Unit 6: Regulation of Gene Expression and Epigenetics - Practice Quiz

BTY426 — Cell And Molecular Biology 60 Questions
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1 In the lac operon of E. coli, which molecule acts as the inducer that inactivates the repressor?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: operon models Easy
A. cAMP
B. Glucose
C. Tryptophan
D. Allolactose

2 The lac operon is best described as which type of operon?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: operon models Easy
A. A non-regulated operon
B. An inducible operon
C. A constitutive operon
D. A repressible operon

3 What is the primary role of the operator sequence in an operon?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: operon models Easy
A. It is the DNA site where the repressor protein binds
B. It is the ribosome binding site on mRNA
C. It codes for the repressor protein
D. It is the site where RNA polymerase leaves the DNA

4 A riboswitch is a regulatory element located in which type of molecule?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: riboswitches Easy
A. tRNA
B. Protein
C. DNA
D. mRNA

5 Riboswitches typically regulate gene expression by binding to which of the following?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: riboswitches Easy
A. Histone proteins
B. DNA polymerase
C. Large ribosomal subunits
D. Small metabolite molecules

6 The bacteriophage lambda switch controls the decision between which two life cycles?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: bacteriophage lambda transcriptional switch Easy
A. Aerobic and anaerobic
B. Diploid and haploid
C. Lysogenic and lytic
D. Meiotic and mitotic

7 Which protein is essential for maintaining the lysogenic state in bacteriophage lambda?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: bacteriophage lambda transcriptional switch Easy
A. The Cro protein
B. The CI repressor (lambda repressor)
C. DNA gyrase
D. Lysozyme

8 Which covalent modification of histones is most commonly associated with active gene transcription?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: covalent histone modifications Easy
A. Acetylation
B. Phosphorylation of ribosomes
C. Ubiquitination of mRNA
D. Methylation of DNA

9 Which enzyme adds acetyl groups to histone proteins?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: covalent histone modifications Easy
A. Histone deacetylase (HDAC)
B. RNA polymerase
C. DNA methyltransferase
D. Histone acetyltransferase (HAT)

10 Removal of acetyl groups from histones by HDAC enzymes generally leads to what effect on transcription?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: covalent histone modifications Easy
A. Decreased transcription
B. No change in transcription
C. Complete DNA replication
D. Increased transcription

11 Nucleosome remodelling complexes use the energy from which molecule to reposition nucleosomes?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: nucleosome remodelling Easy
A. ATP
B. NADH
C. Glucose
D. GTP only

12 What is the main purpose of nucleosome remodelling?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: nucleosome remodelling Easy
A. To change the accessibility of DNA to transcription factors
B. To translate mRNA into protein
C. To synthesize new histone proteins
D. To replicate the mitochondrial genome

13 In mammals, DNA methylation most commonly occurs on cytosine bases found in which context?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: DNA methylation and gene regulation Easy
A. Poly-A tails
B. CpG dinucleotides
C. The 5' cap
D. AT-rich regions

14 Heavy DNA methylation of a gene's promoter region usually results in what?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: DNA methylation and gene regulation Easy
A. Faster translation
B. Increased gene expression
C. More mRNA splicing
D. Gene silencing

15 What does the abbreviation RISC stand for in RNA interference?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: RNA interference - RISC-mediated silencing Easy
A. Regulatory Intron Silencing Cascade
B. RNA Integration and Splicing Center
C. RNA-Induced Silencing Complex
D. Ribosomal Initiation Signal Complex

16 Which small RNA molecule is loaded into RISC to guide it to a complementary target mRNA?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: RNA interference - RISC-mediated silencing Easy
A. tRNA
B. snoRNA
C. siRNA
D. rRNA

17 Which enzyme cleaves long double-stranded RNA into short fragments during RNA interference?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: mechanisms of RNA interference Easy
A. Helicase
B. Ligase
C. Primase
D. Dicer

18 Heterochromatin is best described as which state of chromatin?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: role of heterochromatin in gene silencing Easy
A. Tightly packed and transcriptionally inactive
B. Loosely packed and highly active
C. A ribosomal subunit
D. A form of single-stranded RNA

19 Epigenetic changes are best described as changes that:

Epigenetic Regulation: epigenetics and the environment Easy
A. Alter gene expression without changing the DNA sequence
B. Delete entire chromosomes
C. Permanently mutate the DNA base sequence
D. Occur only during meiosis

20 Which epigenetic change is commonly seen at the promoters of tumour suppressor genes in cancer cells?

Epigenetic Regulation: epigenetics and cancer Easy
A. Loss of all histones
B. Hypermethylation
C. Complete gene deletion
D. Increased acetylation

21 In the lac operon, a strain carries a mutation in the operator () on the same DNA molecule as functional structural genes. What phenotype is expected for -galactosidase expression?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: operon models Medium
A. Expression only in the presence of glucose
B. No expression under any condition
C. Normal inducible expression requiring lactose
D. Constitutive expression regardless of lactose

22 The trp operon is regulated by both repression and attenuation. When tryptophan levels are moderate but not saturating, what primarily fine-tunes transcription of the structural genes?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: operon models Medium
A. Attenuation via ribosome stalling at the leader peptide
B. Inducer exclusion by the tryptophan repressor
C. Binding of CAP-cAMP to the promoter
D. Sigma factor switching by RNA polymerase

23 Catabolite repression ensures glucose is used before lactose. If a lac operon strain has a mutation abolishing CAP binding, what is the effect when only lactose is present?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: operon models Medium
A. Greatly reduced transcription despite repressor being off
B. Increased transcription due to loss of negative control
C. Complete loss of any transcription permanently
D. Full constitutive transcription independent of lactose

24 A riboswitch controls gene expression by which of the following mechanisms?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: riboswitches Medium
A. Methylation of promoter cytosine residues
B. Direct binding of a small-molecule metabolite to mRNA, altering its structure
C. Covalent modification of ribosomal proteins
D. Binding of a protein repressor to the operator DNA

25 In a transcription-terminating riboswitch, binding of the target metabolite typically favors formation of which structure?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: riboswitches Medium
A. A ribosome-binding site occlusion only
B. A CAP-cAMP activation complex
C. An intrinsic terminator hairpin that halts RNA polymerase
D. An antiterminator that promotes read-through

26 In the lambda lysis/lysogeny switch, high levels of the cI repressor bound to and produce which outcome?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: bacteriophage lambda transcriptional switch Medium
A. Simultaneous repression of both cI and cro promoters
B. Excision of the prophage from the host chromosome
C. Repression of and activation of , maintaining lysogeny
D. Activation of Cro and entry into the lytic cycle

27 The lambda switch behaves like a genetic toggle because cI and Cro compete for the same operators. Why does DNA damage (SOS response) shift the switch toward lysis?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: bacteriophage lambda transcriptional switch Medium
A. RecA activates to increase cI levels
B. RecA promotes autocleavage of cI, relieving repression of
C. Host RNA polymerase is inactivated by damage
D. Cro is degraded by activated proteases

28 Acetylation of lysine residues on histone tails generally promotes transcription. What is the most direct biochemical reason?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: covalent histone modifications Medium
A. It cross-links adjacent nucleosomes tightly together
B. It directly cleaves the DNA phosphodiester backbone
C. It adds a bulky group that recruits DNA methyltransferases
D. It neutralizes positive charges, loosening histone-DNA contacts

29 A researcher finds a gene enriched for H3K9me3 (trimethylation of histone H3 lysine 9). What is the likely transcriptional state and reason?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: covalent histone modifications Medium
A. Active, because methylation always loosens chromatin
B. Silenced, because it directly methylates the DNA
C. Silenced, because H3K9me3 recruits HP1 to form heterochromatin
D. Active, because H3K9me3 recruits RNA polymerase II

30 ATP-dependent chromatin remodelling complexes (e.g., SWI/SNF) regulate transcription primarily by which action?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: nucleosome remodelling Medium
A. Synthesizing new histone octamers
B. Repositioning or ejecting nucleosomes to expose regulatory DNA
C. Adding methyl groups to histone tails
D. Cleaving histone proteins into fragments

31 In mammals, DNA methylation typically occurs at which sequence context and has what usual effect on nearby promoters?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: DNA methylation and gene regulation Medium
A. CpG dinucleotides; promoter methylation represses transcription
B. AT-rich regions; it has no effect on transcription
C. CpG dinucleotides; it activates transcription
D. GpC dinucleotides; it activates transcription

32 DNA methylation patterns are heritable through cell division. Which enzyme is chiefly responsible for maintaining methylation on the newly synthesized strand after replication?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: DNA methylation and gene regulation Medium
A. DNA polymerase, which copies methyl groups directly
B. DNMT3a, which methylates only unmethylated DNA de novo
C. DNMT1, which recognizes hemimethylated CpG sites
D. TET enzymes, which remove methyl groups

33 During RISC-mediated silencing, which component of the complex directly base-pairs with target mRNA to guide cleavage?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: RNA interference - RISC-mediated silencing Medium
A. The Dicer enzyme itself
B. The guide (antisense) strand of the small RNA
C. The passenger (sense) strand of the small RNA
D. Both strands of the double-stranded siRNA equally

34 Perfect complementarity between a small RNA and its mRNA target in RISC typically leads to which outcome, versus imperfect pairing?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: RNA interference - RISC-mediated silencing Medium
A. Increased mRNA stability; imperfect pairing degrades it
B. Translational repression; imperfect pairing favors cleavage
C. DNA methylation; imperfect pairing has no effect
D. Endonucleolytic mRNA cleavage; imperfect pairing favors translational repression

35 Which enzyme processes long double-stranded RNA or pre-miRNA hairpins into ~21–23 nucleotide duplexes during RNA interference?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: mechanisms of RNA interference Medium
A. RNA polymerase III
B. Drosha, which acts only in the nucleus on primary transcripts
C. Dicer, an RNase III-family endonuclease
D. Argonaute, a slicer within RISC

36 In the miRNA pathway, what is the correct order of processing from the primary transcript?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: mechanisms of RNA interference Medium
A. mature miRNA Drosha pre-miRNA Dicer
B. pre-miRNA Dicer pri-miRNA Drosha
C. pri-miRNA Dicer pre-miRNA Drosha
D. pri-miRNA Drosha pre-miRNA Dicer mature miRNA

37 Heterochromatin silences genes in part through position-effect variegation. What best explains why a gene relocated near heterochromatin shows patchy (variegated) expression?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: role of heterochromatin in gene silencing Medium
A. Heterochromatin increases transcription in a random subset of cells
B. Stochastic spreading of heterochromatin varies among cells and clonal lineages
C. The gene's DNA sequence is permanently mutated near heterochromatin
D. Only mitochondrial genes are affected by relocation

38 In fission yeast, RNAi machinery contributes to heterochromatin formation at centromeres. What is the connection between small RNAs and heterochromatin?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: role of heterochromatin in gene silencing Medium
A. Small RNAs directly acetylate histone tails
B. Small RNAs guide chromatin modifiers to methylate H3K9 at target loci
C. Small RNAs replace histones in the nucleosome core
D. Small RNAs prevent DNA replication at centromeres

39 Studies of the agouti mouse show that maternal diet (e.g., methyl-donor supplementation) alters coat color and disease risk in offspring. What is the epigenetic basis of this effect?

Epigenetic Regulation: epigenetics and the environment Medium
A. Increased histone acetylation permanently activating agouti
B. Increased DNA methylation of the agouti gene alters its expression without changing sequence
C. Deletion of the agouti gene from the genome
D. A permanent mutation in the agouti coding sequence

40 A tumor cell shows loss of expression of a tumor-suppressor gene despite an intact coding sequence. Which epigenetic change most commonly explains this in cancer?

Epigenetic Regulation: epigenetics and cancer Medium
A. Complete loss of all DNA methylation genome-wide
B. Global hypermethylation across the entire genome
C. Hyperacetylation of the gene's promoter histones
D. Hypermethylation of the gene's promoter CpG island

41 In the lac operon, a mutation in the operator () that abolishes repressor binding is combined in a partial diploid with a wild-type operon on an F' plasmid. The genotype is . In the absence of inducer, which enzymes are constitutively synthesized?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: operon models Hard
A. Both -galactosidase and permease
B. Neither enzyme
C. Only permease (Y)
D. Only -galactosidase (Z)

42 The trp operon uses attenuation. If a mutation changes the two adjacent tryptophan codons in the leader peptide to two adjacent histidine codons, what is the predicted effect on operon regulation?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: operon models Hard
A. Repressor binding to the operator is enhanced
B. The operon is permanently repressed regardless of amino acid levels
C. Attenuation is permanently abolished, causing constitutive expression
D. Transcription becomes sensitive to histidine rather than tryptophan levels

43 Many riboswitches contain an aptamer and an expression platform. Consider a transcriptional "OFF" riboswitch that forms an intrinsic terminator when its ligand is bound. Which statement best explains the kinetic requirement for its function?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: riboswitches Hard
A. Ligand binding must occur before RNA polymerase transcribes past the expression platform
B. The aptamer must be located downstream of the terminator hairpin
C. Ligand binding must occur only after the full mRNA is synthesized
D. Translation initiation must precede ligand binding to the aptamer

44 The glmS ribozyme-riboswitch is unusual among riboswitches. What distinguishes its mechanism of controlling gene expression upon ligand binding?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: riboswitches Hard
A. It undergoes self-cleavage, using GlcN6P as a coenzyme, degrading its own mRNA
B. It methylates its own aptamer domain to block translation
C. It sequesters the ribosome-binding site via a stable stem-loop only
D. It recruits a repressor protein to the promoter region

45 In the lambda lysis/lysogeny decision, the cooperative binding of CI repressor to and has a key regulatory consequence. What is it?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: bacteriophage lambda transcriptional switch Hard
A. It represses while activating , maintaining lysogeny
B. It recruits Cro to occupy and switch to lysis
C. It represses while activating , initiating lysis
D. It simultaneously blocks both and transcription

46 During prophage induction following DNA damage, RecA-mediated autocleavage of CI shifts the switch toward lysis. Why does loss of CI at specifically not need to occur first for the switch to flip?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: bacteriophage lambda transcriptional switch Hard
A. activation requires occupancy by CI
B. binds Cro preferentially even when CI is intact
C. CI occupies only at high concentrations, so its cleavage frees before regulation matters
D. has no role in the genetic switch

47 Trimethylation of histone H3 lysine 4 (H3K4me3) and lysine 27 (H3K27me3) can co-occur at "bivalent" domains in embryonic stem cells. What is the functional significance of these bivalent domains?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: covalent histone modifications Hard
A. They mark constitutive heterochromatin for permanent silencing
B. They target genes for immediate degradation by the proteasome
C. They recruit DNA polymerase to origins of replication
D. They poise developmental genes for rapid activation or repression upon differentiation

48 The "histone code" hypothesis predicts combinatorial readout of modifications. A protein contains both a bromodomain and a chromodomain in tandem. What binding behavior would this predict?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: covalent histone modifications Hard
A. Exclusive binding to phosphorylated serine residues
B. Recognition of unmodified histone tails only
C. Binding to DNA methylation sites rather than histones
D. Simultaneous recognition of an acetylated lysine and a methylated lysine, integrating two marks

49 Histone acetylation generally correlates with transcriptional activation. Beyond neutralizing lysine charge, which additional mechanism most directly contributes to this activation?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: covalent histone modifications Hard
A. Acetylation directly methylates adjacent DNA to open chromatin
B. Acetylation triggers histone degradation, exposing naked DNA
C. Acetyl-lysine creates docking sites recognized by bromodomain-containing remodelers and coactivators
D. Acetylation recruits HP1 to compact the nucleosome array

50 ATP-dependent chromatin remodelers of the SWI/SNF family and the ISWI family differ functionally. Which contrast is correct?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: nucleosome remodelling Hard
A. Both families methylate CpG islands using ATP
B. SWI/SNF can eject or reposition nucleosomes to expose DNA, while ISWI typically spaces nucleosomes into ordered arrays
C. ISWI ejects nucleosomes to open chromatin, while SWI/SNF only compacts it
D. SWI/SNF requires DNA methylation to function, ISWI does not

51 The histone variant H2A.Z is deposited at nucleosomes flanking promoters. Experiments show its incorporation can both activate and repress genes depending on context. Which best explains this dual role?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: nucleosome remodelling Hard
A. H2A.Z alters nucleosome stability and creates a labile state that can favor either eviction or stable positioning depending on cofactors
B. H2A.Z permanently prevents any nucleosome turnover at promoters
C. H2A.Z functions only during DNA replication and has no transcriptional role
D. H2A.Z directly methylates the promoter DNA to silence genes

52 In mammals, DNA methylation is maintained through replication by DNMT1 acting on hemimethylated CpG sites. If DNMT1 were selectively inactivated in a dividing cell population, what pattern would be observed over successive divisions?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: DNA methylation and gene regulation Hard
A. Increased de novo methylation compensating for the loss
B. Immediate complete demethylation within a single cell cycle
C. Progressive passive loss of methylation, diluting the mark with each round of replication
D. No change, because DNMT3a/b fully maintain methylation

53 Methyl-CpG-binding domain proteins (e.g., MeCP2) link DNA methylation to transcriptional repression. Which mechanistic connection is most accurate?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: DNA methylation and gene regulation Hard
A. MeCP2 demethylates DNA to prevent gene silencing
B. MeCP2 directly cleaves methylated DNA to inactivate genes
C. MeCP2 acetylates histones to open chromatin at methylated sites
D. MeCP2 binds methylated CpGs and recruits histone deacetylase complexes to establish repressive chromatin

54 The conversion of 5-methylcytosine (5mC) to 5-hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC) by TET enzymes is a key step in active demethylation. What is the primary fate that ultimately restores unmethylated cytosine?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: DNA methylation and gene regulation Hard
A. Deamination of 5hmC to uracil incorporated permanently
B. Spontaneous reversal of 5hmC back to 5mC without repair
C. Further oxidation to 5fC/5caC followed by base excision repair replacing it with unmodified cytosine
D. Direct enzymatic removal of the methyl group by a demethylase leaving cytosine intact

55 In the RISC complex, an Argonaute protein with catalytic "slicer" activity is required for one silencing outcome but dispensable for another. Which pairing is correct?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: RNA interference - RISC-mediated silencing Hard
A. Slicer activity is only needed to unwind the siRNA duplex, not for target action
B. Slicer activity is required for translational repression but not for target cleavage
C. Slicer activity is required for both cleavage and repression equally
D. Slicer activity is required for target mRNA cleavage (perfect complementarity) but dispensable for translational repression (miRNA-type mismatched pairing)

56 Guide-strand selection during RISC assembly is not random. Which thermodynamic rule predicts which strand of the siRNA duplex is retained as the guide?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: RNA interference - RISC-mediated silencing Hard
A. The strand whose 5' end sits at the less thermodynamically stable (weaker base-paired) duplex end is chosen as the guide
B. The longer of the two strands becomes the guide regardless of stability
C. The strand with more GC content at its 3' end becomes the guide
D. The strand with the more stable 5' end is always chosen as the guide

57 In some organisms RNAi is amplified and spreads systemically. Which enzymatic activity is essential for signal amplification but absent in mammals, explaining the lack of robust systemic RNAi in mammals?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: mechanisms of RNA interference Hard
A. Drosha, which processes primary miRNA transcripts
B. Dicer, which cleaves long dsRNA into siRNAs
C. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase (RdRP) that synthesizes secondary siRNAs
D. Argonaute, the catalytic core of RISC

58 In S. pombe, RNAi contributes to heterochromatin formation at centromeric repeats. Which sequence of events correctly links RNAi to heterochromatin assembly?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: role of heterochromatin in gene silencing Hard
A. siRNAs directly methylate centromeric DNA, which then recruits HP1
B. siRNAs acetylate H3K9 to open centromeric chromatin
C. siRNAs guide the RITS complex to nascent transcripts, recruiting Clr4 to methylate H3K9, creating HP1/Swi6 binding sites
D. HP1 binds siRNAs first and then recruits DNA methyltransferases to the centromere

59 Position-effect variegation (PEV) in Drosophila occurs when a gene is relocated near heterochromatin. What does the mosaic (variegated) expression pattern reveal about heterochromatin spreading?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: role of heterochromatin in gene silencing Hard
A. Heterochromatin spreads a variable distance and is clonally inherited, silencing the gene in some cell lineages but not others
B. Heterochromatin activates the relocated gene stochastically in some cells
C. Heterochromatin uniformly silences the gene in every cell of the organism
D. The gene is deleted in a random subset of cells, producing patches

60 Cancer genomes often display two seemingly opposite DNA methylation changes simultaneously. Which combination and consequence is correct?

Epigenetic Regulation: epigenetics and cancer Hard
A. Loss of all methylation genome-wide with no effect on gene expression
B. Global hypermethylation activating oncogenes alongside focal hypomethylation silencing tumor suppressors
C. Global hypomethylation promoting genomic instability alongside focal hypermethylation silencing tumor suppressor promoters
D. Uniform hypermethylation of the entire genome silencing all genes equally