directly to the Load Balancer Listener.
Correct Answer: To the Auto Scaling Group only; ASG registers them to the Target Group.
Explanation:
You attach the Target Group to the Auto Scaling Group. The ASG then automatically registers new instances to that Target Group.
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37In the context of Amazon Q Developer, what is 'Code Transformation'?
A.Converting JSON to YAML.
B.Upgrading and modernizing language versions (e.g., Java 8 to Java 17).
C.Compressing code files.
D.Encrypting source code.
Correct Answer: Upgrading and modernizing language versions (e.g., Java 8 to Java 17).
Explanation:
Amazon Q Developer Code Transformation helps upgrade applications to newer language versions and frameworks automatically.
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38Which CloudFormation intrinsic function allows you to join a list of strings together with a delimiter?
A.Fn::Sub
B.Fn::Split
C.Fn::Join
D.Fn::Select
Correct Answer: Fn::Join
Explanation:
Fn::Join appends a set of values into a single value, separated by the specified delimiter.
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39What is the maximum retention period for CloudWatch Logs?
A.1 year
B.5 years
C.10 years
D.Indefinitely (Never expire)
Correct Answer: Indefinitely (Never expire)
Explanation:
You can set log retention to 'Never expire', or choose a specific duration from 1 day to 10 years.
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40Which Route 53 feature checks the health of your resources and removes unhealthy records from DNS responses?
A.Resolver
B.DNS Failover
C.Domain Registration
D.Traffic Flow
Correct Answer: DNS Failover
Explanation:
DNS Failover relies on health checks to monitor endpoints; if an endpoint is unhealthy, Route 53 routes traffic away from it.
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41What is a 'Cool-down period' in Auto Scaling?
A.The time an instance waits before accepting traffic.
B.The time taken to reboot an instance.
C.A configurable setting to prevent the ASG from launching or terminating additional instances before the previous scaling activity takes effect.
D.The time required to install the OS.
Correct Answer: A configurable setting to prevent the ASG from launching or terminating additional instances before the previous scaling activity takes effect.
Explanation:
The cool-down period helps to avoid 'thrashing' (rapid launching and terminating) by allowing metrics to stabilize after a scaling action.
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42Which AWS CloudFormation concept is a container for AWS resources that you manage as a single unit?
A.Stack
B.Set
C.Template
D.Group
Correct Answer: Stack
Explanation:
A stack is a collection of resources that you create, update, or delete as a single unit using a CloudFormation template.
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43How do AWS Quick Starts differ from standard CloudFormation templates?
A.They are vetted, gold-standard deployments for specific workloads designed by AWS and partners.
B.They only support EC2 instances.
C.They are built by the community without testing.
D.They do not use CloudFormation.
Correct Answer: They are vetted, gold-standard deployments for specific workloads designed by AWS and partners.
Explanation:
Quick Starts are distinct because they represent best-practice, production-ready reference deployments.
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44Which dashboard type in CloudWatch allows you to combine metrics from multiple regions?
A.Local Dashboard
B.Global Dashboard (Cross-Region)
C.Regional Dashboard
D.VPC Dashboard
Correct Answer: Global Dashboard (Cross-Region)
Explanation:
CloudWatch Dashboards are global resources and can display metrics from different regions in a single view.
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45In Auto Scaling, what is 'Predictive Scaling'?
A.Scaling based on random intervals.
B.Scaling based on immediate CPU spikes only.
C.Scaling based on manual approval.
D.Scaling based on machine learning models that forecast daily and weekly patterns.
Correct Answer: Scaling based on machine learning models that forecast daily and weekly patterns.
Explanation:
Predictive scaling uses machine learning to schedule the right number of EC2 instances in anticipation of approaching traffic changes.
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46When defining a CloudFormation template, what is the 'Mappings' section used for?
A.To define resource dependencies.
B.To define inputs.
C.To map keys to corresponding named values (e.g., Region to AMI ID).
D.To output results.
Correct Answer: To map keys to corresponding named values (e.g., Region to AMI ID).
Explanation:
Mappings allow you to create a lookup table (map) to set values conditionally based on inputs like the AWS Region.
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47What is the primary function of the Gateway Load Balancer (GWLB)?
A.To route DNS queries.
B.To balance database queries.
C.To balance HTTP traffic.
D.To deploy, scale, and manage virtual appliances like firewalls and intrusion detection systems.
Correct Answer: To deploy, scale, and manage virtual appliances like firewalls and intrusion detection systems.
Explanation:
GWLB is designed specifically to handle third-party virtual appliances, operating at Layer 3 (Gateway + Load Balancing).
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48How can Amazon Q Developer accelerate the onboarding of a new developer to a project?
A.By providing code explanations and summarizing the functionality of the existing codebase.
B.By monitoring their screen time.
C.By creating their IAM user accounts.
D.By installing the IDE automatically.
Correct Answer: By providing code explanations and summarizing the functionality of the existing codebase.
Explanation:
Amazon Q can explain selected code snippets or whole files, helping new developers understand logic faster.
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49Which Route 53 routing policy is best for a website that requires users to be routed to a resource within a specific geographic area to satisfy data sovereignty laws?
A.Geoproximity routing
B.Latency routing
C.Geolocation routing
D.Failover routing
Correct Answer: Geolocation routing
Explanation:
Geolocation routing allows you to route traffic based on the location of your users, which is essential for compliance and data sovereignty.
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50What is the CloudWatch 'Unified CloudWatch Agent' used for?
A.To watch movies on AWS.
B.To collect both metrics and logs from EC2 instances and on-premises servers.
C.To manage user permissions.
D.To automate billing.
Correct Answer: To collect both metrics and logs from EC2 instances and on-premises servers.
Explanation:
The Unified CloudWatch Agent enables the collection of more system-level metrics (like memory) and logs from both EC2 and on-premise servers.