1Anther culture is a technique used to produce plants that are:
Haploid Production: anther culture
Easy
A.Triploid
B.Tetraploid
C.Haploid
D.Diploid
Correct Answer: Haploid
Explanation:
Anther culture involves culturing anthers containing immature pollen (microspores), which develop into haploid plants carrying a single set of chromosomes.
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2In anther culture, the haploid plants develop from which cells?
Haploid Production: anther culture
Easy
A.Root cells
B.Microspores
C.Egg cells
D.Somatic cells
Correct Answer: Microspores
Explanation:
Microspores (immature pollen grains) within the anther are induced to divide and form haploid embryos or callus instead of maturing into pollen.
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3The production of haploid plants from the male gametophyte (pollen/microspore) is called:
Haploid Production: production of haploid plants by androgenesis and gynogenesis
Easy
A.Gynogenesis
B.Parthenogenesis
C.Androgenesis
D.Apogamy
Correct Answer: Androgenesis
Explanation:
Androgenesis is the development of haploid plants from the male gametophyte, such as microspores or pollen, typically achieved through anther or microspore culture.
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4The production of haploid plants from the female gametophyte is known as:
Haploid Production: production of haploid plants by androgenesis and gynogenesis
Easy
A.Embryogenesis
B.Gynogenesis
C.Somatogenesis
D.Androgenesis
Correct Answer: Gynogenesis
Explanation:
Gynogenesis is the development of haploid plants from unfertilized female gametophytic cells, such as the egg cell or other cells within the embryo sac.
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5Ovule culture is mainly used to obtain haploids through:
Haploid Production: ovule culture
Easy
A.Gynogenesis
B.Organogenesis
C.Micropropagation
D.Androgenesis
Correct Answer: Gynogenesis
Explanation:
Ovule culture uses unpollinated ovules to induce haploid plant formation from the female gametophyte, a process known as gynogenesis.
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6The phenomenon of pollen grains switching from the normal gametophytic pathway to the sporophytic pathway in anther culture results in:
Haploid Production: anther culture
Easy
A.Seed germination
B.Embryoid formation
C.Fruit setting
D.Root nodulation
Correct Answer: Embryoid formation
Explanation:
When microspores switch to the sporophytic pathway, they divide to form embryoids or callus that regenerate into haploid plants.
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7Doubling the chromosome number of a haploid plant produces a:
Haploid Production: application of haploids
Easy
A.Aneuploid
B.Homozygous diploid
C.Triploid
D.Heterozygous diploid
Correct Answer: Homozygous diploid
Explanation:
Chromosome doubling of a haploid yields a completely homozygous (doubled haploid) diploid plant, useful in plant breeding.
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8Which chemical is most commonly used to double the chromosome number in haploid plants?
Haploid Production: application of haploids
Easy
A.Gibberellin
B.Auxin
C.Colchicine
D.Cytokinin
Correct Answer: Colchicine
Explanation:
Colchicine is an alkaloid that inhibits spindle fiber formation, preventing chromosome separation and thereby doubling the chromosome number.
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9A major advantage of using haploids in plant breeding is the rapid production of:
Haploid Production: application of haploids
Easy
A.Polyploids
B.Hybrid vigour
C.Mutant fruits
D.Homozygous lines
Correct Answer: Homozygous lines
Explanation:
Haploids allow breeders to obtain completely homozygous (pure) lines in a single generation after chromosome doubling, saving several years of inbreeding.
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10Somaclonal variation refers to the genetic variation observed in plants regenerated through:
Somaclonal variations: methods and techniques for isolation and selection of the variants
Easy
A.Layering
B.Grafting
C.Seed germination
D.Tissue culture
Correct Answer: Tissue culture
Explanation:
Somaclonal variation is the genetic and phenotypic variation that arises among plants regenerated from cell, tissue, or callus culture.
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11The term 'somaclone' was coined to describe plants derived from:
Somaclonal variations: methods and techniques for isolation and selection of the variants
Easy
A.Germ cell cultures
B.Zygotes
C.Somatic cell cultures
D.Pollen grains
Correct Answer: Somatic cell cultures
Explanation:
The term 'somaclone' refers to plants regenerated from cultured somatic (body) cells, and their variation is called somaclonal variation.
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12Variation arising specifically from cultured gametic (germ) cells is often referred to as:
Somaclonal variations: methods and techniques for isolation and selection of the variants
Easy
A.Somaclonal variation
B.Epigenetic variation
C.Clonal variation
D.Gametoclonal variation
Correct Answer: Gametoclonal variation
Explanation:
Gametoclonal variation is the variation observed among plants regenerated from cultured gametic cells such as those in anther or pollen culture.
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13In vitro selection of somaclonal variants often uses a selective agent added to the medium such as:
Somaclonal variations: methods and techniques for isolation and selection of the variants
Easy
A.Distilled water
B.A toxin or salt
C.Plain agar
D.Sucrose only
Correct Answer: A toxin or salt
Explanation:
Selective pressure, such as a pathogen toxin, high salt, or herbicide in the medium, allows only resistant or tolerant variant cells to survive and be selected.
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14Somaclonal variation is useful in crop improvement mainly because it can generate plants with:
Somaclonal variations: applications of somaclonal variations
Easy
A.Sterile pollen only
B.No genetic change
C.Disease resistance
D.Reduced yield
Correct Answer: Disease resistance
Explanation:
Somaclonal variation can produce novel useful traits such as disease resistance, stress tolerance, and improved quality that can be exploited in breeding.
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15A limitation of somaclonal variation in crop improvement is that some variations are:
Somaclonal variations: applications of somaclonal variations
Easy
A.Unstable and non-heritable
B.Permanent and fixed
C.Always heritable
D.Always beneficial
Correct Answer: Unstable and non-heritable
Explanation:
Many somaclonal variations are epigenetic or unstable, so they may not be transmitted to the next generation, limiting their practical use.
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16Which factor increases the frequency of somaclonal variation during tissue culture?
Somaclonal variations: applications of somaclonal variations
Easy
A.Short culture duration
B.Cold storage of seeds
C.Prolonged callus culture
D.Low sucrose
Correct Answer: Prolonged callus culture
Explanation:
Longer periods of culture, especially at the callus stage, increase the accumulation of genetic and epigenetic changes, raising somaclonal variation frequency.
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17In vitro plant-microbe interaction assays are performed under conditions that are:
In vitro Plant microbe interactions: assay development
Easy
A.Random natural
B.Unsterilized soil
C.Aseptic and controlled
D.Open field only
Correct Answer: Aseptic and controlled
Explanation:
In vitro assays are carried out under sterile (aseptic) and controlled laboratory conditions to study interactions between plants and specific microbes precisely.
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18A common purpose of in vitro plant-microbe assays is to study:
In vitro Plant microbe interactions: assay development
Easy
A.Host-pathogen interactions
B.Soil erosion
C.Fruit ripening rates
D.Weather patterns
Correct Answer: Host-pathogen interactions
Explanation:
In vitro assays allow controlled study of how plants respond to beneficial or pathogenic microbes, including host-pathogen and symbiotic interactions.
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19A key limitation of in vitro plant-microbe interaction studies is that they may not fully reflect:
In vitro Plant microbe interactions: limitations and applications
Easy
A.Nutrient media
B.Sterile conditions
C.Controlled temperature
D.Natural field conditions
Correct Answer: Natural field conditions
Explanation:
In vitro systems are simplified and controlled, so results may differ from complex natural field environments where many factors interact simultaneously.
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20In vitro plant-microbe interaction techniques are widely applied to study beneficial associations such as:
In vitro Plant microbe interactions: limitations and applications
Easy
A.Mycorrhiza and nitrogen fixation
B.Leaf senescence
C.Photosynthesis rate
D.Seed dormancy
Correct Answer: Mycorrhiza and nitrogen fixation
Explanation:
These assays are commonly used to study beneficial symbioses like mycorrhizal associations and nitrogen-fixing bacteria that improve plant nutrition and growth.
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21In anther culture, the developmental stage of pollen most favorable for inducing androgenesis is usually the:
Haploid Production: anther culture
Medium
A.Fully differentiated generative cell stage
B.Tetrad stage before microspore release
C.Uninucleate microspore stage
D.Mature trinucleate pollen stage
Correct Answer: Uninucleate microspore stage
Explanation:
Microspores at the uninucleate (or early binucleate) stage retain the developmental plasticity to switch from the gametophytic to the sporophytic pathway, making this stage optimal for androgenic induction.
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22A researcher recovers many diploid and mixoploid plants from an anther culture instead of pure haploids. The most likely source of these diploids is:
Haploid Production: anther culture
Medium
A.Contamination by fungal cells
B.Fusion of two microspore nuclei
C.Regeneration from somatic anther wall tissue
D.Delayed pollen germination
Correct Answer: Regeneration from somatic anther wall tissue
Explanation:
Diploid regenerants in anther cultures commonly arise from surrounding somatic (diploid) anther wall tissue rather than from the haploid microspores, which is a key limitation of anther versus microspore culture.
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23The essential difference between androgenesis and gynogenesis in haploid production is that:
Haploid Production: production of haploid plants by androgenesis and gynogenesis
Medium
A.Androgenesis needs pollination while gynogenesis does not
B.Androgenesis occurs in vivo while gynogenesis occurs in vitro
C.Androgenesis produces diploids while gynogenesis produces haploids
D.Androgenesis uses the male gametophyte while gynogenesis uses the female gametophyte
Correct Answer: Androgenesis uses the male gametophyte while gynogenesis uses the female gametophyte
Explanation:
Androgenesis develops haploids from male gametophytic cells (microspores/pollen), whereas gynogenesis develops them from unfertilized female gametophytic cells such as the egg or synergids.
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24Gynogenesis is often chosen over androgenesis for a particular crop when:
Haploid Production: production of haploid plants by androgenesis and gynogenesis
Medium
A.The species is recalcitrant to anther/microspore culture
B.The plant produces abundant pollen
C.The anthers are large and easy to isolate
D.The pollen is at the uninucleate stage
Correct Answer: The species is recalcitrant to anther/microspore culture
Explanation:
In species where androgenesis fails or gives poor response (e.g., many bulbous and albino-prone cereals), unfertilized ovary/ovule culture (gynogenesis) provides an alternative route to haploids.
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25Unpollinated ovary or ovule culture for haploid production must typically be initiated:
Haploid Production: ovule culture
Medium
A.Only after seed set has begun
B.Several days after successful fertilization
C.When the ovules are fully mature and dormant
D.Around the time of anthesis before fertilization
Correct Answer: Around the time of anthesis before fertilization
Explanation:
To obtain gynogenic haploids, ovules/ovaries must be excised before fertilization (near anthesis) so that the unfertilized egg apparatus develops into a haploid embryo.
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26The main advantage of using doubled haploids (DH) over conventional inbreeding in plant breeding is that DH lines:
Haploid Production: application of haploids
Medium
A.Eliminate the need for any selection
B.Introduce new heterozygous alleles
C.Increase the ploidy level of the crop permanently
D.Achieve complete homozygosity in a single generation
Correct Answer: Achieve complete homozygosity in a single generation
Explanation:
Chromosome doubling of a haploid instantly yields a fully homozygous (100%) line, replacing 6–8 generations of self-pollination needed to approach homozygosity conventionally.
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27Haploids are especially valuable for detecting recessive mutations because in a haploid:
Haploid Production: application of haploids
Medium
A.Mutations occur at a higher frequency
B.Dominant alleles are suppressed
C.Every gene is present in two copies
D.Recessive alleles are directly expressed without masking
Correct Answer: Recessive alleles are directly expressed without masking
Explanation:
With only one allele per locus, a recessive mutation is immediately expressed phenotypically since there is no dominant allele to mask it, making haploids ideal for mutation studies.
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28To convert a haploid plant into a fertile doubled haploid, the agent most commonly applied is:
Haploid Production: application of haploids
Medium
A.Colchicine
B.2,4-D
C.Ethylene
D.Gibberellic acid
Correct Answer: Colchicine
Explanation:
Colchicine inhibits spindle fiber formation during mitosis, preventing chromosome segregation and causing chromosome doubling, thereby restoring fertility in a haploid.
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29Somaclonal variation is best defined as the genetic and epigenetic variation observed among plants that are:
Somaclonal variations: methods and techniques for isolation and selection of the variants
Medium
A.Regenerated from cultured cells or tissues
B.Produced by sexual hybridization
C.Obtained through grafting
D.Derived from unfertilized gametes
Correct Answer: Regenerated from cultured cells or tissues
Explanation:
Somaclonal variation refers to heritable and non-heritable variation arising among plants regenerated from in vitro cell, tissue, or callus cultures.
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30A prolonged callus phase and higher levels of hormones such as 2,4-D during culture tend to:
Somaclonal variations: methods and techniques for isolation and selection of the variants
Medium
A.Increase the frequency of somaclonal variation
B.Guarantee genetic uniformity of regenerants
C.Completely prevent chromosomal changes
D.Reduce the mutation rate to zero
Correct Answer: Increase the frequency of somaclonal variation
Explanation:
Extended, dedifferentiated (callus) culture and strong auxins like 2,4-D promote chromosomal instability and genetic changes, raising the incidence of somaclonal variation.
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31To isolate cell lines resistant to a fungal toxin, the most direct in vitro strategy is:
Somaclonal variations: methods and techniques for isolation and selection of the variants
Medium
A.Lowering the incubation temperature
B.Removing all hormones from the medium
C.Increasing the sucrose concentration
D.Adding the toxin to the medium as a selection pressure
Correct Answer: Adding the toxin to the medium as a selection pressure
Explanation:
In positive selection, the toxin (selective agent) is incorporated into the medium so that only resistant variant cells survive and proliferate, allowing recovery of resistant somaclones.
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32A variant recovered in vitro that loses its altered trait after being transferred to selection-free medium is best described as showing:
Somaclonal variations: methods and techniques for isolation and selection of the variants
Medium
Traits that disappear once the selective pressure is removed are typically epigenetic and non-heritable, unlike true genetic (heritable) somaclonal variants that remain stable.
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33Which technique is most appropriate for confirming that a selected somaclone carries a true chromosomal number change?
Somaclonal variations: methods and techniques for isolation and selection of the variants
Medium
Karyotyping/chromosome counting directly reveals aneuploidy or polyploidy, providing cytological proof of a chromosomal-level somaclonal change, unlike gross phenotypic observations.
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34The disease-resistant sugarcane and potato somaclones developed commercially illustrate that somaclonal variation can be used to:
Somaclonal variations: applications of somaclonal variations
Medium
A.Generate improved crop varieties with novel useful traits
B.Permanently sterilize crop plants
C.Prevent all genetic change in a clone
D.Convert diploids into haploids
Correct Answer: Generate improved crop varieties with novel useful traits
Explanation:
Somaclonal variation has yielded improved lines such as disease-resistant sugarcane and potato clones, demonstrating its role as a source of useful genetic variability for crop improvement.
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35For a micropropagation industry aiming to produce genetically uniform planting material, somaclonal variation is regarded as:
Somaclonal variations: applications of somaclonal variations
Medium
A.A method of chromosome doubling
B.A way to induce flowering
C.An undesirable problem to be minimized
D.A beneficial goal to be maximized
Correct Answer: An undesirable problem to be minimized
Explanation:
Clonal propagation requires true-to-type plants; here somaclonal variation is a drawback, so short culture cycles and shoot-tip based methods are used to keep it low.
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36Compared with conventional mutation breeding using chemical mutagens, an advantage of exploiting somaclonal variation is that it:
Somaclonal variations: applications of somaclonal variations
Medium
A.Eliminates the need for any selection step
B.Guarantees a specific desired mutation
C.Always produces only dominant mutations
D.Can generate variability without applying an external mutagen
Correct Answer: Can generate variability without applying an external mutagen
Explanation:
Somaclonal variation arises spontaneously during tissue culture, so useful variability can be obtained without deliberately applying mutagens, though selection is still required.
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37A key requirement when developing an in vitro dual-culture assay for a plant–pathogen interaction is:
In vitro Plant microbe interactions: assay development
Medium
A.Excluding the host plant tissue entirely
B.Allowing random airborne microbes to colonize
C.Maintaining axenic (contaminant-free) conditions for both partners
D.Using open field soil directly in the dish
Correct Answer: Maintaining axenic (contaminant-free) conditions for both partners
Explanation:
Reliable in vitro interaction assays depend on sterile, axenic cultures so that observed responses can be attributed specifically to the plant and the introduced microbe, not to contaminants.
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38In an in vitro assay to screen for a beneficial plant growth-promoting rhizobacterium, the most relevant positive readout would be:
In vitro Plant microbe interactions: assay development
Medium
A.Browning and necrosis of all tissues
B.Complete death of the plant tissue
C.Enhanced root and shoot growth of inoculated plantlets
D.Loss of sterility in the medium
Correct Answer: Enhanced root and shoot growth of inoculated plantlets
Explanation:
A growth-promoting microbe is expected to improve plant vigor; measuring increased root/shoot growth in inoculated versus control plantlets provides a direct functional readout of the beneficial interaction.
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39A major limitation of studying plant–microbe interactions purely in vitro is that:
In vitro Plant microbe interactions: limitations and applications
Medium
A.It is impossible to control the microbial species used
B.Sterile conditions cannot be achieved
C.No environmental factors can ever be varied
D.Results may not fully reflect complex field/soil conditions
Correct Answer: Results may not fully reflect complex field/soil conditions
Explanation:
In vitro systems are simplified and lack the microbial community, soil chemistry, and environmental variability of the field, so results often need validation under natural conditions.
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40In vitro establishment of mycorrhizal or Rhizobium associations with plantlets is primarily applied to:
In vitro Plant microbe interactions: limitations and applications
Medium
A.Induce haploid embryo formation
B.Double the chromosome number of the host
C.Study infection mechanisms and produce biofertilizer inoculants
D.Permanently sterilize the host plant
Correct Answer: Study infection mechanisms and produce biofertilizer inoculants
Explanation:
Controlled in vitro symbiosis systems allow researchers to dissect infection and nutrient-exchange mechanisms and to develop and test biofertilizer/inoculant technologies for sustainable agriculture.
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41In anther culture, the developmental stage of the microspore at the time of inoculation is critical for successful androgenesis. If anthers are cultured too late (after the first pollen mitosis with a well-developed generative cell), which outcome is most likely?
anther culture
Hard
A.Increased frequency of haploid embryoids due to nutrient abundance
B.Direct conversion of the tapetum into embryogenic callus
C.Enhanced diploid embryo formation via spontaneous chromosome doubling
D.Predominant gametophytic development into normal pollen rather than sporophytic embryogenesis
Correct Answer: Predominant gametophytic development into normal pollen rather than sporophytic embryogenesis
Explanation:
The uninucleate to early-binucleate stage is the responsive window. Once the microspore commits to the gametophytic pathway (mature pollen development), the switch to sporophytic embryogenesis is largely lost, so inoculating too late yields normal pollen instead of embryoids.
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42A researcher obtains a high frequency of regenerated plants from anther culture but finds many are diploid and heterozygous rather than haploid. What is the most probable origin of these plants?
anther culture
Hard
A.Fusion of two haploid microspores during culture
B.Spontaneous diploidization of haploid microspore-derived embryos
C.Somatic tissues of the anther wall (connective, filament) rather than the microspores
D.Endoreduplication limited to the epidermal cells of embryoids
Correct Answer: Somatic tissues of the anther wall (connective, filament) rather than the microspores
Explanation:
Diploid, heterozygous regenerants typically arise from surrounding somatic anther tissues. Microspore-derived plants are haploid (or homozygous doubled haploids). Heterozygosity is the key clue that the source is 2n sporophytic tissue, not the gametic microspore.
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43Ovule culture is often preferred over embryo culture in certain wide crosses. What is the primary rationale for culturing the intact ovule rather than excising the embryo directly?
ovule culture
Hard
A.Ovules contain higher endogenous cytokinin that suppresses embryo growth
B.Only ovule culture permits somatic embryogenesis from nucellar tissue
C.The embryo is too small/immature to excise and survives better within its natural nutritive environment
D.The integuments must be removed to allow gynogenesis to occur
Correct Answer: The embryo is too small/immature to excise and survives better within its natural nutritive environment
Explanation:
In many wide hybrids embryos abort early and are too tiny/delicate for direct excision. Culturing the whole ovule keeps the embryo within the endosperm/integument nutritive tissues, improving survival until it is large enough to grow independently.
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44Gynogenesis is used instead of androgenesis in species such as onion and sugar beet primarily because:
production of haploid plants by androgenesis and gynogenesis
Hard
A.Androgenesis in these species yields very low response or albino regenerants, while the female gametophyte is more responsive
B.The female gametophyte doubles chromosomes spontaneously whereas microspores never do
C.Gynogenesis avoids the need for cold pretreatment entirely
D.Microspores in these species are triploid and cannot form haploids
Correct Answer: Androgenesis in these species yields very low response or albino regenerants, while the female gametophyte is more responsive
Explanation:
In recalcitrant species like onion and sugar beet, anther/microspore culture gives poor yields and often albino plants. Ovary/ovule (gynogenic) culture provides an alternative route to haploids by inducing sporophytic development of the egg or other embryo-sac cells.
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45The 'bulbosum method' in barley produces haploids through a mechanism distinct from anther culture. Which best describes this mechanism?
production of haploid plants by androgenesis and gynogenesis
Hard
A.Doubling of the H. bulbosum genome to compensate for H. vulgare loss
B.Selective elimination of Hordeum bulbosum chromosomes after interspecific hybridization, leaving a haploid H. vulgare genome
C.Parthenogenetic development of unfertilized H. bulbosum eggs
D.Fusion of H. vulgare egg with two H. bulbosum sperm
Correct Answer: Selective elimination of Hordeum bulbosum chromosomes after interspecific hybridization, leaving a haploid H. vulgare genome
Explanation:
In the bulbosum method, H. vulgare × H. bulbosum crosses form a zygote, but H. bulbosum chromosomes are preferentially eliminated during early divisions, producing a haploid embryo containing only the cultivated barley genome, which is then rescued by embryo culture.
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46Doubled haploid (DH) technology dramatically shortens breeding programs. Compared to conventional selfing to reach near-homozygosity, the key genetic advantage of DH lines is:
application of haploids
Hard
A.Instant, complete homozygosity in a single generation, fixing recombinant gametes immediately
B.Elimination of all deleterious recessive alleles from the population
C.Increased recombination frequency during meiosis of the haploid
D.Guaranteed heterosis in the resulting lines
Correct Answer: Instant, complete homozygosity in a single generation, fixing recombinant gametes immediately
Explanation:
Chromosome doubling of a haploid gamete produces a fully homozygous line in one step, whereas selfing needs 6+ generations to approach homozygosity. DH fixes the recombinant gametic genotype instantly, greatly accelerating line development and enabling efficient recessive selection.
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47Why are haploids and doubled haploids especially powerful for mapping and selecting recessive mutations?
application of haploids
Hard
A.Recessive alleles are expressed directly in the haploid because there is no dominant masking allele
B.Doubling converts recessive alleles into dominant ones
C.Haploids increase the mutation rate of recessive loci
D.Haploids undergo more crossing over, unmasking recessives
Correct Answer: Recessive alleles are expressed directly in the haploid because there is no dominant masking allele
Explanation:
With only one allele per locus, any recessive mutation is phenotypically expressed in a haploid (or in the homozygous DH). This removes dominance masking, making recessive trait selection and mutation detection far more efficient than in heterozygous diploids.
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48Cold pretreatment (e.g., 4°C) of anthers before culture improves androgenesis. The most widely accepted explanation for this stress effect is:
production of haploid plants by androgenesis and gynogenesis
Hard
A.It increases endogenous auxin to trigger rooting
B.It degrades the tapetum to release stored gametophytic mRNA
C.It diverts microspores from the gametophytic to the sporophytic pathway by disrupting normal development and preserving viable microspores
D.It causes spontaneous doubling of the microspore chromosome number
Correct Answer: It diverts microspores from the gametophytic to the sporophytic pathway by disrupting normal development and preserving viable microspores
Explanation:
Stress pretreatments (cold, heat, starvation) reprogram the microspore away from pollen (gametophytic) development toward sporophytic embryogenesis, while also degenerating non-responsive microspores and preserving embryogenic ones—raising androgenic frequency.
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49A somaclonal variant selected in vitro for herbicide tolerance loses the trait after a few generations in the field. This 'epigenetic' variation is best distinguished from a true genetic mutation because it:
Somaclonal variations: methods and techniques for isolation and selection of the variants
Hard
A.Follows Mendelian segregation ratios in progeny
B.Is non-heritable/unstable and reverts, lacking a stable change in DNA sequence
C.Persists indefinitely through meiosis
D.Can be mapped to a single nuclear locus
Correct Answer: Is non-heritable/unstable and reverts, lacking a stable change in DNA sequence
Explanation:
Epigenetic somaclonal variation (e.g., altered methylation, physiological adaptation) is typically unstable and non-heritable, reverting on regeneration or over generations. Genetic somaclonal variation is stable and Mendelian-heritable. Reversion is the diagnostic clue here.
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50To isolate salt-tolerant somaclones, cells are cultured on medium with gradually increasing NaCl. A limitation of this positive in vitro selection strategy is that:
Somaclonal variations: methods and techniques for isolation and selection of the variants
Hard
A.Selected cells cannot be regenerated into plants
B.NaCl selection guarantees single-gene tolerance every time
C.Tolerance expressed at the cellular level may not translate to whole-plant/field tolerance
D.Only dominant mutations can ever be recovered by stepwise selection
Correct Answer: Tolerance expressed at the cellular level may not translate to whole-plant/field tolerance
Explanation:
Cellular (unorganized callus/suspension) tolerance often relies on mechanisms unavailable to or irrelevant in the organized whole plant. A frequent limitation of in vitro selection is poor correlation between cell-level and plant-level tolerance, so field validation is essential.
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51Somaclonal variation frequency generally increases with which culture condition, making it a double-edged sword in micropropagation?
Somaclonal variations: methods and techniques for isolation and selection of the variants
Hard
A.Direct organogenesis from meristems with low hormone levels
B.Cryopreservation of shoot tips
C.Prolonged culture passages and a callus/disorganized phase, especially with high auxin like 2,4-D
D.Short culture cycles from axillary buds
Correct Answer: Prolonged culture passages and a callus/disorganized phase, especially with high auxin like 2,4-D
Explanation:
Extended time in an unorganized callus state and potent auxins such as 2,4-D promote chromosomal and DNA changes. This is exploited to generate variation but is undesirable in clonal micropropagation, where meristem-based routes minimize variation.
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52The disease-resistant sugarcane and the tomato variety 'DNAP-17' are cited examples of somaclonal variation. The chief advantage of using somaclonal variation over conventional mutation breeding here is that it:
applications of somaclonal variations
Hard
A.Generates novel variability without mutagens and can uncover useful traits directly among regenerants
B.Eliminates the need for any field selection
C.Ensures the variation is confined to a single target gene
D.Always produces a higher mutation frequency than gamma irradiation
Correct Answer: Generates novel variability without mutagens and can uncover useful traits directly among regenerants
Explanation:
Somaclonal variation creates heritable variability spontaneously during culture without chemical/radiation mutagens, sometimes yielding directly useful traits (e.g., disease resistance). It complements breeding by adding variability, though it still requires screening and field evaluation.
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53A key criticism limiting the practical exploitation of somaclonal variation for crop improvement is that:
applications of somaclonal variations
Hard
A.Much of the observed variation is random, uncontrolled, and often includes undesirable/deleterious changes
B.It requires transgenic technology to recover useful lines
C.It can only produce variation in ornamental species
D.The variation is always dominant and cannot be fixed
Correct Answer: Much of the observed variation is random, uncontrolled, and often includes undesirable/deleterious changes
Explanation:
The direction of somaclonal variation cannot be controlled; most regenerants carry neutral or harmful changes, and useful variants are rare. This randomness and the burden of extensive screening limit its routine use in breeding programs.
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54When developing an in vitro dual-culture assay to study a mycorrhizal symbiosis, a major methodological challenge with arbuscular mycorrhizal (AM) fungi specifically is that:
In vitro Plant microbe interactions: assay development
Hard
A.AM fungi produce sexual spores only in liquid culture
B.AM fungi are obligate biotrophs and cannot be grown axenically without a living host root
C.AM fungi require complete darkness and anaerobic conditions to germinate
D.AM fungi overgrow the medium and kill the host within hours
Correct Answer: AM fungi are obligate biotrophs and cannot be grown axenically without a living host root
Explanation:
AM fungi (Glomeromycota) are obligate biotrophs that need a living root to complete their life cycle. This is why root-organ cultures (e.g., Ri T-DNA transformed hairy roots) are used—establishing pure fungal culture alone is not feasible, complicating assay design.
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55In designing an in vitro assay to screen for biocontrol activity of a rhizobacterium against a fungal pathogen, the most rigorous positive readout that distinguishes true antagonism from mere nutrient competition is:
In vitro Plant microbe interactions: assay development
Hard
A.Faster bacterial growth than the fungus on the plate
B.Any reduction in the fungal colony diameter on rich medium
C.A clear inhibition zone in dual culture combined with confirmation of a diffusible/volatile antifungal metabolite
D.Co-existence of both organisms without contact
Correct Answer: A clear inhibition zone in dual culture combined with confirmation of a diffusible/volatile antifungal metabolite
Explanation:
A robust antagonism assay shows an inhibition zone AND identifies the antimicrobial mechanism (diffusible or volatile compounds), ruling out simple resource competition. Colony reduction alone can result from nutrient depletion, so mechanistic confirmation is required.
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56A recognized limitation of studying plant–microbe interactions in vitro (axenic culture) rather than in soil is that:
In vitro Plant microbe interactions: limitations and applications
Hard
A.Axenic culture prevents any gene expression changes in the host
B.The artificial system omits the complex soil microbiome and physicochemical factors, so results may not reflect natural interactions
C.In vitro systems always overestimate pathogen virulence tenfold
D.Sterile media cannot support any microbial growth
Correct Answer: The artificial system omits the complex soil microbiome and physicochemical factors, so results may not reflect natural interactions
Explanation:
In vitro systems are simplified and controlled, lacking the native microbial community, soil structure, and nutrient gradients. Interactions observed axenically may differ substantially from those in situ, limiting extrapolation to field conditions.
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57Ri T-DNA transformed 'hairy root' cultures are extensively used in in vitro plant–microbe studies. Their principal advantage for such research is that they:
In vitro Plant microbe interactions: limitations and applications
Hard
A.Eliminate the need for any Agrobacterium in the system
B.Grow rapidly, are genetically stable, hormone-autonomous, and support AM fungal colonization in a controlled system
C.Secrete antibiotics that sterilize the medium automatically
D.Photosynthesize and thus need no carbon source
Correct Answer: Grow rapidly, are genetically stable, hormone-autonomous, and support AM fungal colonization in a controlled system
Explanation:
Hairy roots induced by Agrobacterium rhizogenes are fast-growing, hormone-independent, and genetically stable, providing a defined, reproducible living-root system ideal for studying obligate symbionts like AM fungi and other root–microbe interactions in vitro.
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58In doubled haploid production, colchicine is applied to double the chromosome number. If colchicine treatment is applied after several cell divisions of the haploid have already occurred, the likely consequence is:
production of haploid plants by androgenesis and gynogenesis
Hard
A.Complete failure of any chromosome doubling
B.Uniform tetraploid tissue throughout the plant
C.Conversion of the plant into a stable aneuploid
D.Production of chimeric/mixoploid plants with both haploid and diploid sectors
Correct Answer: Production of chimeric/mixoploid plants with both haploid and diploid sectors
Explanation:
Colchicine only doubles chromosomes in cells undergoing division at the time of exposure. Applying it after some cells have divided doubles only a subset, yielding mixoploid/chimeric plants with mixed haploid and diploid sectors rather than a uniform DH.
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59Albinism is a frequent problem in cereal anther/microspore culture. The underlying cause of these albino regenerants is most often:
B.Loss of the entire nuclear genome during androgenesis
C.Deletions or rearrangements in the plastid (chloroplast) genome preventing chlorophyll development
D.Contamination by achlorophyllous bacteria
Correct Answer: Deletions or rearrangements in the plastid (chloroplast) genome preventing chlorophyll development
Explanation:
Albino plantlets in cereal androgenesis typically carry large deletions/rearrangements in the plastome, impairing chloroplast ribosome and thylakoid development. These plants cannot form functional chloroplasts and are non-viable, a major limitation in cereal DH production.
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60Consider a scenario where a somaclone shows an improved trait, but you must confirm it is a genuine, exploitable somaclonal variant. The most decisive evidence is that the trait:
applications of somaclonal variations
Hard
A.Disappears when the plant is transferred to soil
B.Correlates with the concentration of 2,4-D in the medium
C.Appears only in the primary regenerant under culture conditions
D.Is stably transmitted to sexual progeny in a heritable, predictable manner
Correct Answer: Is stably transmitted to sexual progeny in a heritable, predictable manner
Explanation:
A useful somaclonal variant must be genetically stable and heritable through sexual generations. Traits confined to the primary regenerant or dependent on culture conditions are usually epigenetic/physiological and cannot be exploited in breeding.
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