Unit 1 - Practice Quiz

INT364 50 Questions
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1 Which component of the AWS Global Infrastructure consists of one or more discrete data centers with redundant power, networking, and connectivity?

A. AWS Region
B. Availability Zone
C. Local Zone
D. Edge Location

2 Which factor should primarily be considered when choosing an AWS Region to reduce latency for end-users?

A. Proximity to the end-users
B. Compliance requirements
C. Number of Availability Zones
D. Cost of services

3 What is the primary function of AWS Edge Locations?

A. To provide low-latency content delivery via CloudFront
B. To host EC2 instances
C. To store cold data archives
D. To manage IAM policies

4 Which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework focuses on the ability to run and monitor systems to deliver business value and to continually improve processes and procedures?

A. Operational Excellence
B. Reliability
C. Performance Efficiency
D. Security

5 Which design principle is recommended by the AWS Well-Architected Framework regarding capacity planning?

A. Guess capacity needs based on averages
B. Stop guessing capacity needs
C. Manually adjust capacity once a month
D. Always over-provision to ensure performance

6 In the Shared Responsibility Model, which of the following is the customer's responsibility?

A. Patching the underlying host infrastructure
B. Physical security of data centers
C. Client-side data encryption
D. decommissioning storage devices

7 What is the primary purpose of AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)?

A. To securely control access to AWS services and resources
B. To manage DNS records
C. To monitor network traffic
D. To deploy applications

8 Which IAM entity represents a person or service that interacts with AWS?

A. IAM User
B. IAM Policy
C. IAM Group
D. IAM Role

9 What is the recommended best practice for the AWS account root user?

A. Create access keys for the root user for API access
B. Share the password with the development team
C. Use it for daily administrative tasks
D. Enable Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) and lock away credentials

10 Which IAM feature allows you to associate permissions with a collection of users?

A. Access Key
B. IAM Group
C. IAM Role
D. IAM Policy

11 What format are IAM policies written in?

A. HTML
B. XML
C. YAML
D. JSON

12 Which principle suggests granting only the permissions required to perform a task?

A. Principle of Least Privilege
B. Principle of Root Access
C. Principle of Maximum Authority
D. Principle of Shared Responsibility

13 An IAM Role is best described as:

A. A group of users with shared permissions
B. An identity with permission policies that can be assumed by a user or service
C. A document defining password policies
D. A permanent identity with long-term credentials

14 What is the default effect of an IAM policy if no Allow or Deny is explicitly stated?

A. Conditional Allow
B. Implicit Deny
C. Explicit Deny
D. Implicit Allow

15 Which AWS service enables you to manage access across multiple AWS accounts centrally?

A. AWS Config
B. Amazon CloudWatch
C. AWS Organizations
D. Amazon Inspector

16 What mechanism allows users from an external identity provider (IdP) like Active Directory to access AWS resources without creating IAM users?

A. Identity Federation
B. Access Keys
C. MFA
D. IAM Groups

17 Which industry standard is commonly used for federating users into AWS?

A. HTTP
B. SAML 2.0
C. FTP
D. HTML5

18 To allow an application running on an EC2 instance to access an S3 bucket securely, what should you configure?

A. Embed Access Keys in the application code
B. Make the S3 bucket public
C. Create a new IAM User for the instance
D. Attach an IAM Role to the EC2 instance

19 Which API call is used to obtain temporary security credentials when assuming a role?

A. sts:GetSessionToken
B. iam:GetRole
C. iam:CreateUser
D. sts:AssumeRole

20 What is the primary service used for creating and managing cryptographic keys in AWS?

A. AWS Secrets Manager
B. AWS Key Management Service (KMS)
C. Amazon Macie
D. AWS Shield

21 Which type of encryption protects data while it is stored on a disk?

A. End-to-End Encryption
B. SSL/TLS
C. Encryption at Rest
D. Encryption in Transit

22 What does Server-Side Encryption (SSE) on Amazon S3 imply?

A. AWS encrypts the data after it is received and before saving it to disk
B. AWS stores the encryption keys on the user's computer
C. The user encrypts data before uploading
D. The data is encrypted during transfer over the internet only

23 Which AWS service protects against Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks?

A. AWS WAF
B. Amazon Inspector
C. AWS Artifact
D. AWS Shield

24 Which service helps protect your web applications from common web exploits like SQL injection and cross-site scripting?

A. AWS Firewall Manager
B. AWS WAF
C. AWS Shield
D. Amazon GuardDuty

25 Amazon GuardDuty is best described as:

A. A firewall for EC2 instances
B. A compliance reporting tool
C. An intelligent threat detection service
D. An automated vulnerability assessment service

26 Which service automatically discovers, classifies, and protects sensitive data (like PII) in AWS?

A. Amazon Macie
B. Amazon Inspector
C. AWS Secrets Manager
D. AWS Config

27 Which service is used to assess applications for exposure, vulnerabilities, and deviations from best practices?

A. Amazon Inspector
B. AWS Trusted Advisor
C. AWS WAF
D. AWS Shield

28 What does the 'Sustainability' pillar of the Well-Architected Framework focus on?

A. Reducing cost
B. Ensuring high availability
C. Managing access controls
D. Minimizing the environmental impacts of running cloud workloads

29 Which AWS service records API calls for your account and delivers log files to you?

A. AWS CloudTrail
B. AWS X-Ray
C. Amazon CloudWatch
D. AWS Config

30 In IAM, what is the 'PowerUserAccess' managed policy?

A. Read-only access to all services
B. Full access to all services excluding IAM management
C. Full access to all services including IAM
D. Access to billing information only

31 What feature allows you to grant cross-account access to S3 resources explicitly within the S3 service?

A. NACLs
B. Bucket Policies
C. Security Groups
D. Service Control Policies

32 Which cryptographic method uses a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption?

A. Symmetric encryption
B. Asymmetric encryption
C. Hashing
D. Obfuscation

33 What is 'Envelope Encryption'?

A. Wrapping a physical hard drive in a secure envelope
B. Encrypting the email used to send keys
C. Encrypting data only at the network edge
D. Encrypting plaintext data with a data key, then encrypting the data key with a master key

34 Which AWS feature can be used to ensure that EBS volumes created by users are always encrypted?

A. IAM Roles
B. AWS Config Rules
C. EBS Snapshots
D. VPC Flow Logs

35 When designing for failure in the Cloud, what is a key concept?

A. Single point of failure
B. Decoupling components
C. Vertical scaling only
D. Tightly coupled components

36 What is the purpose of Service Control Policies (SCPs) in AWS Organizations?

A. To grant permissions to IAM users
B. To configure firewall rules
C. To manage encryption keys
D. To define the maximum available permissions for member accounts

37 Which credential is required for programmatic access to AWS via the CLI?

A. Access Key ID and Secret Access Key
B. User Name and Password
C. SSH Key Pair
D. MFA Token only

38 What is the function of AWS Secrets Manager?

A. To rotate, manage, and retrieve database credentials and API keys
B. To firewall web applications
C. To store IAM user passwords
D. To encrypt EBS volumes

39 Which pillar of the Well-Architected Framework focuses on the ability to prevent financial loss?

A. Cost Optimization
B. Reliability
C. Performance Efficiency
D. Security

40 Which security service provides on-demand access to AWS compliance reports (e.g., SOC, PCI)?

A. AWS Artifact
B. AWS Shield
C. Amazon Inspector
D. AWS Config

41 In IAM, what is the 'Principal' in a policy statement?

A. The entity (user/role) allowed or denied access
B. The action being performed
C. The resource being accessed
D. The condition under which access is granted

42 What is the difference between a Security Group and a Network ACL (NACL)?

A. Security Groups are stateless; NACLs are stateful
B. There is no difference
C. Security Groups act at the subnet level; NACLs act at the instance level
D. Security Groups are stateful; NACLs are stateless

43 Which AWS service allows you to manage encryption keys in a dedicated, single-tenant hardware security module (HSM)?

A. AWS KMS
B. AWS Secrets Manager
C. AWS CloudHSM
D. Amazon S3

44 How often should IAM Access Keys be rotated according to best practices?

A. Regularly
B. Once every 10 years
C. Never
D. Only when a breach occurs

45 Which IAM tool helps you identify unused credentials and excessive permissions?

A. AWS CloudFormation
B. IAM Credential Report / Access Analyzer
C. Route 53
D. AWS Cost Explorer

46 If an explicit Deny and an explicit Allow exist for the same request, which one takes precedence?

A. Explicit Allow
B. The most recent policy
C. The policy with the most permissions
D. Explicit Deny

47 Which is a valid use case for Web Identity Federation?

A. Connecting an on-premise data center to VPC
B. Managing EC2 instances
C. Encrypting S3 buckets
D. Authenticating users via Google or Facebook to access AWS resources

48 What is the 'Condition' element in an IAM JSON policy used for?

A. To specify circumstances under which the policy grants permission
B. To define who can access the resource
C. To list the allowed actions
D. To specify the resource ARN

49 Which service acts as a threat detection service that continuously monitors for malicious activity and unauthorized behavior to protect your AWS accounts and workloads?

A. Amazon GuardDuty
B. Amazon Macie
C. AWS WAF
D. AWS Shield

50 What type of scaling is described as adding more power (CPU, RAM) to an existing machine?

A. Diagonal Scaling
B. Horizontal Scaling
C. Vertical Scaling
D. Auto Scaling