Unit 6: Regulation of Gene Expression and Epigenetics - Practice Quiz

BTY426 — Cell And Molecular Biology 60 Questions
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1 In the lac operon of E. coli, which molecule acts as the inducer that inactivates the repressor?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: operon models Easy
A. Glucose
B. cAMP
C. Tryptophan
D. Allolactose

2 The lac operon is best described as which type of operon?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: operon models Easy
A. A repressible operon
B. A constitutive operon
C. A non-regulated operon
D. An inducible operon

3 What is the primary role of the operator sequence in an operon?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: operon models Easy
A. It is the site where RNA polymerase leaves the DNA
B. It codes for the repressor protein
C. It is the DNA site where the repressor protein binds
D. It is the ribosome binding site on mRNA

4 A riboswitch is a regulatory element located in which type of molecule?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: riboswitches Easy
A. tRNA
B. DNA
C. mRNA
D. Protein

5 Riboswitches typically regulate gene expression by binding to which of the following?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: riboswitches Easy
A. DNA polymerase
B. Histone proteins
C. Large ribosomal subunits
D. Small metabolite molecules

6 The bacteriophage lambda switch controls the decision between which two life cycles?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: bacteriophage lambda transcriptional switch Easy
A. Diploid and haploid
B. Aerobic and anaerobic
C. Lysogenic and lytic
D. Meiotic and mitotic

7 Which protein is essential for maintaining the lysogenic state in bacteriophage lambda?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: bacteriophage lambda transcriptional switch Easy
A. DNA gyrase
B. The Cro protein
C. Lysozyme
D. The CI repressor (lambda repressor)

8 Which covalent modification of histones is most commonly associated with active gene transcription?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: covalent histone modifications Easy
A. Methylation of DNA
B. Phosphorylation of ribosomes
C. Ubiquitination of mRNA
D. Acetylation

9 Which enzyme adds acetyl groups to histone proteins?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: covalent histone modifications Easy
A. RNA polymerase
B. DNA methyltransferase
C. Histone deacetylase (HDAC)
D. Histone acetyltransferase (HAT)

10 Removal of acetyl groups from histones by HDAC enzymes generally leads to what effect on transcription?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: covalent histone modifications Easy
A. Complete DNA replication
B. Decreased transcription
C. No change in transcription
D. Increased transcription

11 Nucleosome remodelling complexes use the energy from which molecule to reposition nucleosomes?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: nucleosome remodelling Easy
A. GTP only
B. Glucose
C. NADH
D. ATP

12 What is the main purpose of nucleosome remodelling?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: nucleosome remodelling Easy
A. To change the accessibility of DNA to transcription factors
B. To synthesize new histone proteins
C. To translate mRNA into protein
D. To replicate the mitochondrial genome

13 In mammals, DNA methylation most commonly occurs on cytosine bases found in which context?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: DNA methylation and gene regulation Easy
A. Poly-A tails
B. CpG dinucleotides
C. AT-rich regions
D. The 5' cap

14 Heavy DNA methylation of a gene's promoter region usually results in what?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: DNA methylation and gene regulation Easy
A. Faster translation
B. More mRNA splicing
C. Gene silencing
D. Increased gene expression

15 What does the abbreviation RISC stand for in RNA interference?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: RNA interference - RISC-mediated silencing Easy
A. Ribosomal Initiation Signal Complex
B. RNA-Induced Silencing Complex
C. RNA Integration and Splicing Center
D. Regulatory Intron Silencing Cascade

16 Which small RNA molecule is loaded into RISC to guide it to a complementary target mRNA?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: RNA interference - RISC-mediated silencing Easy
A. rRNA
B. snoRNA
C. tRNA
D. siRNA

17 Which enzyme cleaves long double-stranded RNA into short fragments during RNA interference?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: mechanisms of RNA interference Easy
A. Ligase
B. Primase
C. Dicer
D. Helicase

18 Heterochromatin is best described as which state of chromatin?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: role of heterochromatin in gene silencing Easy
A. A form of single-stranded RNA
B. A ribosomal subunit
C. Tightly packed and transcriptionally inactive
D. Loosely packed and highly active

19 Epigenetic changes are best described as changes that:

Epigenetic Regulation: epigenetics and the environment Easy
A. Permanently mutate the DNA base sequence
B. Occur only during meiosis
C. Delete entire chromosomes
D. Alter gene expression without changing the DNA sequence

20 Which epigenetic change is commonly seen at the promoters of tumour suppressor genes in cancer cells?

Epigenetic Regulation: epigenetics and cancer Easy
A. Loss of all histones
B. Hypermethylation
C. Complete gene deletion
D. Increased acetylation

21 In the lac operon, a strain carries a mutation in the operator () on the same DNA molecule as functional structural genes. What phenotype is expected for -galactosidase expression?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: operon models Medium
A. Constitutive expression regardless of lactose
B. Expression only in the presence of glucose
C. Normal inducible expression requiring lactose
D. No expression under any condition

22 The trp operon is regulated by both repression and attenuation. When tryptophan levels are moderate but not saturating, what primarily fine-tunes transcription of the structural genes?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: operon models Medium
A. Binding of CAP-cAMP to the promoter
B. Sigma factor switching by RNA polymerase
C. Inducer exclusion by the tryptophan repressor
D. Attenuation via ribosome stalling at the leader peptide

23 Catabolite repression ensures glucose is used before lactose. If a lac operon strain has a mutation abolishing CAP binding, what is the effect when only lactose is present?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: operon models Medium
A. Full constitutive transcription independent of lactose
B. Greatly reduced transcription despite repressor being off
C. Complete loss of any transcription permanently
D. Increased transcription due to loss of negative control

24 A riboswitch controls gene expression by which of the following mechanisms?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: riboswitches Medium
A. Direct binding of a small-molecule metabolite to mRNA, altering its structure
B. Methylation of promoter cytosine residues
C. Binding of a protein repressor to the operator DNA
D. Covalent modification of ribosomal proteins

25 In a transcription-terminating riboswitch, binding of the target metabolite typically favors formation of which structure?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: riboswitches Medium
A. A CAP-cAMP activation complex
B. A ribosome-binding site occlusion only
C. An antiterminator that promotes read-through
D. An intrinsic terminator hairpin that halts RNA polymerase

26 In the lambda lysis/lysogeny switch, high levels of the cI repressor bound to and produce which outcome?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: bacteriophage lambda transcriptional switch Medium
A. Activation of Cro and entry into the lytic cycle
B. Excision of the prophage from the host chromosome
C. Repression of and activation of , maintaining lysogeny
D. Simultaneous repression of both cI and cro promoters

27 The lambda switch behaves like a genetic toggle because cI and Cro compete for the same operators. Why does DNA damage (SOS response) shift the switch toward lysis?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: bacteriophage lambda transcriptional switch Medium
A. RecA promotes autocleavage of cI, relieving repression of
B. RecA activates to increase cI levels
C. Host RNA polymerase is inactivated by damage
D. Cro is degraded by activated proteases

28 Acetylation of lysine residues on histone tails generally promotes transcription. What is the most direct biochemical reason?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: covalent histone modifications Medium
A. It cross-links adjacent nucleosomes tightly together
B. It adds a bulky group that recruits DNA methyltransferases
C. It directly cleaves the DNA phosphodiester backbone
D. It neutralizes positive charges, loosening histone-DNA contacts

29 A researcher finds a gene enriched for H3K9me3 (trimethylation of histone H3 lysine 9). What is the likely transcriptional state and reason?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: covalent histone modifications Medium
A. Silenced, because it directly methylates the DNA
B. Silenced, because H3K9me3 recruits HP1 to form heterochromatin
C. Active, because methylation always loosens chromatin
D. Active, because H3K9me3 recruits RNA polymerase II

30 ATP-dependent chromatin remodelling complexes (e.g., SWI/SNF) regulate transcription primarily by which action?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: nucleosome remodelling Medium
A. Adding methyl groups to histone tails
B. Cleaving histone proteins into fragments
C. Synthesizing new histone octamers
D. Repositioning or ejecting nucleosomes to expose regulatory DNA

31 In mammals, DNA methylation typically occurs at which sequence context and has what usual effect on nearby promoters?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: DNA methylation and gene regulation Medium
A. AT-rich regions; it has no effect on transcription
B. GpC dinucleotides; it activates transcription
C. CpG dinucleotides; promoter methylation represses transcription
D. CpG dinucleotides; it activates transcription

32 DNA methylation patterns are heritable through cell division. Which enzyme is chiefly responsible for maintaining methylation on the newly synthesized strand after replication?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: DNA methylation and gene regulation Medium
A. DNMT1, which recognizes hemimethylated CpG sites
B. DNA polymerase, which copies methyl groups directly
C. DNMT3a, which methylates only unmethylated DNA de novo
D. TET enzymes, which remove methyl groups

33 During RISC-mediated silencing, which component of the complex directly base-pairs with target mRNA to guide cleavage?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: RNA interference - RISC-mediated silencing Medium
A. The passenger (sense) strand of the small RNA
B. Both strands of the double-stranded siRNA equally
C. The guide (antisense) strand of the small RNA
D. The Dicer enzyme itself

34 Perfect complementarity between a small RNA and its mRNA target in RISC typically leads to which outcome, versus imperfect pairing?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: RNA interference - RISC-mediated silencing Medium
A. Endonucleolytic mRNA cleavage; imperfect pairing favors translational repression
B. Translational repression; imperfect pairing favors cleavage
C. DNA methylation; imperfect pairing has no effect
D. Increased mRNA stability; imperfect pairing degrades it

35 Which enzyme processes long double-stranded RNA or pre-miRNA hairpins into ~21–23 nucleotide duplexes during RNA interference?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: mechanisms of RNA interference Medium
A. RNA polymerase III
B. Argonaute, a slicer within RISC
C. Dicer, an RNase III-family endonuclease
D. Drosha, which acts only in the nucleus on primary transcripts

36 In the miRNA pathway, what is the correct order of processing from the primary transcript?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: mechanisms of RNA interference Medium
A. pri-miRNA Drosha pre-miRNA Dicer mature miRNA
B. pre-miRNA Dicer pri-miRNA Drosha
C. pri-miRNA Dicer pre-miRNA Drosha
D. mature miRNA Drosha pre-miRNA Dicer

37 Heterochromatin silences genes in part through position-effect variegation. What best explains why a gene relocated near heterochromatin shows patchy (variegated) expression?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: role of heterochromatin in gene silencing Medium
A. The gene's DNA sequence is permanently mutated near heterochromatin
B. Stochastic spreading of heterochromatin varies among cells and clonal lineages
C. Only mitochondrial genes are affected by relocation
D. Heterochromatin increases transcription in a random subset of cells

38 In fission yeast, RNAi machinery contributes to heterochromatin formation at centromeres. What is the connection between small RNAs and heterochromatin?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: role of heterochromatin in gene silencing Medium
A. Small RNAs directly acetylate histone tails
B. Small RNAs prevent DNA replication at centromeres
C. Small RNAs guide chromatin modifiers to methylate H3K9 at target loci
D. Small RNAs replace histones in the nucleosome core

39 Studies of the agouti mouse show that maternal diet (e.g., methyl-donor supplementation) alters coat color and disease risk in offspring. What is the epigenetic basis of this effect?

Epigenetic Regulation: epigenetics and the environment Medium
A. Increased DNA methylation of the agouti gene alters its expression without changing sequence
B. A permanent mutation in the agouti coding sequence
C. Deletion of the agouti gene from the genome
D. Increased histone acetylation permanently activating agouti

40 A tumor cell shows loss of expression of a tumor-suppressor gene despite an intact coding sequence. Which epigenetic change most commonly explains this in cancer?

Epigenetic Regulation: epigenetics and cancer Medium
A. Hypermethylation of the gene's promoter CpG island
B. Global hypermethylation across the entire genome
C. Complete loss of all DNA methylation genome-wide
D. Hyperacetylation of the gene's promoter histones

41 In the lac operon, a mutation in the operator () that abolishes repressor binding is combined in a partial diploid with a wild-type operon on an F' plasmid. The genotype is . In the absence of inducer, which enzymes are constitutively synthesized?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: operon models Hard
A. Both -galactosidase and permease
B. Only -galactosidase (Z)
C. Neither enzyme
D. Only permease (Y)

42 The trp operon uses attenuation. If a mutation changes the two adjacent tryptophan codons in the leader peptide to two adjacent histidine codons, what is the predicted effect on operon regulation?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: operon models Hard
A. Repressor binding to the operator is enhanced
B. The operon is permanently repressed regardless of amino acid levels
C. Transcription becomes sensitive to histidine rather than tryptophan levels
D. Attenuation is permanently abolished, causing constitutive expression

43 Many riboswitches contain an aptamer and an expression platform. Consider a transcriptional "OFF" riboswitch that forms an intrinsic terminator when its ligand is bound. Which statement best explains the kinetic requirement for its function?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: riboswitches Hard
A. Ligand binding must occur before RNA polymerase transcribes past the expression platform
B. Ligand binding must occur only after the full mRNA is synthesized
C. Translation initiation must precede ligand binding to the aptamer
D. The aptamer must be located downstream of the terminator hairpin

44 The glmS ribozyme-riboswitch is unusual among riboswitches. What distinguishes its mechanism of controlling gene expression upon ligand binding?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: riboswitches Hard
A. It sequesters the ribosome-binding site via a stable stem-loop only
B. It recruits a repressor protein to the promoter region
C. It methylates its own aptamer domain to block translation
D. It undergoes self-cleavage, using GlcN6P as a coenzyme, degrading its own mRNA

45 In the lambda lysis/lysogeny decision, the cooperative binding of CI repressor to and has a key regulatory consequence. What is it?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: bacteriophage lambda transcriptional switch Hard
A. It recruits Cro to occupy and switch to lysis
B. It represses while activating , maintaining lysogeny
C. It represses while activating , initiating lysis
D. It simultaneously blocks both and transcription

46 During prophage induction following DNA damage, RecA-mediated autocleavage of CI shifts the switch toward lysis. Why does loss of CI at specifically not need to occur first for the switch to flip?

Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes: bacteriophage lambda transcriptional switch Hard
A. binds Cro preferentially even when CI is intact
B. activation requires occupancy by CI
C. CI occupies only at high concentrations, so its cleavage frees before regulation matters
D. has no role in the genetic switch

47 Trimethylation of histone H3 lysine 4 (H3K4me3) and lysine 27 (H3K27me3) can co-occur at "bivalent" domains in embryonic stem cells. What is the functional significance of these bivalent domains?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: covalent histone modifications Hard
A. They recruit DNA polymerase to origins of replication
B. They mark constitutive heterochromatin for permanent silencing
C. They poise developmental genes for rapid activation or repression upon differentiation
D. They target genes for immediate degradation by the proteasome

48 The "histone code" hypothesis predicts combinatorial readout of modifications. A protein contains both a bromodomain and a chromodomain in tandem. What binding behavior would this predict?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: covalent histone modifications Hard
A. Simultaneous recognition of an acetylated lysine and a methylated lysine, integrating two marks
B. Recognition of unmodified histone tails only
C. Binding to DNA methylation sites rather than histones
D. Exclusive binding to phosphorylated serine residues

49 Histone acetylation generally correlates with transcriptional activation. Beyond neutralizing lysine charge, which additional mechanism most directly contributes to this activation?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: covalent histone modifications Hard
A. Acetylation recruits HP1 to compact the nucleosome array
B. Acetyl-lysine creates docking sites recognized by bromodomain-containing remodelers and coactivators
C. Acetylation directly methylates adjacent DNA to open chromatin
D. Acetylation triggers histone degradation, exposing naked DNA

50 ATP-dependent chromatin remodelers of the SWI/SNF family and the ISWI family differ functionally. Which contrast is correct?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: nucleosome remodelling Hard
A. Both families methylate CpG islands using ATP
B. SWI/SNF can eject or reposition nucleosomes to expose DNA, while ISWI typically spaces nucleosomes into ordered arrays
C. ISWI ejects nucleosomes to open chromatin, while SWI/SNF only compacts it
D. SWI/SNF requires DNA methylation to function, ISWI does not

51 The histone variant H2A.Z is deposited at nucleosomes flanking promoters. Experiments show its incorporation can both activate and repress genes depending on context. Which best explains this dual role?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: nucleosome remodelling Hard
A. H2A.Z permanently prevents any nucleosome turnover at promoters
B. H2A.Z alters nucleosome stability and creates a labile state that can favor either eviction or stable positioning depending on cofactors
C. H2A.Z directly methylates the promoter DNA to silence genes
D. H2A.Z functions only during DNA replication and has no transcriptional role

52 In mammals, DNA methylation is maintained through replication by DNMT1 acting on hemimethylated CpG sites. If DNMT1 were selectively inactivated in a dividing cell population, what pattern would be observed over successive divisions?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: DNA methylation and gene regulation Hard
A. Immediate complete demethylation within a single cell cycle
B. Progressive passive loss of methylation, diluting the mark with each round of replication
C. No change, because DNMT3a/b fully maintain methylation
D. Increased de novo methylation compensating for the loss

53 Methyl-CpG-binding domain proteins (e.g., MeCP2) link DNA methylation to transcriptional repression. Which mechanistic connection is most accurate?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: DNA methylation and gene regulation Hard
A. MeCP2 binds methylated CpGs and recruits histone deacetylase complexes to establish repressive chromatin
B. MeCP2 acetylates histones to open chromatin at methylated sites
C. MeCP2 demethylates DNA to prevent gene silencing
D. MeCP2 directly cleaves methylated DNA to inactivate genes

54 The conversion of 5-methylcytosine (5mC) to 5-hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC) by TET enzymes is a key step in active demethylation. What is the primary fate that ultimately restores unmethylated cytosine?

Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes: DNA methylation and gene regulation Hard
A. Spontaneous reversal of 5hmC back to 5mC without repair
B. Further oxidation to 5fC/5caC followed by base excision repair replacing it with unmodified cytosine
C. Direct enzymatic removal of the methyl group by a demethylase leaving cytosine intact
D. Deamination of 5hmC to uracil incorporated permanently

55 In the RISC complex, an Argonaute protein with catalytic "slicer" activity is required for one silencing outcome but dispensable for another. Which pairing is correct?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: RNA interference - RISC-mediated silencing Hard
A. Slicer activity is required for both cleavage and repression equally
B. Slicer activity is required for translational repression but not for target cleavage
C. Slicer activity is only needed to unwind the siRNA duplex, not for target action
D. Slicer activity is required for target mRNA cleavage (perfect complementarity) but dispensable for translational repression (miRNA-type mismatched pairing)

56 Guide-strand selection during RISC assembly is not random. Which thermodynamic rule predicts which strand of the siRNA duplex is retained as the guide?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: RNA interference - RISC-mediated silencing Hard
A. The longer of the two strands becomes the guide regardless of stability
B. The strand whose 5' end sits at the less thermodynamically stable (weaker base-paired) duplex end is chosen as the guide
C. The strand with the more stable 5' end is always chosen as the guide
D. The strand with more GC content at its 3' end becomes the guide

57 In some organisms RNAi is amplified and spreads systemically. Which enzymatic activity is essential for signal amplification but absent in mammals, explaining the lack of robust systemic RNAi in mammals?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: mechanisms of RNA interference Hard
A. Argonaute, the catalytic core of RISC
B. Dicer, which cleaves long dsRNA into siRNAs
C. Drosha, which processes primary miRNA transcripts
D. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase (RdRP) that synthesizes secondary siRNAs

58 In S. pombe, RNAi contributes to heterochromatin formation at centromeric repeats. Which sequence of events correctly links RNAi to heterochromatin assembly?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: role of heterochromatin in gene silencing Hard
A. siRNAs directly methylate centromeric DNA, which then recruits HP1
B. HP1 binds siRNAs first and then recruits DNA methyltransferases to the centromere
C. siRNAs guide the RITS complex to nascent transcripts, recruiting Clr4 to methylate H3K9, creating HP1/Swi6 binding sites
D. siRNAs acetylate H3K9 to open centromeric chromatin

59 Position-effect variegation (PEV) in Drosophila occurs when a gene is relocated near heterochromatin. What does the mosaic (variegated) expression pattern reveal about heterochromatin spreading?

Mechanism of Gene Silencing: role of heterochromatin in gene silencing Hard
A. The gene is deleted in a random subset of cells, producing patches
B. Heterochromatin spreads a variable distance and is clonally inherited, silencing the gene in some cell lineages but not others
C. Heterochromatin activates the relocated gene stochastically in some cells
D. Heterochromatin uniformly silences the gene in every cell of the organism

60 Cancer genomes often display two seemingly opposite DNA methylation changes simultaneously. Which combination and consequence is correct?

Epigenetic Regulation: epigenetics and cancer Hard
A. Global hypomethylation promoting genomic instability alongside focal hypermethylation silencing tumor suppressor promoters
B. Loss of all methylation genome-wide with no effect on gene expression
C. Global hypermethylation activating oncogenes alongside focal hypomethylation silencing tumor suppressors
D. Uniform hypermethylation of the entire genome silencing all genes equally