Unit 4: DNA Repair Mechanisms and Homologous Recombination - Practice Quiz

BTY426 — Cell And Molecular Biology 60 Questions
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1 Which enzyme directly reverses UV-induced pyrimidine dimers using energy from visible light?

Molecular characterization of repair enzymes in direct repair Easy
A. Endonuclease
B. DNA ligase
C. Photolyase
D. DNA polymerase I

2 The enzyme O-methylguanine-DNA methyltransferase (MGMT) repairs damage by:

Molecular characterization of repair enzymes in direct repair Easy
A. Cutting out the damaged nucleotide
B. Adding a new complementary base
C. Sealing nicks in the backbone
D. Transferring the methyl group to a cysteine residue on itself

3 Direct repair is characterized by:

Molecular characterization of repair enzymes in direct repair Easy
A. Reversing the damage without excising nucleotides
B. Removing and replacing a stretch of nucleotides
C. Using a sister chromatid as template
D. Cleaving both DNA strands

4 Which repair pathway removes small, non-helix-distorting base lesions such as uracil or oxidized bases?

single strand damage repair Easy
A. Nucleotide excision repair (NER)
B. Mismatch repair (MMR)
C. Non-homologous end joining
D. Base excision repair (BER)

5 Which enzyme initiates base excision repair by recognizing and removing a damaged base?

single strand damage repair Easy
A. DNA ligase
B. Helicase
C. Topoisomerase
D. DNA glycosylase

6 Nucleotide excision repair (NER) is best suited to repair which type of lesion?

single strand damage repair Easy
A. Small alkyl groups on guanine
B. Double-strand breaks
C. Bulky, helix-distorting lesions like pyrimidine dimers
D. Single mismatched base pairs

7 The main role of mismatch repair (MMR) is to correct:

single strand damage repair Easy
A. Deaminated cytosine bases
B. Base-base mismatches missed by proofreading during replication
C. UV-induced dimers
D. Double-strand breaks

8 In prokaryotic mismatch repair, which protein recognizes the mismatch?

single strand damage repair Easy
A. RecA
B. DNA gyrase
C. MutS
D. Photolyase

9 Which two major pathways repair double-strand breaks in DNA?

repair of double strand DNA breaks Easy
A. Photoreactivation and mismatch repair
B. Base excision repair and direct repair
C. Homologous recombination and non-homologous end joining
D. Nucleotide excision repair and BER

10 Non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) is considered error-prone because it:

repair of double strand DNA breaks Easy
A. Uses a sister chromatid as template
B. Copies from an intact homolog
C. Directly ligates broken ends without a template
D. Requires extensive strand invasion

11 Homologous recombination repair of double-strand breaks is most accurate because it:

repair of double strand DNA breaks Easy
A. Reverses the damage chemically
B. Uses an undamaged homologous sequence as a template
C. Removes damaged bases only
D. Simply ligates the broken ends

12 During which phases of the cell cycle is homologous recombination most active?

repair of double strand DNA breaks Easy
A. M phase only
B. S and G2 phases
C. G0 phase only
D. G1 phase only

13 Homologous recombination requires which of the following between the participating DNA molecules?

Homologous and site-specific recombination Easy
A. Short specific recognition sites only
B. Single-stranded RNA templates
C. Extensive regions of sequence homology
D. No sequence similarity

14 Site-specific recombination differs from homologous recombination because it:

Homologous and site-specific recombination Easy
A. Occurs only at short specific DNA sequences
B. Requires long homologous regions
C. Needs RecA protein
D. Cannot rearrange DNA

15 The cross-shaped intermediate structure formed during homologous recombination is known as the:

Models for homologous recombination - the Holliday Model Easy
A. Replication fork
B. Primosome
C. Okazaki fragment
D. Holliday junction

16 In the Holliday model, the movement of the crossover point along the DNA is called:

Models for homologous recombination - the Holliday Model Easy
A. Strand invasion
B. Ligation
C. Resolution
D. Branch migration

17 The final step of separating a Holliday junction into two individual DNA duplexes is called:

Models for homologous recombination - the Holliday Model Easy
A. Initiation
B. Replication
C. Branch migration
D. Resolution

18 The RecBCD enzyme complex of E. coli has which combined activities?

RecBCD pathways Easy
A. Helicase and nuclease
B. Ligase and polymerase
C. Glycosylase and methyltransferase
D. Topoisomerase and primase

19 The specific DNA sequence that regulates RecBCD activity and stimulates recombination is called:

RecBCD pathways Easy
A. TATA box
B. Shine-Dalgarno sequence
C. Chi () site
D. Pribnow box

20 Which protein, loaded with the help of the RecBCD pathway, promotes strand invasion during recombination?

RecBCD pathways Easy
A. DNA ligase
B. Photolyase
C. RecA
D. MutH

21 A bacterial culture is exposed to UV light, forming cyclobutane pyrimidine dimers. When the cells are subsequently exposed to visible light (300–500 nm), the dimers are directly reversed. Which enzyme is responsible for this repair, and what cofactor does it use?

Molecular characterization of repair enzymes in direct repair Medium
A. DNA polymerase I, using NAD as an electron donor
B. Uracil-DNA glycosylase, using S-adenosylmethionine
C. AlkB dioxygenase, using -ketoglutarate and Fe(II)
D. Photolyase, using a light-absorbing chromophore such as FADH

22 The enzyme -methylguanine-DNA methyltransferase (MGMT) is often called a 'suicide enzyme.' Why is this label appropriate?

Molecular characterization of repair enzymes in direct repair Medium
A. It cleaves the phosphodiester backbone and then degrades itself
B. It transfers the methyl group to one of its own cysteine residues and is irreversibly inactivated
C. It induces apoptosis in the cell after repairing a single lesion
D. It removes the entire guanine base and cannot be recycled

23 In base excision repair (BER), what is the correct order of enzymatic events after a damaged base is recognized?

single strand damage repair Medium
A. DNA glycosylase removes base AP endonuclease cleaves backbone polymerase fills gap ligase seals nick
B. Ligase seals nick AP endonuclease cleaves glycosylase removes base polymerase fills
C. Polymerase fills gap glycosylase removes base endonuclease cleaves ligase seals
D. AP endonuclease cleaves glycosylase removes base ligase seals polymerase fills

24 A cell has a defect in nucleotide excision repair (NER). Which type of DNA lesion would this cell be LEAST able to remove?

single strand damage repair Medium
A. A double-strand break caused by ionizing radiation
B. A uracil residue arising from cytosine deamination
C. A single mismatched base pair introduced during replication
D. Bulky, helix-distorting lesions such as pyrimidine dimers and chemical adducts

25 In E. coli mismatch repair, the MutH endonuclease preferentially nicks the newly synthesized daughter strand. How does the system distinguish the daughter strand from the template strand?

single strand damage repair Medium
A. The template strand contains uracil, which marks it for protection
B. The daughter strand is methylated at GATC sequences and is therefore cleaved
C. The daughter strand is shorter and recognized by its free 3'-OH end
D. The template strand is methylated at GATC sequences while the transiently unmethylated daughter strand is targeted

26 Non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) and homologous recombination (HR) both repair double-strand breaks. Which statement best distinguishes them?

repair of double strand DNA breaks Medium
A. HR operates only in G1 phase, whereas NHEJ operates only in S/G2 phase
B. NHEJ requires a sister chromatid template, whereas HR ligates ends directly
C. NHEJ directly ligates broken ends and is error-prone, whereas HR uses a homologous template and is generally error-free
D. NHEJ is error-free because it copies from the homologous chromosome

27 In the initial step of homologous recombination in eukaryotes, DSB ends are processed to generate 3' single-stranded overhangs. What is this process called and why is it essential?

repair of double strand DNA breaks Medium
A. End capping; it protects ends from further degradation before ligation
B. Phosphorylation; it activates ligase to seal the break immediately
C. End resection; the 3' ssDNA overhang is required for strand invasion into the homologous duplex
D. Blunting; it removes overhangs so ends can be directly joined

28 Which protein complex in eukaryotes first recognizes a double-strand break and binds the DNA ends during the NHEJ pathway?

repair of double strand DNA breaks Medium
A. MRN (Mre11–Rad50–Nbs1) followed by Rad51 loading
B. Ku70/Ku80 heterodimer
C. PCNA sliding clamp
D. The Holliday junction resolvase RuvC

29 Which statement correctly contrasts homologous recombination with site-specific recombination?

Homologous and site-specific recombination Medium
A. Both require RecA and both act only at GATC sequences
B. Site-specific recombination requires extensive homology, whereas homologous recombination acts at random sites
C. Homologous recombination requires extensive sequence homology, whereas site-specific recombination acts at short specific target sequences recognized by dedicated recombinases
D. Homologous recombination is always conservative while site-specific recombination always deletes DNA

30 Bacteriophage integrates into the E. coli chromosome at the attB/attP sites. What type of recombination is this, and which enzyme catalyzes it?

Homologous and site-specific recombination Medium
A. Direct repair catalyzed by photolyase
B. Site-specific recombination catalyzed by integrase (a tyrosine recombinase)
C. Transposition catalyzed by a transposase
D. Homologous recombination catalyzed by RecA

31 In the Holliday model, the crossed-strand intermediate can move along the DNA as base pairs are broken on one duplex and reformed on the other. What is this process called?

Models for homologous recombination - the Holliday Model Medium
A. Branch migration
B. Nick translation
C. Strand invasion
D. End resection

32 A Holliday junction can be resolved in two ways depending on the orientation of the cuts. What determines whether the flanking markers are recombinant (crossover) or non-recombinant (non-crossover)?

Models for homologous recombination - the Holliday Model Medium
A. Whether the resolvase cuts the crossed (inner) strands or the non-crossed (outer) strands of the junction
B. Whether branch migration occurred in the 5' or 3' direction
C. Whether the junction formed in G1 or S phase
D. Whether the DNA was methylated at the junction point

33 In the classic Holliday model, heteroduplex DNA (a hybrid of strands from two different parental molecules) is formed. Why is heteroduplex DNA biologically significant?

Models for homologous recombination - the Holliday Model Medium
A. It cannot be replicated and is degraded before cell division
B. It is always cleaved by restriction enzymes to terminate recombination
C. It can contain mismatched base pairs that, if repaired, lead to gene conversion
D. It permanently blocks branch migration from proceeding

34 The RecBCD enzyme of E. coli changes its behavior when it encounters a specific sequence called Chi (, 5'-GCTGGTGG-3'). What happens at the Chi site?

RecBCD pathways Medium
A. RecBCD stops unwinding and dissociates completely from the DNA
B. RecBCD begins degrading both strands with equal vigor
C. RecBCD reverses direction and re-anneals the two strands
D. Nuclease activity is attenuated and RecBCD begins to load RecA onto the 3' single-stranded tail

35 Which set of enzymatic activities does the RecBCD complex possess that makes it suited to initiate recombination at double-strand ends?

RecBCD pathways Medium
A. DNA polymerase and ligase activities
B. Helicase (DNA unwinding) and nuclease activities
C. Topoisomerase and primase activities
D. Methyltransferase and glycosylase activities

36 After RecA forms a nucleoprotein filament on single-stranded DNA generated by the RecBCD pathway, what is RecA's primary role in recombination?

RecBCD pathways Medium
A. Cleaving the Holliday junction to release products
B. Sealing nicks in the recombinant DNA
C. Catalyzing homology search and strand invasion/exchange with a homologous duplex
D. Methylating the newly formed heteroduplex to protect it

37 Site-specific recombinases are grouped into two major families based on the catalytic amino acid that forms a covalent bond with DNA. What are these two families?

Conserved site-specific recombination Medium
A. Cysteine recombinases and lysine recombinases
B. Glutamate recombinases and arginine recombinases
C. Histidine recombinases and aspartate recombinases
D. Tyrosine recombinases and serine recombinases

38 During conservative site-specific recombination, why is no DNA synthesis or high-energy cofactor (like ATP) generally required for strand exchange?

Conserved site-specific recombination Medium
A. The energy of the cleaved phosphodiester bond is stored in a covalent protein–DNA intermediate and reused for religation
B. The bases are removed and replaced by direct repair enzymes
C. New nucleotides are added by a polymerase to fill any gaps
D. The reaction is driven entirely by ATP hydrolysis at each step

39 A researcher places two loxP sites in the same (direct/head-to-tail) orientation flanking a target gene. When Cre recombinase is expressed, what is the outcome?

Cre/LoxP recombination Medium
A. The target gene is amplified into multiple tandem copies
B. The two loxP sites are duplicated with no loss of DNA
C. The intervening DNA is inverted but retained in the chromosome
D. The intervening DNA between the loxP sites is excised as a circle, deleting the target gene

40 In a conditional knockout mouse, a gene is 'floxed' and Cre expression is driven by a tissue-specific promoter. What is the main advantage of this Cre/loxP strategy?

Cre/LoxP recombination Medium
A. The gene is randomly mutated to generate diverse phenotypes
B. The gene is deleted only in the tissue where Cre is expressed, allowing study of gene function in a specific cell type
C. The gene is permanently overexpressed in all tissues
D. The gene is deleted in every cell of the body simultaneously

41 The enzyme -methylguanine-DNA methyltransferase (MGMT) removes alkyl groups from guanine. Which feature of its mechanism makes it fundamentally different from a typical catalytic enzyme?

Molecular characterization of repair enzymes in direct repair Hard
A. It creates a transient double-strand break to flip the base for repair
B. It acts stoichiometrically as a suicide enzyme, becoming irreversibly inactivated after a single transfer
C. It requires a flavin cofactor and visible light to excise the alkyl adduct
D. It regenerates its active cysteine after each reaction cycle using ATP hydrolysis

42 DNA photolyase repairs cyclobutane pyrimidine dimers using two chromophores. What is the specific role of the MTHF (or 8-HDF) chromophore relative to the FADH cofactor?

Molecular characterization of repair enzymes in direct repair Hard
A. It binds the dimer and flips it out of the helix into the active site
B. It oxidizes FADH to FAD after the repair reaction is complete
C. It acts as a light-harvesting antenna that transfers excitation energy to FADH
D. It directly injects an electron into the pyrimidine dimer to split it

43 In base excision repair (BER), a bifunctional DNA glycosylase differs from a monofunctional one primarily because it:

single strand damage repair Hard
A. Uses long-patch synthesis exclusively to replace – nucleotides
B. Requires APE1 to incise the phosphodiester backbone before strand displacement
C. Possesses an associated AP lyase activity that nicks the backbone to the AP site
D. Removes the entire nucleotide including the sugar-phosphate in one step

44 In E. coli mismatch repair, strand discrimination relies on hemimethylation. If a mismatch lies bp from a site and MutH nicks the unmethylated strand, which activity is required to remove the intervening tract back to the mismatch?

single strand damage repair Hard
A. MutH endonuclease cleaving repeatedly along the entire tract
B. MutS/MutL-activated helicase II (UvrD) and an exonuclease acting from the nick
C. RecA-mediated strand invasion to relocate the mismatch
D. Pol I nick translation displacing the strand toward the methylated

45 Nucleotide excision repair (NER) in E. coli uses UvrABC. What is the precise nature of the dual incision made by UvrC?

single strand damage repair Hard
A. Makes a single nick to the lesion followed by exonucleolytic degradation
B. Cuts nt and nt of the lesion, releasing a nt oligomer
C. Cuts symmetrically nt on each side, releasing a nt fragment
D. Cuts nt and – nt of the lesion, releasing a – nt oligomer

46 Non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) and homologous recombination (HR) compete for double-strand break repair. Which molecular event most strongly commits a break to the HR pathway?

repair of double strand DNA breaks Hard
A. Binding of the Ku70/Ku80 heterodimer to the blunt ends
B. Ligation by the XRCC4/Ligase IV complex
C. resection of DNA ends generating single-stranded overhangs
D. Recruitment of DNA-PKcs and Artemis to trim the ends

47 During HR, the MRN (Mre11–Rad50–Nbs1) complex initiates resection. Mre11 has a puzzling activity given its role in resection. What is it?

repair of double strand DNA breaks Hard
A. A DNA-dependent ATPase that only tethers the two ends together
B. A flap endonuclease removing overhangs generated by CtIP
C. A helicase that unwinds the duplex ahead of resection
D. A exonuclease and endonuclease that nicks internally to allow bidirectional processing

48 Synthesis-dependent strand annealing (SDSA) is a DSB repair sub-pathway. Why does SDSA produce exclusively non-crossover products?

repair of double strand DNA breaks Hard
A. The invading strand is displaced after synthesis and anneals to the other end, so no Holliday junction persists
B. Both Holliday junctions are always resolved in the crossover orientation
C. The second end is degraded before capture, preventing junction formation
D. Resolvases cleave the junctions symmetrically to prevent exchange

49 Which statement correctly distinguishes homologous from site-specific recombination at the mechanistic level?

Homologous and site-specific recombination Hard
A. Homologous recombination requires extensive sequence identity and DNA synthesis, while site-specific recombination uses short defined sequences and no synthesis
B. Homologous recombination is always conservative while site-specific recombination degrades one duplex
C. Site-specific recombination requires a overhang while homologous recombination uses blunt ends
D. Both require RecA-mediated strand invasion but differ in the length of homology

50 Tyrosine and serine recombinases both catalyze site-specific recombination but form different covalent intermediates. What distinguishes the tyrosine recombinase mechanism?

Homologous and site-specific recombination Hard
A. A -phosphotyrosine linkage is formed and strands are exchanged one pair at a time via a Holliday intermediate
B. A -phosphoserine linkage is formed and all four strands are cut simultaneously
C. It uses a metal-dependent transesterification without a covalent protein–DNA bond
D. It introduces a double-strand break in both duplexes before strand rotation

51 In the classical Holliday model, branch migration of the crossover point has a key consequence for the DNA involved. What is it?

Models for homologous recombination - the Holliday Model Hard
A. It generates heteroduplex DNA of increasing length on both participating duplexes
B. It degrades one strand of each duplex to expose complementary sequences
C. It resolves the junction into two crossover products directly
D. It requires DNA synthesis to fill the migrating gap

52 A single Holliday junction can be resolved by cutting either of two strand pairs. How does the choice of cleavage orientation determine the outcome?

Models for homologous recombination - the Holliday Model Hard
A. Both orientations always yield crossover products regardless of which strands are cut
B. Only cleavage of the outer strands is enzymatically possible, so all products are crossovers
C. Cutting the crossed (inner) strands gives non-crossover flanking markers; cutting the non-crossed (outer) strands gives crossover flanking markers
D. Cutting either pair produces identical patch (non-crossover) products

53 The double-strand-break repair (DSBR) model refined the Holliday model. Why can a single double-Holliday-junction intermediate yield either crossover or non-crossover products?

Models for homologous recombination - the Holliday Model Hard
A. Each of the two junctions can be independently resolved in either orientation, and only specific combinations give crossovers
B. Dissolution by a helicase-topoisomerase always yields crossovers
C. Branch migration alone determines the product without junction cleavage
D. The two junctions always resolve identically, producing only crossovers

54 The RecBCD enzyme changes its behavior upon encountering a site (-GCTGGTGG-). What is the precise molecular change in its nuclease activity?

RecBCD pathways Hard
A. It begins degrading the -ended strand more rapidly, exposing a overhang
B. Vigorous degradation is attenuated and a -ended ssDNA overhang is produced for RecA loading
C. It switches from helicase to a pure exonuclease that degrades both strands equally
D. It dissociates completely, halting all further processing of the DNA

55 The RecB and RecD subunits are both motor proteins that translocate on opposite strands with opposite polarities. Before reaching , which subunit is the faster motor and what is the consequence?

RecBCD pathways Hard
A. Both move at equal speed, so no ssDNA loop forms before
B. RecD () is faster, so the tail forms a loop ahead of the slower RecB
C. RecB () is faster, so the tail loops out ahead of RecD
D. RecC provides the motor while RecB and RecD are purely structural

56 sites are described as functionally polar hotspots for recombination in E. coli. What does 'polar' mean in this context?

RecBCD pathways Hard
A. stimulates recombination only when RecBCD approaches it from a specific orientation (entering from the side)
B. only stimulates recombination in the presence of an external electric field
C. functions equally regardless of the direction RecBCD travels
D. activity depends on the local content of surrounding DNA

57 In bacteriophage integration, Int (a tyrosine recombinase) requires the host factor IHF. What is IHF's essential structural role at ?

Conserved site-specific recombination Hard
A. It supplies energy via ATP hydrolysis to drive strand exchange
B. It methylates to distinguish it from
C. It provides the catalytic tyrosine that attacks the phosphodiester bond
D. It sharply bends the DNA to allow assembly of the higher-order intasome nucleoprotein complex

58 The directionality of recombination (integration vs. excision) is controlled by which factors, and why is excision not simply the reverse of integration?

Conserved site-specific recombination Hard
A. Only Int is needed for both, and the reaction runs identically in reverse
B. Excision additionally requires Xis; the different attachment sites ( vs ) impose distinct protein requirements
C. Integration needs Xis while excision needs only IHF
D. Excision requires RecA-mediated strand invasion whereas integration does not

59 A site is a bp sequence with two bp palindromic arms flanking an bp asymmetric spacer. Two sites in the same (head-to-tail) orientation on a single DNA molecule will be recombined by Cre to give what outcome?

Cre/LoxP recombination Hard
A. Duplication of the intervening sequence in tandem
B. Inversion of the intervening sequence relative to the flanking DNA
C. Excision of the intervening sequence as a circle, leaving one site behind
D. Translocation of the sequence to a different chromosome

60 Cre-mediated excision is intramolecular and produces a circular product plus the deletion allele, yet the reaction is reversible in principle. Why does excision dominate over reintegration in practice?

Cre/LoxP recombination Hard
A. Excision is favored entropically because the released circle diffuses away, making the bimolecular reintegration inefficient
B. The spacer sequence is destroyed during excision, preventing any reverse reaction
C. Reintegration is blocked because the excised circle lacks a functional site
D. Cre only recognizes directly repeated sites during excision but not during integration