Unit 4 - Practice Quiz

CSE121

1 What is the primary goal of DevOps in an organization?

A. To separate the development team from the operations team entirely
B. To increase the gap between software coding and deployment
C. To bridge the gap between development and operations for faster delivery
D. To rely solely on manual testing for software release

2 How does DevOps differ significantly from the traditional Waterfall model?

A. DevOps follows a linear, sequential approach while Waterfall is iterative
B. Waterfall allows for continuous feedback, whereas DevOps does not
C. DevOps promotes continuous integration and deployment, while Waterfall releases software at the end of a long cycle
D. There is no difference; they are different names for the same process

3 Which of the following tools is primarily used for Version Control in a DevOps environment?

A. Docker
B. Git
C. Nagios
D. Selenium

4 What is the core function of Docker?

A. To compile Java code
B. To automate UI testing
C. To create, deploy, and run applications by using containers
D. To monitor network traffic

5 Which tool is widely used for automating web browsers for testing purposes?

A. Ansible
B. Puppet
C. Selenium
D. Kubernetes

6 In the context of Java projects, what is Maven used for?

A. Container Orchestration
B. Build Automation and Dependency Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Continuous Monitoring

7 Which of the following is an agentless configuration management tool?

A. Puppet
B. Ansible
C. Chef
D. Nagios

8 What is the primary role of Kubernetes?

A. Source Code Management
B. Container Orchestration
C. Artifact Storage
D. Defect Tracking

9 Which tool is primarily associated with Continuous Monitoring of infrastructure and networks?

A. Git
B. Maven
C. Nagios
D. Jenkins

10 In the DevOps Life Cycle, which phase involves checking the code for bugs and errors?

A. Plan
B. Deploy
C. Test
D. Monitor

11 What does CI stand for in the context of CI/CD?

A. Continuous Information
B. Continuous Integration
C. Code Inspection
D. Customer Interaction

12 What is the main objective of Continuous Deployment?

A. To manually review every line of code
B. To deploy code to production automatically after passing automated tests
C. To stop development to fix all bugs
D. To create documentation for the software

13 Which of the following best describes Infrastructure as Code (IaC)?

A. Managing infrastructure using physical hardware
B. Managing and provisioning infrastructure through code and automation files
C. Writing code to build physical servers
D. Documentation of hardware inventory

14 What is the primary definition of Software Testing?

A. The process of writing code for an application
B. The process of evaluating a system to verify that it satisfies specified requirements
C. The process of marketing a software product
D. The process of deploying software to a server

15 Which of the following is a primary objective of software testing?

A. To prove that the software has no bugs
B. To punish developers for making mistakes
C. To identify defects and ensure quality
D. To increase the cost of the project

16 Verification in software testing answers which question?

A. Are we building the right product?
B. Are we building the product right?
C. Is the product profitable?
D. Will the user like the design?

17 Which level of testing is performed on individual components or modules of the software?

A. System Testing
B. Integration Testing
C. Unit Testing
D. Acceptance Testing

18 What is the purpose of Integration Testing?

A. To test the user interface only
B. To verify the interactions between different modules/components
C. To test the system as a whole against requirements
D. To check the code syntax

19 Alpha Testing and Beta Testing are forms of:

A. Unit Testing
B. Integration Testing
C. Acceptance Testing
D. Regression Testing

20 Which type of testing does NOT require knowledge of the internal code structure?

A. White Box Testing
B. Glass Box Testing
C. Black Box Testing
D. Structural Testing

21 White Box Testing involves:

A. Testing functionality based on requirements only
B. Testing the internal logic and code structure of the application
C. Testing by end-users
D. Testing without looking at the code

22 What is Regression Testing?

A. Testing a new feature for the first time
B. Re-running tests to ensure code changes haven't broken existing functionality
C. Testing the system under extreme load
D. Testing the installation process

23 Which of the following is an example of Non-Functional Testing?

A. Login functionality test
B. Calculation accuracy test
C. Performance/Load testing
D. Database transaction test

24 What is a major advantage of Automation Testing over Manual Testing?

A. It is cheaper for short-term projects
B. It allows for human observation of usability
C. It allows for faster execution and reusability of scripts
D. It requires no programming knowledge

25 When is Manual Testing preferred over Automation Testing?

A. For Load and Stress testing
B. For Regression testing executed daily
C. For Exploratory, Usability, and Ad-hoc testing
D. For complex calculation verification with large datasets

26 In Test Case Design, what is Boundary Value Analysis?

A. Testing random values within a range
B. Testing only the center value of a range
C. Testing the values at the extreme ends (boundaries) of input ranges
D. Testing values that are definitely invalid

27 Consider an input field taking integers . Which values represent valid Equivalence Partitioning classes?

A. Any value between 10 and 20
B. Values 9 and 21 only
C. Values 10 and 20 only
D. Values less than 0

28 A Test Case generally consists of:

A. Only the code to be tested
B. Test Case ID, Test Steps, Test Data, Expected Result, and Actual Result
C. Developer's name and salary
D. Project budget details

29 In the Defect Life Cycle, what is the status of a bug when a developer has fixed it and pushed the code?

A. New
B. Open
C. Fixed
D. Closed

30 If a tester verifies a fix and finds the bug still exists, what status is assigned?

A. Closed
B. Deferred
C. Reopened
D. Verified

31 What is the difference between Severity and Priority in defect tracking?

A. Severity is about business impact; Priority is about technical complexity
B. Severity is the technical impact on the system; Priority is the urgency to fix it
C. They are the same thing
D. Severity is determined by managers; Priority by developers

32 What is Smoke Testing?

A. Testing the hardware for overheating
B. Deep testing of a specific module
C. A preliminary test to reveal simple failures severe enough to reject a release
D. Testing done right before retirement of software

33 Which of the following is a Configuration Management tool that uses a Master-Slave architecture?

A. Git
B. Puppet
C. Docker
D. Maven

34 What does the term 'Shift Left' mean in DevOps and Testing?

A. Moving the code to the left side of the screen
B. Delaying testing until the very end of the project
C. Integrating testing and quality assurance earlier in the development lifecycle
D. Assigning all work to the developer on the left

35 Which career role involves writing code to automate test cases?

A. Manual Tester
B. Product Owner
C. SDET (Software Development Engineer in Test)
D. Scrum Master

36 Which skill is least critical for a junior Manual Tester?

A. Attention to detail
B. Understanding requirements
C. Writing complex CI/CD pipelines in Jenkins
D. Reporting bugs clearly

37 In a DevOps environment, what is a Build Artifact?

A. A bug report
B. A compiled file (like .jar, .war, .exe) ready for deployment
C. A meeting minute document
D. A user manual

38 What is the primary function of Jenkins?

A. Code editing
B. Automation Server for CI/CD
C. Database Management
D. Graphic Design

39 If a test case input requires a 4-digit PIN, which input is a Negative Test Case?

A. 1234
B. 9999
C. ABC
D. 0000

40 Which document is created by the Test Lead/Manager to describe the scope, approach, and schedule of testing activities?

A. Test Policy
B. Test Strategy
C. Test Plan
D. Test Case

41 In the defect life cycle, what does 'Deferred' mean?

A. The bug is fixed immediately
B. The bug is rejected as not a bug
C. The fix for the bug is postponed to a future release
D. The bug is critical and stops development

42 What is Sanity Testing?

A. Testing the mental state of the developer
B. A subset of regression testing to verify that a specific code change works as expected
C. Testing the entire system from scratch
D. Testing performed by the customer

43 Which of the following is an application of Software Testing in IT companies?

A. Reducing the hardware cost
B. Ensuring customer satisfaction and reliability
C. Replacing developers
D. Increasing the time to market

44 Which command is used in Git to save changes to the local repository?

A. git pull
B. git commit
C. git clone
D. git status

45 What is a 'pod' in Kubernetes?

A. A storage volume
B. The smallest deployable unit used to run containers
C. A node in the cluster
D. A network rule

46 Which skillset is essential for a DevOps Engineer?

A. Graphic design and Photoshop
B. Scripting (Python/Bash), Cloud knowledge, and CI/CD tools
C. Accounting and Finance
D. Hardware soldering

47 During Test Case Design, what is the 'Expected Result' derived from?

A. The code written by the developer
B. The requirements specification document
C. The tester's intuition
D. The previous version of the software

48 Static Testing differs from Dynamic Testing because:

A. Static testing involves code execution
B. Static testing involves reviewing documents and code without execution
C. Dynamic testing is done on paper
D. There is no difference

49 Which testing type validates that the software can handle high traffic volume?

A. Unit Testing
B. Security Testing
C. Load Testing
D. Compatibility Testing

50 Why is collaboration emphasized in DevOps culture?

A. To allow everyone to do whatever they want
B. To break down silos between Dev and Ops to improve efficiency
C. To increase the number of meetings
D. To slow down the release process