Melatonin enhances tolerance to abiotic stresses such as drought, salinity, cold, and heat by scavenging reactive oxygen species.
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11What does RFLP stand for?
RFLP
Easy
A.Restriction Fragment Ligation Product
B.Repeated Fragment Length Pattern
C.Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism
D.Random Fragment Linkage Polymorphism
Correct Answer: Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism
Explanation:
RFLP means Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism, based on variation in DNA fragment sizes after restriction enzyme digestion.
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12RFLP analysis relies mainly on the use of which enzymes to cut DNA?
RFLP
Easy
A.DNA polymerases
B.Helicases
C.Ligases
D.Restriction endonucleases
Correct Answer: Restriction endonucleases
Explanation:
RFLP uses restriction endonucleases to cut DNA at specific sites, producing fragments of differing lengths.
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13RAPD markers are generated using PCR with which type of primers?
RAPD
Easy
A.Short random primers
B.Fluorescent probes only
C.Restriction enzymes
D.Long sequence-specific primers
Correct Answer: Short random primers
Explanation:
RAPD (Random Amplified Polymorphic DNA) uses short arbitrary (random) primers to amplify random DNA segments.
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14A major limitation of RAPD markers is that they are:
RAPD
Easy
A.Based only on RNA
B.Unable to use PCR
C.Dominant and less reproducible
D.Codominant and highly reproducible
Correct Answer: Dominant and less reproducible
Explanation:
RAPD markers are dominant (cannot distinguish heterozygotes) and often show low reproducibility due to random primers.
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15SSR markers are also commonly known as:
SSR/ISSR
Easy
A.Telomeres
B.Centromeres
C.Minisatellites only
D.Microsatellites
Correct Answer: Microsatellites
Explanation:
SSR (Simple Sequence Repeats) are known as microsatellites, which are short tandemly repeated DNA sequences.
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16What does the abbreviation ISSR stand for?
SSR/ISSR
Easy
A.Isolated Short Sequence Repeat
B.Inverted Simple Sequence Reader
C.Internal Single Sequence Region
D.Inter-Simple Sequence Repeat
Correct Answer: Inter-Simple Sequence Repeat
Explanation:
ISSR stands for Inter-Simple Sequence Repeat, which amplifies regions between two microsatellites.
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17AFLP technique combines which two key steps?
AFLP
Easy
A.Only random priming
B.Restriction digestion and selective PCR amplification
C.Sequencing and cloning only
D.Only ligation and staining
Correct Answer: Restriction digestion and selective PCR amplification
Explanation:
AFLP (Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism) combines restriction enzyme digestion with selective PCR amplification of fragments.
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18SCAR markers are usually developed from which type of markers?
SCAR
Easy
A.RFLP blots only
B.RAPD markers
C.Protein markers
D.Isozyme markers
Correct Answer: RAPD markers
Explanation:
SCAR (Sequence Characterized Amplified Region) markers are developed by sequencing and converting RAPD bands into specific primers.
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19Molecular markers are widely used in tissue culture to detect:
applications of molecular markers in plant biotechnology and tissue culture
Easy
A.The color of the culture medium
B.Somaclonal variation and genetic fidelity
C.The temperature of the incubator
D.The pH of agar only
Correct Answer: Somaclonal variation and genetic fidelity
Explanation:
Markers help assess genetic fidelity of micropropagated plants and detect somaclonal variation among regenerants.
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20In plant breeding, molecular markers are commonly used for:
applications of molecular markers in plant biotechnology and tissue culture
Easy
A.Watering the crops
B.Measuring soil color
C.Marker-assisted selection (MAS)
D.Spraying pesticides
Correct Answer: Marker-assisted selection (MAS)
Explanation:
Marker-assisted selection (MAS) uses molecular markers linked to desirable traits to speed up and improve breeding programs.
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21A researcher excises a longitudinal strip from a tobacco stem containing only the epidermal and a few sub-epidermal cell layers. This preparation is most accurately described as which type of explant?
TCL explants are classified by cutting orientation. A longitudinal strip taken parallel to the axis containing epidermal/sub-epidermal layers is a longitudinal TCL (lTCL), whereas a thin cross-section is a transverse TCL (tTCL).
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22Why does thin cell layer (TCL) technology generally give higher morphogenic efficiency than conventional large explants?
thin cell layer technology (TCL)
Medium
A.TCL explants avoid the need for any plant growth regulators
B.Thicker explants prevent contamination better
C.The reduced number of cell layers minimizes internal gradients so cells respond more uniformly to exogenous growth regulators and nutrients
D.The larger tissue mass stores more endogenous auxin
Correct Answer: The reduced number of cell layers minimizes internal gradients so cells respond more uniformly to exogenous growth regulators and nutrients
Explanation:
With very few cell layers, diffusion gradients of hormones, gases and nutrients are minimal, so nearly all cells receive similar signals and respond synchronously, boosting regeneration efficiency.
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23In a TCL system, the developmental pathway (root, shoot, flower or callus) that the explant follows is primarily controlled by which factor?
thin cell layer technology (TCL)
Medium
A.The genus of the agar supplier
B.The colour of the culture vessel
C.The ratio and concentration of plant growth regulators in the medium
D.The presence of activated charcoal only
Correct Answer: The ratio and concentration of plant growth regulators in the medium
Explanation:
TCL explants are highly responsive; by adjusting the auxin-to-cytokinin balance the same thin layer can be directed toward roots, shoots, flowers, or callus, making TCL a powerful model for studying morphogenesis.
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24Silver nanoparticles (AgNPs) are increasingly used as surface sterilants in plant tissue culture instead of mercuric chloride mainly because they:
nanoparticles as sterilizing agent and media components
Medium
A.Provide broad antimicrobial action with lower phytotoxicity and reduced environmental hazard
B.Replace the need for a laminar air flow cabinet
C.Increase the sucrose content of the medium
D.Permanently mutate the explant genome for resistance
Correct Answer: Provide broad antimicrobial action with lower phytotoxicity and reduced environmental hazard
Explanation:
AgNPs release Ag⁺ ions that disrupt microbial membranes and enzymes across a broad spectrum, while being less toxic to plant tissue and less environmentally hazardous than HgCl₂.
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25The antimicrobial activity of silver nanoparticles is best attributed to which mechanism?
nanoparticles as sterilizing agent and media components
Medium
A.Release of Ag ions that damage microbial membrane proteins and generate reactive oxygen species
B.Lowering the osmotic potential of the agar
C.Physical blockage of stomata on the microbes
D.Chelation of sucrose in the medium
Correct Answer: Release of Ag ions that damage microbial membrane proteins and generate reactive oxygen species
Explanation:
AgNPs act as a reservoir of Ag; these ions bind thiol groups in membrane proteins, disrupt respiration, and trigger reactive oxygen species (ROS), killing bacteria and fungi.
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26When added at low concentrations as media components, nanoparticles such as ZnO or TiO can enhance in vitro growth mainly by:
nanoparticles as sterilizing agent and media components
Medium
A.Replacing agar as the gelling agent
B.Serving as the sole carbon source
C.Eliminating the requirement for light
D.Acting as micronutrient sources and modulating antioxidant and enzyme activity
Correct Answer: Acting as micronutrient sources and modulating antioxidant and enzyme activity
Explanation:
Metal-oxide nanoparticles can slowly release essential micronutrient ions (e.g., Zn) and influence antioxidant enzyme systems, promoting growth and morphogenesis at optimal low doses; high doses become toxic.
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27Meta-topolin is often preferred over the classical cytokinin BAP (6-benzylaminopurine) in micropropagation because it:
noble plant growth regulators (metatopolin, melatonin)
Medium
A.Functions primarily as an auxin rather than a cytokinin
B.Completely eliminates the need for any auxin in rooting
C.Reduces shoot-tip necrosis and hyperhydricity while improving rooting after transfer
D.Is a gaseous regulator applied only through the vessel headspace
Correct Answer: Reduces shoot-tip necrosis and hyperhydricity while improving rooting after transfer
Explanation:
Meta-topolin is an aromatic cytokinin whose hydroxylated side chain allows reversible O-glucosylation. This lowers physiological disorders such as shoot-tip necrosis and hyperhydricity and supports better subsequent rooting than BAP.
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28Chemically, meta-topolin belongs to which class of cytokinins?
noble plant growth regulators (metatopolin, melatonin)
Medium
Topolins are aromatic cytokinins bearing a hydroxyl group on the benzyl ring. Meta-topolin has the hydroxyl at the meta position, distinguishing it from isoprenoid cytokinins like zeatin.
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29Melatonin (N-acetyl-5-methoxytryptamine) added to culture media is valued mainly for which combined roles?
noble plant growth regulators (metatopolin, melatonin)
Medium
A.Functioning strictly as a herbicide
B.Acting as a potent antioxidant and modulating rooting and stress tolerance
C.Serving as the principal gelling agent
D.Providing the only nitrogen source in the medium
Correct Answer: Acting as a potent antioxidant and modulating rooting and stress tolerance
Explanation:
Melatonin scavenges reactive oxygen species and behaves as an auxin-like signalling molecule, promoting root formation and improving tolerance to oxidative and abiotic stress in vitro.
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30Melatonin is biosynthetically derived from which amino acid, sharing part of its pathway with auxin?
noble plant growth regulators (metatopolin, melatonin)
Medium
A.Glutamate
B.Arginine
C.Tryptophan
D.Methionine
Correct Answer: Tryptophan
Explanation:
Both melatonin and the auxin IAA originate from tryptophan. This shared precursor partly explains melatonin's auxin-like effects on root and shoot development.
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31In an RFLP analysis, a point mutation abolishes a restriction site in one allele. What band pattern change is expected relative to the wild-type allele on a Southern blot?
RFLP
Medium
A.A single larger fragment replaces two smaller fragments
B.Two smaller fragments replace one larger fragment
C.No change because RFLP detects only insertions
D.The DNA fails to hybridize with any probe
Correct Answer: A single larger fragment replaces two smaller fragments
Explanation:
Loss of a restriction site means the enzyme can no longer cut there, so two adjacent fragments remain joined as one larger fragment, altering the RFLP pattern detected by the probe.
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32Which feature makes RFLP markers co-dominant, allowing heterozygotes to be distinguished from homozygotes?
RFLP
Medium
A.The marker relies on random priming of anonymous loci
B.Both alleles produce their own detectable fragments simultaneously
C.Amplification uses a single arbitrary primer
D.Only the dominant allele generates a band
Correct Answer: Both alleles produce their own detectable fragments simultaneously
Explanation:
Because each allele yields its characteristic fragment on the blot, a heterozygote shows bands from both alleles, making RFLP a co-dominant marker system.
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33A key limitation of RAPD markers compared with most other PCR-based markers is that they are:
RAPD
Medium
A.Co-dominant and highly reproducible
B.Restricted to detecting methylation changes only
C.Dependent on prior sequence and Southern blotting
D.Dominant and often poorly reproducible across laboratories
Correct Answer: Dominant and often poorly reproducible across laboratories
Explanation:
RAPD uses short arbitrary primers at low annealing temperatures, scoring presence/absence bands (dominant). This sensitivity to reaction conditions gives poor reproducibility between labs.
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34RAPD analysis differs fundamentally from targeted PCR because it uses:
RAPD
Medium
A.Two long locus-specific primers designed from known sequence
C.Restriction enzymes followed by ligation of adaptors
D.A single short primer of arbitrary sequence to amplify anonymous genomic regions
Correct Answer: A single short primer of arbitrary sequence to amplify anonymous genomic regions
Explanation:
RAPD employs one short (~10 bp) primer of random sequence; wherever two priming sites lie close in inverted orientation, a fragment is amplified, requiring no prior sequence knowledge.
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35Simple sequence repeats (SSRs) are highly informative markers largely because their polymorphism arises from:
SSR/ISSR
Medium
A.Variation in the number of tandem repeat units due to replication slippage
B.Differential DNA methylation of promoters
C.Loss of restriction sites from point mutations
D.Random arbitrary primer binding
Correct Answer: Variation in the number of tandem repeat units due to replication slippage
Explanation:
SSRs (microsatellites) are short tandem repeats. Slipped-strand mispairing during replication changes repeat number, generating length polymorphisms detected by locus-specific flanking primers.
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36How does ISSR primer design differ from SSR (microsatellite) primer design?
SSR/ISSR
Medium
A.ISSR primers must be designed from cloned flanking sequences of each locus
B.ISSR uses restriction digestion instead of PCR
C.ISSR primers are anchored microsatellite sequences that amplify regions between two repeats without needing flanking sequence data
D.ISSR primers are arbitrary decamers identical to RAPD primers
Correct Answer: ISSR primers are anchored microsatellite sequences that amplify regions between two repeats without needing flanking sequence data
Explanation:
ISSR primers consist of a repeat motif plus a short anchor. They target inter-microsatellite regions, so unlike SSR they do not require prior knowledge of unique flanking sequences.
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37Arrange the core steps of AFLP in the correct order:
AFLP
Medium
A.PCR amplification → restriction digestion → Southern blot → hybridization
B.Restriction digestion → adaptor ligation → pre-selective and selective PCR → gel resolution
Correct Answer: Restriction digestion → adaptor ligation → pre-selective and selective PCR → gel resolution
Explanation:
AFLP first digests DNA with two enzymes, ligates adaptors to the ends, then performs pre-selective and selective PCR using primers with selective bases, and finally resolves fragments on a gel.
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38Why does AFLP achieve high multiplex ratios (many markers per reaction) with good reproducibility?
AFLP
Medium
A.It amplifies only a single microsatellite locus at a time
B.Selective primers with defined 3′ bases combined with stringent PCR sample only a reproducible subset of restriction fragments
C.It uses arbitrary decamer primers at low stringency
D.It relies on hybridization of radioactive probes to blots
Correct Answer: Selective primers with defined 3′ bases combined with stringent PCR sample only a reproducible subset of restriction fragments
Explanation:
The selective bases at the primer 3′ ends and high-stringency PCR reduce the vast fragment pool to a manageable, reproducible set, giving AFLP its high multiplex ratio and reliability.
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39A SCAR marker is typically developed by:
SCAR
Medium
A.Using an arbitrary decamer at low annealing temperature
B.Sequencing the ends of a useful RAPD/AFLP band and designing longer locus-specific primers
C.Measuring repeat-number variation at microsatellites
D.Digesting genomic DNA with rare cutters and ligating adaptors
Correct Answer: Sequencing the ends of a useful RAPD/AFLP band and designing longer locus-specific primers
Explanation:
SCARs are made by cloning and sequencing the termini of an informative RAPD/AFLP fragment, then designing longer specific primers. This converts an unreliable band into a robust, reproducible locus-specific marker.
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40Compared with the RAPD marker it is derived from, a SCAR marker generally shows:
SCAR
Medium
A.Dependence on random arbitrary primers
B.Lower annealing temperature requirements
C.Greater reproducibility and locus specificity
D.Complete loss of any diagnostic value
Correct Answer: Greater reproducibility and locus specificity
Explanation:
By using longer primers matched to a known sequence and higher annealing temperatures, SCAR markers amplify a single defined locus reproducibly, overcoming the variability of the parent RAPD.
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41A researcher isolates a transverse thin cell layer (tTCL) versus a longitudinal thin cell layer (lTCL) from the same tobacco floral stem. Which statement best explains why tTCL and lTCL frequently yield different morphogenic outcomes despite originating from the same explant?
thin cell layer technology (TCL)
Hard
A.The difference arises only from the surface area exposed to the medium and has no relation to tissue composition
B.tTCL cells are inherently totipotent while lTCL cells are permanently differentiated and cannot respond to growth regulators
C.tTCL contains a heterogeneous mix of tissue types across the cut plane, exposing multiple competent cell populations to inductive signals, whereas lTCL isolates a more homogeneous single-tissue strip
D.lTCL always produces roots while tTCL always produces shoots regardless of hormonal balance
Correct Answer: tTCL contains a heterogeneous mix of tissue types across the cut plane, exposing multiple competent cell populations to inductive signals, whereas lTCL isolates a more homogeneous single-tissue strip
Explanation:
A transverse cut passes through several tissue layers (epidermis, cortex, vascular, pith), giving a mixed cell population, while a longitudinal cut isolates a strip of largely one tissue type. This compositional difference, combined with reduced correlative inhibition in TCL, drives distinct organogenic responses.
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42Why does TCL technology often achieve higher regeneration frequencies and greater control over morphogenesis compared to conventional explants?
thin cell layer technology (TCL)
Hard
A.Minimal tissue volume reduces correlative inhibition and endogenous hormone gradients, so exogenous regulators dominate the developmental fate of the few target cells
B.Reduced cell number increases somaclonal variation, which improves regeneration
C.The small size prevents any contamination, eliminating the need for surface sterilization steps
D.TCL explants contain more chloroplasts, providing extra energy for organogenesis
Correct Answer: Minimal tissue volume reduces correlative inhibition and endogenous hormone gradients, so exogenous regulators dominate the developmental fate of the few target cells
Explanation:
By using only a few cell layers, TCL minimizes the internal signaling and hormone gradients that mask exogenous cues. The applied growth regulators therefore more directly and predictably determine the fate of the limited number of target cells.
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43In tissue culture, silver nanoparticles (AgNPs) are used both as sterilants and as media additives. What is the primary mechanistic reason AgNPs can simultaneously reduce microbial contamination and, at low doses, enhance shoot proliferation?
nanoparticles as sterilizing agent and media components
Hard
A.AgNPs physically block bacterial cell division and simultaneously supply silver as an essential plant macronutrient
B.AgNPs chelate all heavy metals, preventing both microbial growth and plant toxicity entirely
C.AgNPs reflect UV light, sterilizing the medium while providing extra photosynthetic energy
D.Controlled release of ions disrupts microbial membranes and enzymes while at low concentrations modulating ethylene signaling in plant tissues
Correct Answer: Controlled release of ions disrupts microbial membranes and enzymes while at low concentrations modulating ethylene signaling in plant tissues
Explanation:
AgNPs release ions that damage microbial membranes, respiratory enzymes and DNA. In plants, silver acts as an ethylene action inhibitor (competing at receptor sites), which at low doses can promote shoot morphogenesis. The dual effect stems from ion release and ethylene modulation.
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44A researcher observes that increasing AgNP concentration in the medium initially boosts callus growth but sharply inhibits it beyond a threshold. Which explanation best accounts for this biphasic (hormetic) response?
nanoparticles as sterilizing agent and media components
Hard
A.Low doses are sterile and high doses introduce contamination that kills the callus
B.Low doses trigger mild oxidative signaling that stimulates growth, while high doses cause excessive ROS accumulation and oxidative damage overwhelming antioxidant defenses
C.The medium pH rises linearly with AgNP concentration, and only high pH is toxic
D.Nanoparticles aggregate only at low concentrations, becoming inert at high concentrations
Correct Answer: Low doses trigger mild oxidative signaling that stimulates growth, while high doses cause excessive ROS accumulation and oxidative damage overwhelming antioxidant defenses
Explanation:
This is classic hormesis: low nanoparticle levels induce mild reactive oxygen species (ROS) that act as growth-promoting signals, whereas high levels generate ROS beyond the cell's antioxidant capacity, causing lipid peroxidation and inhibition of growth.
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45Meta-topolin (mT) is increasingly preferred over BAP (6-benzylaminopurine) for micropropagation of several species. Which combination of properties best explains mT's advantage in reducing physiological disorders during repeated subculture?
noble plant growth regulators (metatopolin, melatonin)
Hard
A.mT is metabolically inert and simply prevents any hormone from acting
B.mT is a synthetic auxin that suppresses all cytokinin activity, preventing shoot proliferation disorders
C.mT irreversibly binds cytokinin receptors, providing a permanent single burst of activity
D.mT forms O-glucoside storage conjugates that are reversibly hydrolyzed, giving balanced cytokinin activity and reducing hyperhydricity and rooting inhibition seen with BAP
Correct Answer: mT forms O-glucoside storage conjugates that are reversibly hydrolyzed, giving balanced cytokinin activity and reducing hyperhydricity and rooting inhibition seen with BAP
Explanation:
Meta-topolin is a hydroxylated aromatic cytokinin metabolized into O-glucosides that serve as reversible storage forms. This gentler, self-regulating activity reduces problems like hyperhydricity, leaf senescence, and poor subsequent rooting that are common with BAP.
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46Melatonin (N-acetyl-5-methoxytryptamine) is used in plant tissue culture beyond a growth-regulatory role. Which dual functional property makes it particularly valuable for micropropagation under stress conditions?
noble plant growth regulators (metatopolin, melatonin)
Hard
A.It functions only as a carbon source substituting for sucrose in the medium
B.It acts as a potent free-radical scavenger and also influences auxin-like rooting and morphogenic responses
C.It solely sterilizes the medium by killing endophytic bacteria
D.It is exclusively a rooting hormone with no antioxidant capacity
Correct Answer: It acts as a potent free-radical scavenger and also influences auxin-like rooting and morphogenic responses
Explanation:
Melatonin is a strong antioxidant that scavenges ROS and protects tissues from oxidative stress during culture, while structurally related to indoleamines it also exerts auxin-like effects promoting rooting and morphogenesis. This combined role aids explants under stress.
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47A plant geneticist scores an RFLP locus and finds that a homozygote shows a single band while the heterozygote shows three bands. What is the most likely molecular explanation for the extra band in the heterozygote?
RFLP
Hard
A.PCR amplification artifact producing random extra fragments in heterozygotes only
B.A restriction site polymorphism where one allele retains an internal cut site producing two fragments while the other allele loses it, so the heterozygote shows both allelic patterns
C.RFLP always produces three bands due to probe cross-hybridization
D.The heterozygote has undergone a chromosome duplication tripling the copy number
Correct Answer: A restriction site polymorphism where one allele retains an internal cut site producing two fragments while the other allele loses it, so the heterozygote shows both allelic patterns
Explanation:
If one allele contains an internal restriction site, it is cut into two smaller fragments; the other allele lacking that site yields one larger fragment. A heterozygote carries both alleles, so it displays the large band plus the two smaller bands—three bands total. RFLP is codominant.
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48Compared with PCR-based markers, why is classical RFLP considered highly reproducible across laboratories yet impractical for high-throughput screening?
RFLP
Hard
A.It uses arbitrary primers that anneal at low stringency, making it fast but unreliable
B.It amplifies microsatellites requiring only tiny DNA amounts but expensive fluorescent detection
C.It detects single-base changes by sequencing, which is cheap but non-reproducible
D.It relies on locus-specific hybridization independent of thermal cycling conditions, but requires large quantities of high-quality DNA, radioactive/labeled probes, and is labor-intensive
Correct Answer: It relies on locus-specific hybridization independent of thermal cycling conditions, but requires large quantities of high-quality DNA, radioactive/labeled probes, and is labor-intensive
Explanation:
RFLP reproducibility comes from Southern hybridization with specific probes, avoiding PCR variability. However, its need for substantial pure DNA, labeled probes, blotting, and hybridization steps makes it slow and unsuitable for high-throughput work.
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49RAPD markers are dominant and often criticized for poor reproducibility. Which single change in reaction conditions is MOST likely to alter the RAPD banding pattern and why?
RAPD
Hard
A.A change in the loading dye color, because it affects primer specificity
B.A change in DNA quantity within a 10-fold range, because RAPD requires exact template amounts to bind probes
C.A change in gel running voltage, because it alters primer annealing during PCR
D.A change in annealing temperature, because short arbitrary primers bind at low stringency and small temperature shifts change which mismatched priming sites amplify
Correct Answer: A change in annealing temperature, because short arbitrary primers bind at low stringency and small temperature shifts change which mismatched priming sites amplify
Explanation:
RAPD uses ~10-mer arbitrary primers annealing at low stringency. Because binding tolerates mismatches, even minor annealing-temperature changes shift which sites are primed, altering the band profile. This sensitivity is the root of RAPD's reproducibility problems.
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50Two individuals share a RAPD band of identical size. Why is it risky to assume this shared band represents the same allele or locus (homology)?
RAPD
Hard
A.Shared bands prove the individuals are clonal because RAPD detects methylation
B.Comigrating fragments of equal size may arise from different genomic regions or different priming events, so band identity does not guarantee sequence or locus homology
C.Equal-sized bands indicate heterozygosity at a codominant locus
D.RAPD bands of equal size are always from the same locus due to primer specificity
Correct Answer: Comigrating fragments of equal size may arise from different genomic regions or different priming events, so band identity does not guarantee sequence or locus homology
Explanation:
Fragment size on a gel reflects only length, not sequence. Two same-sized RAPD bands can originate from unrelated genomic sites (non-homologous comigration). This undermines assumptions of allelic identity and can distort genetic distance estimates.
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51SSR (microsatellite) markers are prized as codominant and highly polymorphic. What molecular mechanism primarily generates the length polymorphism (variable repeat number) at SSR loci?
SSR/ISSR
Hard
A.DNA polymerase slippage (replication slippage) during replication of the tandem repeats, causing gain or loss of repeat units
B.Random primer mismatches during low-stringency PCR
C.Point mutations converting one base to another within a single repeat
D.Restriction enzyme digestion cutting the repeats into variable fragments
Correct Answer: DNA polymerase slippage (replication slippage) during replication of the tandem repeats, causing gain or loss of repeat units
Explanation:
Microsatellites vary in repeat number mainly due to strand slippage during DNA replication: the polymerase transiently dissociates and misaligns on the repetitive template, adding or removing units. This high mutation rate produces the multiallelic, codominant polymorphism SSRs are known for.
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52ISSR and SSR markers both target microsatellites, yet ISSR does not require prior sequence knowledge whereas SSR does. Which statement correctly contrasts their primer design and dominance behavior?
SSR/ISSR
Hard
A.ISSR uses locus-specific primers and is codominant; SSR uses arbitrary primers and is dominant
B.Both use flanking locus-specific primers and are codominant, differing only in fragment size
C.Both require restriction digestion before amplification and score as dominant markers
D.ISSR uses single primers anchored to the repeat itself to amplify inter-repeat regions and is largely dominant, while SSR uses locus-specific flanking primers and is codominant
Correct Answer: ISSR uses single primers anchored to the repeat itself to amplify inter-repeat regions and is largely dominant, while SSR uses locus-specific flanking primers and is codominant
Explanation:
ISSR primers are built from the repeat motif plus an anchor, amplifying the region between two nearby repeats without needing flanking sequence data; these are typically dominant. SSR requires known flanking sequences to design locus-specific primers, giving codominant, single-locus data.
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53In AFLP, selective amplification uses primers with selective nucleotides at their 3' ends. What is the functional purpose of adding these selective bases?
AFLP
Hard
A.To add restriction sites so fragments can be re-digested for scoring
B.To convert the dominant markers into codominant markers
C.To reduce the enormous number of restriction fragments to a manageable subset by amplifying only those whose adjacent bases match the selective nucleotides
D.To label fragments radioactively for Southern hybridization
Correct Answer: To reduce the enormous number of restriction fragments to a manageable subset by amplifying only those whose adjacent bases match the selective nucleotides
Explanation:
After ligation of adaptors, thousands of fragments exist. Selective nucleotides extending beyond the adaptor/restriction site ensure only fragments with complementary flanking bases are amplified, cutting the fragment pool to a resolvable number (each added base reduces amplified fragments ~4-fold).
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54AFLP typically uses a rare cutter (e.g., ) combined with a frequent cutter (e.g., ). Why is this two-enzyme combination advantageous over using two rare cutters or two frequent cutters?
AFLP
Hard
A.It eliminates the need for selective amplification primers
B.It allows detection of methylation at all cytosines in the genome
C.It generates predominantly one rare-frequent cutter fragment type of optimal size range for PCR and gel resolution, balancing fragment number and length
D.It ensures every fragment has two identical ends for efficient self-ligation
Correct Answer: It generates predominantly one rare-frequent cutter fragment type of optimal size range for PCR and gel resolution, balancing fragment number and length
Explanation:
A rare cutter alone yields few, very large fragments; a frequent cutter alone yields too many small ones. The combination produces many fragments in an ideal size window (roughly 100–1000 bp), and using different adaptors biases amplification toward the rare–frequent cutter fragments suited for reliable scoring.
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55A RAPD band linked to a disease-resistance trait is converted into a SCAR marker. What is the principal benefit gained by this conversion?
SCAR
Hard
A.SCAR requires restriction digestion of the whole genome, improving polymorphism
B.SCAR uses shorter arbitrary primers, increasing the number of amplified loci
C.SCAR abolishes the linkage between the marker and the trait, allowing independent inheritance
D.SCAR uses longer, locus-specific primers designed from the sequenced RAPD fragment, giving high reproducibility and often codominant scoring
Correct Answer: SCAR uses longer, locus-specific primers designed from the sequenced RAPD fragment, giving high reproducibility and often codominant scoring
Explanation:
By sequencing the ends of the diagnostic RAPD fragment, one designs longer specific primers (SCAR) that anneal at high stringency to a single locus. This overcomes RAPD's low reproducibility and can convert a dominant marker into a reliable, sometimes codominant, locus-specific assay.
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56A SCAR marker developed from a RAPD band amplifies a product in both resistant and susceptible plants of equal size, unlike the original RAPD which was present only in resistant plants. Which explanation best resolves this apparent loss of polymorphism?
SCAR
Hard
A.The SCAR primers are too short to distinguish alleles, so no polymorphism can ever be recovered
B.The polymorphism in the original RAPD lay in a priming site outside the sequenced fragment ends, so the internal SCAR primers amplify both alleles and the polymorphism must be recovered via a restriction digest (CAPS) or primer redesign
C.The resistant and susceptible plants became genetically identical during marker conversion
D.SCAR markers by definition never show polymorphism and are used only for fingerprinting
Correct Answer: The polymorphism in the original RAPD lay in a priming site outside the sequenced fragment ends, so the internal SCAR primers amplify both alleles and the polymorphism must be recovered via a restriction digest (CAPS) or primer redesign
Explanation:
RAPD presence/absence polymorphism often arises from a mutation at a primer-binding site. If SCAR primers are designed internal to that site, both alleles amplify equally, losing polymorphism. Digesting the SCAR product with a restriction enzyme (creating a CAPS marker) or redesigning primers can restore allele discrimination.
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57To confirm the genetic fidelity (trueness-to-type) of micropropagated clones and detect somaclonal variation, which marker strategy provides the most robust genome-wide assessment, and why?
applications of molecular markers in plant biotechnology and tissue culture
Hard
A.Using morphological observation alone, because it directly reflects all genetic changes
B.Using only RFLP with one probe, because Southern blotting scans the whole genome at once
C.Using multiple marker systems together (e.g., ISSR + SSR + SCoT/AFLP) because each samples different genomic regions and mutation types, maximizing the chance of detecting variation
D.Using a single RAPD primer, because one arbitrary primer covers the entire genome
Correct Answer: Using multiple marker systems together (e.g., ISSR + SSR + SCoT/AFLP) because each samples different genomic regions and mutation types, maximizing the chance of detecting variation
Explanation:
No single marker samples the entire genome or all mutation classes. Combining marker systems that target different sequences (repeats, restriction sites, gene regions) greatly increases coverage and sensitivity for detecting somaclonal variation, giving a more reliable fidelity assessment than any one system.
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58In marker-assisted selection (MAS) for introgressing a resistance gene, why are flanking codominant markers on both sides of the target gene preferred over a single dominant marker within the gene region?
applications of molecular markers in plant biotechnology and tissue culture
Hard
A.Flanking markers are unnecessary because a within-gene marker never recombines away
B.Dominant single markers allow scoring of homozygotes versus heterozygotes directly
C.A single dominant marker gives more polymorphism and always eliminates linkage drag
D.Flanking markers allow selection against recombinants and reduce linkage drag while codominance distinguishes heterozygotes from homozygotes, improving selection accuracy
Correct Answer: Flanking markers allow selection against recombinants and reduce linkage drag while codominance distinguishes heterozygotes from homozygotes, improving selection accuracy
Explanation:
Two flanking markers let breeders select individuals where recombination has trimmed donor DNA around the gene (reducing linkage drag) and confirm the target is retained between them. Codominant markers reveal zygosity, so heterozygotes and homozygotes are distinguished—critical for tracking introgression precisely.
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59A breeder wants to detect off-type contaminants and verify hybrid purity in a commercial seed lot. Which property of SSR markers makes them especially suited for this quality-control task?
applications of molecular markers in plant biotechnology and tissue culture
Hard
A.Their low polymorphism ensures all seeds look identical, confirming purity
C.Their codominance and multiallelic nature allow unambiguous identification of the expected heterozygous genotype and detection of selfed or contaminant seeds
D.Their reliance on random primers gives species-wide uniform patterns
Correct Answer: Their codominance and multiallelic nature allow unambiguous identification of the expected heterozygous genotype and detection of selfed or contaminant seeds
Explanation:
A true hybrid should be heterozygous, carrying one allele from each parent. Codominant, highly polymorphic SSRs directly reveal both alleles, so selfed parental (homozygous) seeds or foreign contaminants show deviant genotypes and are easily flagged—ideal for hybrid purity testing.
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60When constructing a saturated linkage map for QTL analysis, why might a researcher favor AFLP markers in the early stage despite their dominant nature?
applications of molecular markers in plant biotechnology and tissue culture
Hard
A.AFLP amplifies only single loci, ensuring each band maps to one gene
B.AFLP markers are all codominant, providing full zygosity information immediately
C.AFLP requires no restriction enzymes, making it the cheapest per-locus method
D.AFLP generates a very large number of polymorphic loci per reaction without prior sequence information, rapidly saturating the map, after which key regions can be converted to codominant markers
Correct Answer: AFLP generates a very large number of polymorphic loci per reaction without prior sequence information, rapidly saturating the map, after which key regions can be converted to codominant markers
Explanation:
AFLP's power lies in multiplexing dozens of polymorphic markers per reaction with no sequence knowledge, quickly filling gaps in a linkage map. Its dominant nature is a limitation, so once QTL regions are located, tightly linked AFLP bands are often converted to codominant SCAR/SSR markers for finer analysis.
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