Unit 4: Network layer - Practice Quiz

CAP7001 — Data Communication And Networking 60 Questions
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1 Which IPv4 address class has a first-octet range from 1 to 126?

Classful addressing Easy
A. Class A
B. Class D
C. Class C
D. Class B

2 What is the default subnet mask of a Class C network?

Classful addressing Easy
A. 255.0.0.0
B. 255.255.255.255, which identifies one specific host rather than a Class C network
C. 255.255.0.0
D. 255.255.255.0

3 Which statement correctly describes a private IPv4 address?

Public and private addresses Easy
A. It must be assigned by an ISP
B. It is not globally routable
C. It is used only by routers
D. It identifies every Internet host

4 Which address belongs to a private IPv4 address range?

Public and private addresses Easy
A. 192.168.1.10
B. 172.40.1.1
C. 200.10.10.1
D. 8.8.8.8

5 What is the primary function of NAT?

Network address translation (NAT) Easy
A. Translate IP addresses
B. Select wireless channels automatically for all nearby network devices
C. Assign MAC addresses
D. Encrypt network packets

6 Which is a common benefit of using NAT?

Network address translation (NAT) Easy
A. It guarantees delivery of every packet
B. It increases the Ethernet frame size
C. It replaces all routing protocols
D. It conserves public IPv4 addresses

7 How is a static route usually added to a router?

Static routing Easy
A. By a DHCP client
B. By receiving detailed topology updates from every router in the network
C. By manual configuration
D. By automatic discovery

8 For which type of network is static routing generally most suitable?

Static routing Easy
A. A global mobile network
B. A small stable network
C. A large changing network
D. A network with frequent path failures

9 What do dynamic routing protocols allow routers to do?

Dynamic routing Easy
A. Assign a permanent IP address manually to every connected host
B. Translate private addresses
C. Learn routes automatically
D. Create Ethernet addresses

10 What is a key advantage of dynamic routing over static routing?

Dynamic routing Easy
A. It prevents all routing loops
B. It removes the need for IP addressing
C. It adapts to network changes
D. It requires no router resources

11 What information does a distance vector router commonly share with neighboring routers?

Distance vector routing Easy
A. Its encryption keys
B. Its application files
C. Its complete database of every physical cable and device in the network
D. Its routing table

12 In distance vector routing, what does the term "distance" represent?

Distance vector routing Easy
A. A port number
B. A route metric
C. A MAC address
D. A packet payload

13 Which metric does RIP use to select routes?

RIP Easy
A. The total number of hosts configured throughout the destination network
B. Hop count
C. Propagation delay
D. Link bandwidth

14 What is the maximum usable hop count in RIP?

RIP Easy
A. 16 hops
B. 8 hops
C. 15 hops
D. 255 hops

15 What does a link state router build to calculate routes?

Link state routing Easy
A. A translation table
B. A table containing only the MAC addresses of directly connected end devices
C. A topology map
D. A host application list

16 Which algorithm is commonly associated with link state routing?

Link state routing Easy
A. Dijkstra's algorithm
B. Bellman-Ford algorithm
C. Binary search algorithm
D. Round-robin algorithm

17 What type of routing protocol is OSPF?

OSPF Easy
A. A protocol that translates private addresses into public addresses at the network boundary
B. Link state
C. Path vector
D. Distance vector

18 Which metric does OSPF use when selecting a route?

OSPF Easy
A. Port number
B. Hop count
C. Cost
D. Packet size

19 Which IPv4 prefix represents the default route?

Default routing Easy
A. 127.0.0.0/8
B. 169.254.0.0/16
C. 0.0.0.0/0
D. 255.255.255.255/32, which represents the limited broadcast address for the local network

20 When does a router normally use its default route?

Default routing Easy
A. When a host requests a private address
B. When the destination is on the local link
C. When the router receives an Ethernet broadcast
D. When no more specific route matches

21 A host has the classful IPv4 address 172.18.45.9. Without subnetting, which part identifies its network?

Classful addressing Medium
A. 172.18.45.0
B. 172.0.0.0
C. 172.18.45.9
D. 172.18.0.0

22 An organization is assigned the Class C network 200.10.8.0. How many usable host addresses are available if the default classful mask is used?

Classful addressing Medium
A. 65,534
B. 256
C. 254
D. 510

23 Which host can use its assigned address on a private LAN without requiring the address to be globally unique on the Internet?

Public and private addresses Medium
A. A host using 10.24.8.7
B. A host using 150.20.4.9
C. A host using 200.1.1.10
D. A host using 8.8.8.8

24 A company assigns 172.31.250.4 to an internal server. Which statement correctly describes this address?

Public and private addresses Medium
A. It belongs to a public Class B range
B. It belongs to a private IPv4 range
C. It is a limited broadcast address
D. It is an IPv4 loopback address

25 Three internal hosts simultaneously access the same web server through one public IPv4 address. How does Port Address Translation keep their sessions distinct?

Network address translation (NAT) Medium
A. It assigns different source port mappings
B. It changes each server port to 80
C. It creates a separate routing protocol
D. It assigns different destination IP addresses

26 An internal web server at 192.168.1.20 must always be reachable through public address 203.0.113.20. Which NAT configuration best fits this requirement?

Network address translation (NAT) Medium
A. A dynamic NAT address pool
B. A default route without translation
C. A static one-to-one NAT mapping
D. PAT using random source ports

27 Router R1 reaches network 192.168.40.0/24 through neighboring router 10.0.0.2. Which static route is appropriate on R1?

Static routing Medium
A. ip route 10.0.0.2 255.255.255.0 192.168.40.0
B. ip route 192.168.40.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.40.1
C. ip route 192.168.40.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.2
D. ip route 192.168.40.0 255.255.0.0 10.0.0.2

28 A backup static route is configured with a higher administrative distance than the primary route. When will the backup route enter the routing table?

Static routing Medium
A. When the primary route becomes unavailable
B. When periodic updates are received
C. When its hop count becomes smaller
D. When the destination sends a request

29 A network frequently adds links and experiences occasional failures. What is the main operational advantage of dynamic routing over only static routing?

Dynamic routing Medium
A. Packets no longer require destination addresses
B. Routes can adapt automatically to topology changes
C. Every path always uses the fewest hops
D. Routers stop maintaining routing tables

30 A router learns the same destination from two routing protocols. What value is generally compared first to choose between routes learned from different protocol sources?

Dynamic routing Medium
A. IP header checksum
B. Administrative distance
C. Destination MAC address
D. Transport-layer port

31 After a link failure, neighboring routers repeatedly advertise increasing metrics for an unreachable network. Which distance vector problem is occurring?

Distance vector routing Medium
A. The designated-router election
B. The shortest-path-first calculation
C. The area summarization process
D. The count-to-infinity problem

32 Router A learned a route to network N from Router B. Under split horizon, what should Router A do when sending an update back to Router B?

Distance vector routing Medium
A. Advertise the route with metric zero
B. Flood the route through every interface
C. Omit the learned route from that update
D. Replace the route with a default route

33 RIP learns two routes to the same destination: one with 3 hops over a slow link and one with 5 hops over a fast link. Which route does RIP normally select?

RIP Medium
A. Neither route because both exceed the limit
B. The route with 5 hops
C. Both routes based on bandwidth
D. The route with 3 hops

34 A destination is reported with a hop count of 16 in RIP. How does a RIP router interpret that destination?

RIP Medium
A. It is directly connected
B. It is unreachable
C. It requires a default route
D. It is 16 routers away

35 After receiving updated link-state information, what does a link-state router do to determine its preferred routes?

Link state routing Medium
A. Copies the complete routing table of one neighbor
B. Requests a static route from the destination host
C. Runs a shortest-path algorithm on its topology database
D. Counts only the routers along each available path

36 Why must routers in the same link-state area maintain synchronized link-state databases?

Link state routing Medium
A. To assign identical IP addresses to interfaces
B. To forward every packet along identical links
C. To calculate routes from a consistent topology map
D. To eliminate the need for routing metrics

37 An OSPF router can reach a network through Path X with costs 10, 5, and 20, or Path Y with costs 15 and 15. Which path is selected?

OSPF Medium
A. Path X with total cost 35
B. Path X because it has more links
C. Path Y with total cost 30
D. Path Y because it has fewer routers

38 A multiarea OSPF design contains areas 0, 1, and 2. What is the primary role of area 0?

OSPF Medium
A. It stores only external default routes
B. It provides NAT for other areas
C. It replaces all designated routers
D. It acts as the OSPF backbone area

39 A router has routes for 10.1.0.0/16, 10.1.2.0/24, and 0.0.0.0/0. Which route is used for a packet addressed to 10.1.2.50?

Default routing Medium
A. 10.1.2.0/24
B. 0.0.0.0/0
C. No route is selected
D. 10.1.0.0/16

40 A branch router has one WAN connection to headquarters and several directly connected LANs. Why is a default route suitable for unknown remote destinations?

Default routing Medium
A. The router no longer examines destination addresses
B. The WAN automatically receives a private address
C. All unknown traffic can use the single WAN next hop
D. All remote networks become directly connected

41 A router using strictly classful addressing receives a packet destined for 126.200.3.4. Which network address, directed broadcast address, and maximum usable host count apply?

Classful addressing Hard
A. 126.128.0.0, 126.255.255.255, and hosts
B. 126.0.0.0, 126.255.255.255, and hosts
C. 126.200.3.0, 126.200.3.255, and hosts
D. 126.200.0.0, 126.200.255.255, and hosts

42 Assuming the only exclusions being tested are the RFC 1918 private ranges, which address is eligible to be globally routed as a public unicast address?

Public and private addresses Hard
A. 172.31.255.254
B. 10.255.255.254
C. 172.32.0.1
D. 192.168.0.1

43 A NAT device has a pool of eight public IPv4 addresses and uses only dynamic one-to-one NAT, without port translation. If every active internal host requires simultaneous Internet access, what is the maximum number of internal hosts that can be represented concurrently?

Network address translation (NAT) Hard
A. 65,534 hosts
B. 16 hosts
C. 8 hosts
D. 254 hosts

44 Two internal hosts simultaneously send TCP connections using the same source port to the same external server and destination port. Under PAT, how can the NAT device keep both flows distinct while using one public IPv4 address?

Network address translation (NAT) Hard
A. It assigns different destination server ports
B. It changes one connection to use UDP
C. It preserves both identical tuples and distinguishes the sessions by examining application payloads in every packet
D. It assigns different translated source ports

45 An IPv4 TCP packet is fragmented before reaching a NAT device. Only the first fragment contains the TCP header. What capability is needed for the NAT device to translate the later fragments consistently?

Network address translation (NAT) Hard
A. A separate public address for every received IP fragment
B. A rule that translates only the first fragment and forwards all later fragments without modifying their destination or source addresses
C. A routing update carrying the original TCP source port
D. A fragment-association cache keyed by IP fragmentation fields

46 A router contains ip route 203.0.113.0/24 192.0.2.9 and ip route 192.0.2.0/24 Serial0. Assuming both routes are active, how is a packet for 203.0.113.25 forwarded?

Static routing Hard
A. It is dropped because the first route lacks an exit interface
B. It is sent through Serial0 after recursive next-hop resolution
C. It is sent directly to 203.0.113.25 through Serial0
D. It is broadcast to discover which interface owns 203.0.113.0/24

47 A router learns 198.51.100.0/24 through OSPF with administrative distance 110. Which static route acts as a floating backup and becomes active only after the OSPF route disappears?

Static routing Hard
A. A static route with administrative distance 1
B. A static route with administrative distance 90
C. A static route with administrative distance 200
D. A static route with administrative distance 110

48 For the same destination prefix, a router has a static route with administrative distance 1, an OSPF route with distance 110, and a RIP route with distance 120. The RIP route has the numerically smallest protocol metric. Which route is installed?

Dynamic routing Hard
A. The RIP route
B. All routes are installed because metrics from unrelated routing protocols can be compared directly to form an equal-cost set
C. The OSPF route
D. The static route

49 Why can poison reverse fail to eliminate every routing loop in a distance-vector network containing three or more routers?

Distance vector routing Hard
A. It prevents simple two-router loops but not every multi-router loop
B. It requires all links to have identical routing metrics
C. It applies only to directly connected destination networks
D. It prevents a router from advertising any unreachable destination, so distant routers must reconstruct complete topology maps independently

50 Router X has link cost 4 to A and link cost 1 to B. A advertises distance 3 to destination D, while B advertises distance 7. After applying the Bellman-Ford rule, which route does X choose?

Distance vector routing Hard
A. Via B with total cost 7
B. Via A with total cost 4
C. Via A with total cost 7
D. Via B with total cost 8

51 A RIP router receives an advertisement reporting metric 15 for a destination from a directly connected neighbor. What metric does the receiving router assign to the candidate route?

RIP Hard
A. 15, because received metrics are installed unchanged
B. 14, because one hop is removed during processing
C. 255, because RIP uses 255 as its infinity value
D. 16, so the candidate route is unreachable

52 Two sites use subnets 10.1.0.0/16 and 10.2.0.0/16, separated by a transit network from another classful major network. Why can RIPv1 cause reachability problems in this discontiguous design?

RIP Hard
A. It rejects networks whose first octet is less than 128
B. It advertises both sites as the classful network 10.0.0.0
C. It treats the transit network as a directly connected RIP neighbor
D. It converts both /16 routes into host routes automatically

53 A RIP router currently reaches network N through R1 at metric 2. It then receives an advertisement of metric 10 from R1 and metric 5 from R2. Assuming one hop is added to each received metric, what route should ultimately be preferred?

RIP Hard
A. R2 with metric 5
B. R2 with metric 6
C. R1 with metric 2
D. R1 with metric 11

54 After a temporary partition, a router receives an old link-state advertisement and a newer advertisement for the same origin. Which mechanism primarily prevents the old information from replacing the newer topology state?

Link state routing Hard
A. Administrative distances assigned to neighboring routers
B. Port numbers derived from the originating routing process
C. Sequence numbers associated with link-state advertisements
D. Hop counts carried in periodic distance vectors

55 A link-state router A has links A-B of cost 2 and A-C of cost 5. Additional links are B-C of cost 1, B-D of cost 7, and C-D of cost 3. What shortest-path cost does Dijkstra's algorithm compute from A to D?

Link state routing Hard
A. 9
B. 7
C. 5
D. 6

56 On an OSPF broadcast network, routers R1 and R2 are already DR and BDR. R3 then joins with a higher interface priority than both. No failures occur. What is the immediate election result?

OSPF Hard
A. R3 becomes DR and R2 remains BDR
B. R3 becomes BDR while R1 remains DR
C. R1 remains DR and R2 remains BDR
D. R3 becomes DR and R1 becomes BDR

57 With the traditional OSPF reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps and integer interface costs, what problem occurs when both 1 Gbps and 10 Gbps links use default cost calculation?

OSPF Hard
A. The 1 Gbps link receives a lower cost
B. Both links normally receive cost 1
C. The 10 Gbps link becomes ineligible for SPF
D. Both links normally receive cost 10

58 An OSPF router learns the same prefix as an intra-area route with cost 50 and as an external route with a seemingly lower calculated cost of 10. Which route type is preferred?

OSPF Hard
A. Both as equal-cost routes
B. The intra-area route
C. The external route
D. Whichever route has the newer LSA

59 A routing table contains 0.0.0.0/0 via A, 192.0.0.0/16 via B, and 192.0.2.0/24 via C. Through which next hop is a packet for 192.0.2.200 forwarded?

Default routing Hard
A. Next hop B
B. All three next hops
C. Next hop C
D. Next hop A

60 A router learns 0.0.0.0/0 from OSPF with administrative distance 110, from RIP with distance 120, and from a floating static route with distance 200. Assuming all are otherwise valid, which default route is installed?

Default routing Hard
A. The floating static default route
B. All three default routes
C. The RIP default route
D. The OSPF default route