Unit 5: Resiliency, Monitoring, and Automation - Practice Quiz

1 Which AWS service collects and monitors metrics from AWS resources?

2 What is the purpose of an Amazon CloudWatch alarm?

3 Which CloudWatch feature is used to collect and store application log data?

4 Which metric commonly shows the processor usage of an Amazon EC2 instance?

5 What is the main purpose of Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling?

6 What tells an Auto Scaling group when to add or remove instances?

7 What can an Auto Scaling group do when one of its EC2 instances becomes unhealthy?

8 Which Auto Scaling group setting prevents the group from scaling below a specified number of instances?

9 What is the primary function of an Elastic Load Balancer?

10 How does a load balancer support high availability?

11 Which Elastic Load Balancing type is designed for HTTP and HTTPS traffic at Layer 7?

12 What is the primary purpose of Amazon Route 53?

13 Which Route 53 routing policy directs users to the AWS Region that provides the lowest network latency?

14 Which Route 53 configuration can send traffic to a backup resource when the primary resource is unhealthy?

15 What is AWS CloudFormation primarily used for?

16 Which formats can be used to write AWS CloudFormation templates?

17 What is a collection of AWS resources managed together by CloudFormation called?

18 What is the main purpose of AWS Quick Starts?

19 Which AWS service is commonly used by AWS Quick Starts to automate resource deployment?

20 Which task can Amazon Q Developer assist a developer with?

21 An operations team needs to monitor memory utilization on several Amazon EC2 instances. The metric is not available in the CloudWatch console by default. What should the team do?

22 CloudTrail events are delivered to a CloudWatch Logs log group. Administrators want an alert whenever repeated unauthorized API calls occur. Which solution best meets this requirement?

23 A team wants to notify its on-call engineer only when both CPU utilization is high and application error rate is elevated. Which CloudWatch feature should it use?

24 An alarm monitors an error metric that is emitted only when an error occurs. Missing periods should represent normal operation rather than an unknown state. How should missing data be configured?

25 An application should automatically add or remove EC2 instances to keep average CPU utilization near 50%. Which scaling policy is most appropriate?

26 An Auto Scaling group uses Elastic Load Balancing health checks. One instance passes its EC2 system checks but repeatedly fails the load balancer health check. What will Auto Scaling do?

27 Before an Auto Scaling group terminates an instance, a script must upload local diagnostic files to Amazon S3. Which feature provides time for this task?

28 Traffic increases at 08:00 every weekday and drops at 18:00. The pattern is stable, and capacity must be ready before users arrive. Which approach is most suitable?

29 A company runs /api and /images on different target groups. It wants one load balancer to route requests according to the URL path. Which load balancer should it use?

30 A web application must remain available if one Availability Zone fails. Which load-balancing design best supports this requirement?

31 A latency-sensitive TCP service requires very high throughput and a static IP address in each enabled Availability Zone. Which load balancer is the best fit?

32 A company hosts its application in two AWS Regions. The secondary Region should receive traffic only when the primary endpoint is unhealthy. Which Route 53 routing policy should be used?

33 A globally distributed application should direct each user to the AWS Region that currently provides the lowest network latency. Which Route 53 policy is appropriate?

34 A company needs the zone apex example.com to resolve to an Application Load Balancer. Which Route 53 record should it create?

35 An administrator is about to update a production CloudFormation stack and wants to preview which resources will be added, modified, or deleted. What should the administrator create?

36 A security group managed by CloudFormation was manually modified in the EC2 console. Which feature identifies the difference between the deployed resource and its template?

37 Several application stacks require the same reusable networking configuration. Which CloudFormation design reduces duplication while preserving modularity?

38 A company wants to deploy a documented, repeatable reference architecture for a partner solution without manually creating every AWS resource. Which option best meets this need?

39 A developer is modifying a Quick Start CloudFormation template and encounters an unfamiliar resource property. What is an appropriate use of Amazon Q Developer?

40 Amazon Q Developer generates a proposed CloudFormation modification for a production Quick Start deployment. What is the safest next action?

41 An operations team has separate CloudWatch alarms for high latency, elevated error rate, and an active deployment window. Notifications should be sent only when both service alarms are in ALARM and no deployment is underway. Which design best satisfies this requirement without modifying the application?

42 A p99 latency alarm frequently changes to ALARM when only one or two requests occur during a period. The team wants the alarm to retain its current state when CloudWatch lacks enough samples to evaluate the percentile reliably. Which configuration is appropriate?

43 An EC2 fleet scales dynamically, and an alarm must detect when operating-system memory utilization is high on any instance. Only standard EC2 metrics and basic monitoring are currently enabled. What is required?

44 A central observability account must search logs and visualize metrics from dozens of AWS accounts without copying all telemetry into a new custom repository. Which CloudWatch-native architecture should be used?

45 An Auto Scaling group has two target-tracking policies: one targets 50% CPU utilization and the other targets 1,000 requests per target. CPU indicates that capacity can decrease, but request volume indicates that it cannot. Assuming scale-in is enabled for both policies, what happens?

46 An Auto Scaling group with desired capacity 40 must perform an instance refresh without reducing the number of healthy instances below 40. It may temporarily add at most 10 instances during replacement. Which instance maintenance policy meets these constraints?

47 A Spot-heavy Auto Scaling group experiences frequent interruptions and occasional failure to launch replacements because one instance type has insufficient capacity. Which design most directly improves resilience?

48 Every registered target in an Application Load Balancer target group becomes unhealthy, but clients can still connect to the ALB. How does the ALB normally handle requests in this condition?

49 A service must route gRPC calls by host and path while terminating TLS at the load balancer. Which configuration is most appropriate?

50 A Network Load Balancer has cross-zone load balancing disabled. One enabled Availability Zone loses all healthy targets, and some clients continue using the cached zonal NLB IP address. Which change most directly allows that NLB node to serve traffic through healthy targets in other enabled zones?

51 A weighted Route 53 record set contains two healthy records with weight 0 and two records with positive weights. Both positive-weight records become unhealthy. What can Route 53 do when answering queries?

52 A private application endpoint is reachable only through private IP addresses in a VPC. Route 53 failover routing must use an application-specific health signal, but public Route 53 health checkers cannot reach the endpoint. Which approach is suitable?

53 A public DNS name uses Route 53 failover alias records for a primary ALB and a secondary disaster-recovery ALB. Traffic should move to the secondary when the primary ALB has no healthy targets. Which configuration provides this behavior without a separate endpoint health check?

54 A CloudFormation template uses a dynamic reference to retrieve a database password from Secrets Manager. The secret value is rotated, but the template and resource properties are otherwise unchanged. What should an engineer expect from a newly created change set?

55 A stateful resource must be retained when a property update causes replacement, but the replacement resource should continue to be managed by the stack. Which policy controls retention of the old physical resource during that replacement?

56 A stack is stuck in UPDATE_ROLLBACK_FAILED because one resource cannot return to its previous state. An operator uses continue-update-rollback and specifies that resource under resources-to-skip. What important consequence must be addressed afterward?

57 An organization wants a baseline CloudFormation stack deployed automatically to newly added AWS Organizations member accounts and selected Regions, without manually creating cross-account execution roles in every account. Which solution fits best?

58 A team must customize an AWS Quick Start that uses a root template, nested templates, Lambda deployment packages, and scripts. Which approach is safest for a maintainable customized deployment?

59 Amazon Q Developer generates a CloudFormation template for a production service. What workflow best reduces the risk of deploying hallucinated properties, excessive permissions, or destructive replacements?

60 A CloudFormation deployment fails with an AccessDenied event involving a deployment role. An engineer asks Amazon Q Developer to troubleshoot it. Which expectation correctly preserves operational control?