B.A tentative statement predicting the relationship between variables
C.A final proven conclusion of a study
D.A list of references used in a study
Correct Answer: A tentative statement predicting the relationship between variables
Explanation:
A hypothesis is a tentative, testable statement that predicts a possible relationship between two or more variables.
Incorrect! Try again.
2Which of the following is a quality of a good hypothesis?
Hypothesis: qualities of a good hypothesis
Easy
A.It should avoid variables
B.It should be testable
C.It should be unmeasurable
D.It should be vague
Correct Answer: It should be testable
Explanation:
A good hypothesis must be testable so that it can be verified or refuted through empirical evidence.
Incorrect! Try again.
3A good hypothesis should be stated in a manner that is:
Hypothesis: qualities of a good hypothesis
Easy
A.Emotional and biased
B.Long and confusing
C.Clear and specific
D.Broad and undefined
Correct Answer: Clear and specific
Explanation:
A good hypothesis is clear and specific so its meaning is unambiguous and it can be tested precisely.
Incorrect! Try again.
4A hypothesis that can be shown to be false through evidence is said to be:
Hypothesis: qualities of a good hypothesis
Easy
A.Unchangeable
B.Permanent
C.Falsifiable
D.Absolute
Correct Answer: Falsifiable
Explanation:
Falsifiability means a hypothesis can be disproved by evidence, which is an essential quality of a scientific hypothesis.
Incorrect! Try again.
5A good hypothesis should be based on which of the following?
Hypothesis: qualities of a good hypothesis
Easy
A.Random guessing
B.Unrelated opinions
C.Personal wishes only
D.Existing knowledge and theory
Correct Answer: Existing knowledge and theory
Explanation:
A sound hypothesis is grounded in prior research, existing theory, and logical reasoning rather than mere guesswork.
Incorrect! Try again.
6The null hypothesis is usually denoted by which symbol?
null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis
Easy
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:
The null hypothesis is conventionally represented as , while the alternative hypothesis is denoted or .
Incorrect! Try again.
7What does a null hypothesis typically state?
null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis
Easy
A.The result is always positive
B.The sample is biased
C.There is no significant difference or relationship
D.There is a strong relationship
Correct Answer: There is no significant difference or relationship
Explanation:
The null hypothesis () states that there is no significant effect, difference, or relationship between variables.
Incorrect! Try again.
8The alternative hypothesis is commonly symbolized as:
null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis
Easy
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:
The alternative hypothesis is denoted by (or ) and represents the statement the researcher wants to support.
Incorrect! Try again.
9Which statement best describes the alternative hypothesis?
null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis
Easy
A.It states there is a significant difference or relationship
B.It states there is no effect at all
C.It cannot be tested
D.It equals the null hypothesis
Correct Answer: It states there is a significant difference or relationship
Explanation:
The alternative hypothesis proposes that a real effect, difference, or relationship exists between variables.
Incorrect! Try again.
10When the null hypothesis is rejected, the researcher generally accepts the:
null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis
Easy
A.Null hypothesis again
B.Alternative hypothesis
C.Original data set
D.Sample size
Correct Answer: Alternative hypothesis
Explanation:
Rejecting the null hypothesis () provides support for the alternative hypothesis ().
Incorrect! Try again.
11The null and alternative hypotheses are described as being:
null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis
Easy
A.Mutually exclusive
B.Always both true
C.Identical statements
D.Unrelated to each other
Correct Answer: Mutually exclusive
Explanation:
The null and alternative hypotheses are mutually exclusive, meaning only one of them can be true at a given time.
Incorrect! Try again.
12Which of the following is an example of a research database?
use of databases
Easy
A.MS Paint
B.Scopus
C.Calculator
D.Notepad
Correct Answer: Scopus
Explanation:
Scopus is a well-known academic database used to search scholarly articles, citations, and journals.
Incorrect! Try again.
13The main purpose of using academic databases in research is to:
use of databases
Easy
A.Play online games
B.Send personal emails
C.Edit photographs
D.Access relevant scholarly literature
Correct Answer: Access relevant scholarly literature
Explanation:
Academic databases help researchers find peer-reviewed articles, journals, and other scholarly sources relevant to their study.
Incorrect! Try again.
14Which database is primarily focused on biomedical and life sciences literature?
use of databases
Easy
A.PubMed
B.Instagram
C.IEEE Store
D.YouTube
Correct Answer: PubMed
Explanation:
PubMed is a free database maintained by the NLM that provides access to biomedical and life sciences literature.
Incorrect! Try again.
15Which of the following is a popular academic search engine?
search engines and research gateways
Easy
A.Google Scholar
B.Gmail
C.Google Maps
D.Google Photos
Correct Answer: Google Scholar
Explanation:
Google Scholar is a widely used academic search engine for scholarly articles, theses, books, and citations.
Incorrect! Try again.
16A research gateway mainly helps users to:
search engines and research gateways
Easy
A.Book flight tickets online
B.Edit spreadsheets
C.Stream movies
D.Access a collection of scholarly resources in one place
Correct Answer: Access a collection of scholarly resources in one place
Explanation:
A research gateway acts as an entry point that organizes and provides access to multiple scholarly resources and databases.
Incorrect! Try again.
17Which of the following is an example of a research networking gateway for academics?
search engines and research gateways
Easy
A.Spotify
B.PowerPoint
C.WhatsApp
D.ResearchGate
Correct Answer: ResearchGate
Explanation:
ResearchGate is a networking platform where researchers share papers, ask questions, and connect with peers.
Incorrect! Try again.
18A Gantt chart is primarily used to represent:
framing of timeline/Gantt chart
Easy
A.Genetic sequences
B.Chemical reactions
C.Financial profit only
D.A project schedule and timeline
Correct Answer: A project schedule and timeline
Explanation:
A Gantt chart is a bar chart that visually displays a project schedule, showing tasks against time.
Incorrect! Try again.
19In a Gantt chart, the horizontal axis usually represents:
framing of timeline/Gantt chart
Easy
A.Weight
B.Temperature
C.Time
D.Cost
Correct Answer: Time
Explanation:
In a Gantt chart, the horizontal axis represents time, while tasks or activities are listed along the vertical axis.
Incorrect! Try again.
20What does each bar in a Gantt chart typically indicate?
framing of timeline/Gantt chart
Easy
A.The budget of a company
B.The number of researchers
C.The duration of a task
D.The location of a lab
Correct Answer: The duration of a task
Explanation:
Each bar in a Gantt chart shows the start, end, and duration of a specific task within the project timeline.
Incorrect! Try again.
21A researcher states: "Better teaching improves outcomes." A methodology reviewer rejects this as a poor hypothesis. Which quality is it most clearly missing?
Hypothesis: qualities of a good hypothesis
Medium
A.Testability through measurable variables
B.Alignment with a theoretical framework
C.Consistency with prior literature
D.Relevance to the research problem
Correct Answer: Testability through measurable variables
Explanation:
Terms like "better teaching" and "outcomes" are vague and cannot be operationalized or measured, so the statement fails the testability requirement of a good hypothesis.
Incorrect! Try again.
22Two competing hypotheses explain the same data equally well. According to the principle of parsimony, which should a researcher prefer?
Hypothesis: qualities of a good hypothesis
Medium
A.The one that is hardest to test
B.The one with fewer assumptions
C.The one with more variables
D.The one proposed most recently
Correct Answer: The one with fewer assumptions
Explanation:
Parsimony (Occam's razor) favors the simpler hypothesis that makes fewer assumptions when explanatory power is equal.
Incorrect! Try again.
23Which hypothesis best demonstrates the quality of being specific and stating a clear relationship between variables?
Hypothesis: qualities of a good hypothesis
Medium
A.Students who sleep at least 7 hours score higher on exams than those who sleep less
B.Sleep affects how students perform in various ways
C.Sleep and academic life are connected somehow
D.Good sleep is generally helpful for students
Correct Answer: Students who sleep at least 7 hours score higher on exams than those who sleep less
Explanation:
It names the variables (sleep duration, exam scores), specifies a directional relationship, and can be measured, satisfying specificity and testability.
Incorrect! Try again.
24A hypothesis is described as "falsifiable." What does this quality require?
Hypothesis: qualities of a good hypothesis
Medium
A.It has already been proven true
B.It cannot be contradicted by any evidence
C.It is based only on personal opinion
D.It can be proven false by observation or data
Correct Answer: It can be proven false by observation or data
Explanation:
Falsifiability means the hypothesis is stated so that empirical evidence could potentially disprove it; unfalsifiable claims are not scientifically useful.
Incorrect! Try again.
25A researcher writes a hypothesis so broad it cannot be completed within the available time and resources. Which quality of a good hypothesis is violated?
Hypothesis: qualities of a good hypothesis
Medium
A.Empirical basis
B.Logical consistency
C.Simplicity of language
D.Feasibility of investigation
Correct Answer: Feasibility of investigation
Explanation:
A good hypothesis must be feasible to test given practical constraints such as time, cost, and available data; an untestable scope violates feasibility.
Incorrect! Try again.
26A study tests whether a new drug changes average blood pressure. The null hypothesis is most appropriately written as:
null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis
Medium
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:
The null hypothesis states there is no effect or no difference, so the two group means are equal. Inequalities belong to the alternative hypothesis.
Incorrect! Try again.
27A researcher predicts that a training program will increase productivity. The alternative hypothesis should be written as:
null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis
Medium
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:
A directional prediction of an increase gives a one-tailed alternative hypothesis where the after-mean is greater than the before-mean.
Incorrect! Try again.
28In hypothesis testing, a Type I error occurs when a researcher:
null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis
Medium
A.Rejects a true null hypothesis
B.Accepts a true alternative hypothesis
C.Correctly rejects a false null hypothesis
D.Fails to reject a false null hypothesis
Correct Answer: Rejects a true null hypothesis
Explanation:
A Type I error (false positive) is rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true. Failing to reject a false null is a Type II error.
Incorrect! Try again.
29A test yields a p-value of with a significance level of . What is the correct decision?
null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis
Medium
A.Increase the sample size before deciding
B.Accept the null hypothesis as proven
C.Fail to reject the null hypothesis
D.Reject the null hypothesis
Correct Answer: Reject the null hypothesis
Explanation:
Since , the result is statistically significant, so the null hypothesis is rejected in favor of the alternative.
Incorrect! Try again.
30Why do researchers test the null hypothesis rather than directly proving the alternative hypothesis?
null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis
Medium
A.The alternative has no mathematical form
B.The null is always easier to calculate
C.Statistical software only accepts null values
D.A hypothesis can be disproven but never conclusively proven
Correct Answer: A hypothesis can be disproven but never conclusively proven
Explanation:
Statistical logic allows us to reject (disprove) the null with evidence, but we can never absolutely prove a hypothesis true, so testing proceeds through the null.
Incorrect! Try again.
31A two-tailed test uses the alternative hypothesis . What does the two-tailed form indicate about the prediction?
null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis
Medium
A.A difference is expected but its direction is not specified
B.The mean is expected to decrease only
C.The mean is expected to increase only
D.No difference from 50 is expected at all
Correct Answer: A difference is expected but its direction is not specified
Explanation:
The sign covers both higher and lower values, so a two-tailed test detects a difference in either direction without predicting which way.
Incorrect! Try again.
32A student needs peer-reviewed, full-text journal articles on clinical medicine. Which resource is most appropriate?
use of databases
Medium
A.A public social media page
B.A subscription academic database like PubMed
C.A personal blog aggregator
D.A general web forum thread
Correct Answer: A subscription academic database like PubMed
Explanation:
Academic databases such as PubMed index peer-reviewed scholarly literature with quality control, unlike open forums, blogs, or social media.
Incorrect! Try again.
33A researcher wants to retrieve records containing both "climate" and "agriculture." Which Boolean operator should be used?
use of databases
Medium
A.climate NOT agriculture
B.climate AND agriculture
C.climate NEAR nothing
D.climate OR agriculture
Correct Answer: climate AND agriculture
Explanation:
The AND operator narrows a search to records that contain both terms, whereas OR broadens and NOT excludes terms.
Incorrect! Try again.
34In a database search, applying the truncation symbol as in educat* will retrieve which set of terms?
use of databases
Medium
A.only the exact word educat
B.education, educator, educating
C.education but not educator
D.words ending in educat
Correct Answer: education, educator, educating
Explanation:
Truncation retrieves all words sharing the root before the symbol, capturing variant endings like education, educator, and educating.
Incorrect! Try again.
35A researcher gets 40,000 results for a query. Which strategy will most effectively narrow the results?
use of databases
Medium
A.Remove all keywords and search broadly
B.Add filters and combine terms with AND
C.Use only single common words
D.Replace AND with OR between terms
Correct Answer: Add filters and combine terms with AND
Explanation:
Applying filters (date, subject, document type) and using AND to require multiple concepts reduces irrelevant hits and narrows results.
Incorrect! Try again.
36How does an academic search engine like Google Scholar mainly differ from a general search engine like Google?
search engines and research gateways
Medium
A.It only returns social media posts
B.It ranks pages purely by advertising revenue
C.It excludes all citation information
D.It indexes scholarly literature and citations rather than general web pages
Correct Answer: It indexes scholarly literature and citations rather than general web pages
Explanation:
Google Scholar focuses on academic sources—articles, theses, and citations—while a general search engine indexes the broader web.
Incorrect! Try again.
37A research gateway (subject portal) is most useful to a researcher because it:
search engines and research gateways
Medium
A.Returns the highest number of unfiltered hits
B.Replaces the need for any peer review
C.Organizes curated, evaluated resources for a specific discipline
D.Blocks access to all journal articles
Correct Answer: Organizes curated, evaluated resources for a specific discipline
Explanation:
Research gateways provide selected, quality-assessed resources grouped by subject, saving time compared to sifting raw search results.
Incorrect! Try again.
38Which practice best helps a researcher evaluate the credibility of a source found through a web search engine?
search engines and research gateways
Medium
A.Counting the number of images on the page
B.Choosing the page with the brightest design
C.Trusting the first result returned
D.Checking the author's credentials and the publisher
Correct Answer: Checking the author's credentials and the publisher
Explanation:
Credibility depends on authority and reliability—author expertise and reputable publishers—not on ranking position or visual appeal.
Incorrect! Try again.
39In a Gantt chart, the horizontal length of a bar most directly represents:
framing of timeline/Gantt chart
Medium
A.The number of team members
B.The duration of a task
C.The cost of a task
D.The priority level of a task
Correct Answer: The duration of a task
Explanation:
A Gantt chart plots tasks against time; each bar's length along the time axis shows how long the task takes from start to finish.
Incorrect! Try again.
40Two tasks in a Gantt chart overlap on the timeline. What does this overlap indicate?
framing of timeline/Gantt chart
Medium
A.One task cannot start until the other ends
B.The tasks run concurrently during that period
C.The tasks require the same budget
D.The tasks have been cancelled
Correct Answer: The tasks run concurrently during that period
Explanation:
Overlapping bars mean the tasks are scheduled to happen at the same time (in parallel) rather than strictly one after another.
Incorrect! Try again.
41A researcher sets and obtains , rejecting . A colleague later reveals the researcher ran the analysis five separate times on subsets, reporting only the significant result. What is the most accurate critique of this conclusion?
null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis
Hard
A.The -value should be recomputed using a one-tailed test instead
B.The power of the test was too low to justify rejection
C.The effective Type I error rate is inflated well above due to multiple comparisons
D.The null hypothesis was correctly rejected since
Correct Answer: The effective Type I error rate is inflated well above due to multiple comparisons
Explanation:
Running multiple tests and reporting only significant ones (data dredging) inflates the family-wise error rate. With five tests, the chance of at least one false positive rises to roughly , far above the nominal .
Incorrect! Try again.
42Which pairing of hypotheses is logically invalid for a two-sample mean comparison?
null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis
Hard
A. and
B. and
C. and
D. and
Correct Answer: and
Explanation:
The null hypothesis must contain the equality (=, ≥, or ≤) because it specifies a fixed sampling distribution to test against. Placing the inequality in and equality in reverses the required structure and cannot define a testable null.
Incorrect! Try again.
43A study with finds a statistically significant difference () between two groups, but the effect size is Cohen's . What is the correct interpretation?
null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis
Hard
A.The result is statistically significant but likely practically negligible
B.The large sample guarantees the effect is practically important
C.The null hypothesis should be accepted despite the small -value
D.The effect size indicates a Type II error occurred
Correct Answer: The result is statistically significant but likely practically negligible
Explanation:
Very large samples can make trivial differences statistically significant. A is a negligible effect, so despite , the finding has little practical importance. Significance and practical relevance are distinct.
Incorrect! Try again.
44Consider the hypothesis: "Improved wellbeing leads to better outcomes in society." Which quality of a good hypothesis does it most fundamentally violate?
qualities of a good hypothesis
Hard
A.Alignment with the research title
B.Consistency with existing theory
C.Operational definability of its variables
D.Grammatical correctness of statement
Correct Answer: Operational definability of its variables
Explanation:
Terms like "wellbeing," "better outcomes," and "society" are vague and not operationally defined, making the hypothesis untestable and unmeasurable. A good hypothesis must specify variables in measurable, observable terms.
Incorrect! Try again.
45Two hypotheses explain the same phenomenon equally well and both fit available data. Hypothesis A assumes three interacting mechanisms; Hypothesis B assumes one. On what principle should a researcher prefer B, and what is the key caveat?
qualities of a good hypothesis
Hard
A.Parsimony; but simplicity must not override empirical adequacy
B.Falsifiability; but B must first be proven true
C.Generality; but B applies to fewer cases
D.Testability; but A is inherently more testable
Correct Answer: Parsimony; but simplicity must not override empirical adequacy
Explanation:
The principle of parsimony (Occam's razor) favors the simpler explanation when explanatory power is equal. The caveat is that parsimony cannot be used to discard a more complex hypothesis if it better accounts for the evidence.
Incorrect! Try again.
46A hypothesis states: "There either is or is not a relationship between diet and heart disease." Why does this fail as a scientific hypothesis?
qualities of a good hypothesis
Hard
A.It fails to specify the confidence level in advance
B.It is unfalsifiable because no observation could contradict it
C.It confuses correlation with causation
D.It lacks a directional prediction about the relationship
Correct Answer: It is unfalsifiable because no observation could contradict it
Explanation:
The statement is a tautology covering all possible outcomes, so no evidence could ever refute it. Falsifiability requires that some conceivable observation could prove the hypothesis wrong.
Incorrect! Try again.
47A researcher fails to reject at . Which statement about this outcome is correct?
null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis
Hard
A.The null hypothesis has been proven correct with 95% certainty
B.A Type I error has definitely been avoided
C.The alternative hypothesis is false
D.The data provide insufficient evidence against , not proof that is true
Correct Answer: The data provide insufficient evidence against , not proof that is true
Explanation:
Failing to reject means the evidence was not strong enough to reject it; it never proves true. Absence of evidence is not evidence of absence, and the true effect may simply be undetected.
Incorrect! Try again.
48In a clinical trial, the cost of a Type II error (missing a truly effective drug) is judged far more severe than a Type I error. What adjustment best reflects this priority?
null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis
Hard
A.Decrease to below to be more conservative
B.Increase and increase sample size to raise statistical power
C.Reject regardless of the -value
D.Use a two-tailed test instead of one-tailed
Correct Answer: Increase and increase sample size to raise statistical power
Explanation:
Power () reduces Type II error. Increasing raises power (though it raises Type I risk), and increasing sample size raises power without that tradeoff. When missing a true effect is costlier, prioritizing power is appropriate.
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49A one-tailed test uses . During analysis the sample mean turns out to be well below 100. The researcher then switches to to capture significance. Why is this invalid?
null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis
Hard
A.The sample mean below 100 automatically confirms
B.One-tailed tests cannot be converted to any other form
C.Hypotheses must be fixed before data collection to preserve the error rate
D.Switching direction requires a larger sample size only
Correct Answer: Hypotheses must be fixed before data collection to preserve the error rate
Explanation:
Choosing the direction of after seeing the data (HARKing) doubles the effective Type I error rate and invalidates the test's probabilistic guarantees. Directional hypotheses must be specified a priori.
Incorrect! Try again.
50A researcher needs peer-reviewed, indexed articles with citation-tracking and impact metrics across multiple disciplines. Which resource type is most appropriate, and why not a general web search engine?
use of databases
Hard
A.A general search engine, because it indexes more total pages
B.A social media platform, because it surfaces recent discussion
C.A personal blog aggregator, because it is updated frequently
D.A curated bibliographic database, because it offers controlled indexing and quality filtering
Correct Answer: A curated bibliographic database, because it offers controlled indexing and quality filtering
Explanation:
Bibliographic databases (like Scopus or Web of Science) index vetted, peer-reviewed literature with metadata, controlled vocabularies, and citation metrics. General search engines lack quality control and return unfiltered, non-scholarly content.
Incorrect! Try again.
51In a search engine, the query education AND (online OR remote) NOT primary will return records that contain:
search engines and research gateways
Hard
A.any of the four terms in any combination
B."education", "online", "remote", and "primary" all together
C."education" only, ignoring all other operators
D."education" plus at least one of "online" or "remote", but exclude any with "primary"
Correct Answer: "education" plus at least one of "online" or "remote", but exclude any with "primary"
Explanation:
Boolean logic evaluates the grouped OR first (online or remote), requires "education" via AND, and removes any record containing "primary" via NOT. Parentheses control operator precedence.
Incorrect! Try again.
52A researcher's search returns thousands of irrelevant results because a keyword has multiple meanings (e.g., "depression" as mood vs. economics). Which combined strategy best improves precision?
search engines and research gateways
Hard
A.Broaden the search using truncation and wildcards
B.Add context terms with AND and apply subject-specific field or database filters
C.Replace all Boolean operators with OR to capture more results
D.Remove all filters to let the algorithm rank relevance
Correct Answer: Add context terms with AND and apply subject-specific field or database filters
Explanation:
Combining disambiguating context terms via AND with discipline-specific filters narrows results to the intended sense of the keyword, improving precision. Broadening or removing filters would worsen the noise.
Incorrect! Try again.
53Which statement best distinguishes a research gateway (subject portal) from a general search engine?
search engines and research gateways
Hard
A.A gateway ranks pages purely by inbound link popularity
B.A gateway crawls the entire open web automatically
C.A gateway offers a curated, discipline-focused collection vetted by experts
D.A gateway only indexes non-academic commercial sites
Correct Answer: A gateway offers a curated, discipline-focused collection vetted by experts
Explanation:
Research gateways (subject gateways) provide human-selected, quality-assessed resources organized around a discipline. General search engines rely on automated crawling and algorithmic ranking without editorial curation.
Incorrect! Try again.
54A systematic reviewer searches only one database and reports comprehensive coverage. What is the primary methodological flaw?
No single database indexes all relevant literature; each has distinct coverage. Relying on one introduces selection bias and undermines the comprehensiveness required for a systematic review, so multiple databases should be searched.
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55In a Gantt chart, Task C cannot begin until both Task A and Task B finish. Task A takes 4 weeks, Task B takes 6 weeks, and they start simultaneously at week 0. When can Task C start?
framing of timeline/Gantt chart
Hard
A.Week 0
B.Week 10
C.Week 4
D.Week 6
Correct Answer: Week 6
Explanation:
With a finish-to-start dependency on both predecessors running in parallel from week 0, Task C waits for the later finisher. Task B ends at week 6 (later than A's week 4), so C starts at week 6.
Incorrect! Try again.
56A project has a critical path of 20 weeks. A non-critical task has 5 weeks of slack (float). If that task is delayed by 7 weeks, what is the effect on the project's overall duration?
framing of timeline/Gantt chart
Hard
A.The project duration is unaffected because the task had slack
B.The project shortens by 2 weeks
C.The project extends by the full 7 weeks
D.The project extends by 2 weeks as the task now becomes critical
Correct Answer: The project extends by 2 weeks as the task now becomes critical
Explanation:
Slack absorbs the first 5 weeks of delay with no impact. The remaining 2 weeks exceed the float, pushing the task onto the critical path and extending the total project by 2 weeks.
Incorrect! Try again.
57Which feature of a Gantt chart is essential for identifying which task delays will directly push back the project deadline?
framing of timeline/Gantt chart
Hard
A.Explicit dependency links revealing the critical path
B.Color coding of each team member's tasks
C.The chart's overall aspect ratio
D.A legend describing task categories
Correct Answer: Explicit dependency links revealing the critical path
Explanation:
Dependency links let you trace the critical path, the longest chain of dependent tasks with zero slack. Delays on critical-path tasks directly delay the deadline, while cosmetic features like color or legends do not convey this.
Incorrect! Try again.
58A student builds a Gantt chart where every task starts on day 1 and all run in parallel with no dependencies. What is the most serious planning defect this reveals?
framing of timeline/Gantt chart
Hard
A.It uses too few colors to distinguish tasks
B.It ignores logical sequencing and resource constraints among tasks
C.It shows tasks that are individually too short
D.It fails to include a project title
Correct Answer: It ignores logical sequencing and resource constraints among tasks
Explanation:
Real projects have tasks that depend on one another and compete for limited resources. Scheduling everything in parallel from day 1 ignores these constraints, making the timeline unrealistic and unusable for management.
Incorrect! Try again.
59A researcher proposes a hypothesis so broad it predicts a relationship among dozens of loosely defined variables at once. Beyond testability, which quality is most compromised?
qualities of a good hypothesis
Hard
A.Novelty, which requires an original idea
B.Brevity, which shortens the wording
C.Relevance, which links it to the field
D.Specificity, which enables clear and focused empirical testing
Correct Answer: Specificity, which enables clear and focused empirical testing
Explanation:
A good hypothesis should be specific and focused, predicting a clear relationship between well-defined variables. Overly broad, multi-variable statements lack the specificity needed to design a targeted, interpretable test.
Incorrect! Try again.
60A meta-analyst notes that a body of studies overwhelmingly reports significant results supporting , with almost no null findings published. What bias most threatens the validity of pooling these results?
null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis
Hard
A.Recall bias affecting the participants
B.Confirmation bias in the statistical software
C.Sampling bias within each individual study
D.Publication bias, since non-significant results are underreported
Correct Answer: Publication bias, since non-significant results are underreported
Explanation:
Publication bias (the file-drawer problem) arises when studies failing to reject go unpublished. Pooling only significant results overstates the true effect, distorting the meta-analytic conclusion.
Incorrect! Try again.
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