1A contract of sale of goods is a contract whereby the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property in goods to the buyer for a ____.
meaning of contract of Sale
Easy
A.Service
B.Barter
C.Price
D.Favour
Correct Answer: Price
Explanation:
According to the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, the consideration for a contract of sale must be money, which is referred to as the 'price'.
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2Which of the following is an essential element of a contract of sale?
meaning of contract of Sale
Easy
A.Transfer of ownership
B.The contract must be in writing
C.A third-party witness
D.The goods must be new
Correct Answer: Transfer of ownership
Explanation:
The primary purpose of a contract of sale is the transfer of property (ownership) in the goods from the seller to the buyer.
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3In a 'Sale', the transfer of ownership of the goods from the seller to the buyer is ____.
sale and Agreement to sell
Easy
A.Delayed by one week
B.Immediate
C.In the future
D.Conditional
Correct Answer: Immediate
Explanation:
A 'sale' is an executed contract where the ownership of the goods passes to the buyer at the moment the contract is made.
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4An 'Agreement to Sell' is a type of contract where the transfer of property in goods is to take place at ____.
sale and Agreement to sell
Easy
A.The exact moment the agreement is signed
B.The time of advertisement
C.A future time or subject to some condition
D.The time of manufacturing
Correct Answer: A future time or subject to some condition
Explanation:
Unlike a sale, an 'agreement to sell' is an executory contract, meaning the ownership transfer is postponed to a future date or until certain conditions are met.
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5If goods are accidentally destroyed, the loss generally falls on the buyer in which scenario?
sale and Agreement to sell
Easy
A.A contract of bailment
B.A Sale
C.An Agreement to Sell
D.A hire-purchase agreement
Correct Answer: A Sale
Explanation:
In a sale, ownership and risk pass to the buyer simultaneously. Therefore, if the goods are destroyed, the buyer bears the loss.
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6In the Sale of Goods Act, the term 'property in goods' primarily means ____.
transfer of property
Easy
A.Physical possession of goods
B.Quality of goods
C.Location of goods
D.Ownership of goods
Correct Answer: Ownership of goods
Explanation:
The term 'property in goods' refers to the legal title or ownership, not merely the physical custody or possession of the goods.
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7For specific goods in a deliverable state, when does the property (ownership) pass to the buyer?
transfer of property
Easy
A.When the goods are delivered
B.When the price is paid
C.At the time the contract is made
D.After one week of the contract
Correct Answer: At the time the contract is made
Explanation:
According to Section 20 of the Act, for specific goods ready for delivery, ownership passes at the time of the contract, regardless of the timing of payment or delivery.
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8A stipulation that is essential to the main purpose of the contract is known as a ____.
conditions and warranties
Easy
A.Clause
B.Guarantee
C.Warranty
D.Condition
Correct Answer: Condition
Explanation:
A condition is a fundamental term of the contract, the breach of which gives the aggrieved party the right to repudiate (cancel) the contract.
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9A stipulation that is collateral (secondary) to the main purpose of the contract is known as a ____.
conditions and warranties
Easy
A.Offer
B.Promise
C.Condition
D.Warranty
Correct Answer: Warranty
Explanation:
A warranty is a secondary stipulation. If a warranty is breached, the aggrieved party can only claim damages and cannot cancel the contract.
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10In a sale by description, there is an implied condition that the goods must ____.
conditions and warranties
Easy
A.Correspond with the description
B.Be the cheapest available
C.Have a 5-year guarantee
D.Be delivered for free
Correct Answer: Correspond with the description
Explanation:
Section 15 of the Sale of Goods Act implies a condition that if you buy goods based on a description, the goods supplied must match that description.
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11The Latin phrase 'Caveat Emptor' means:
doctrine of caveat emptor
Easy
A.Let the buyer beware
B.Let the seller beware
C.The contract is final
D.For the good of the public
Correct Answer: Let the buyer beware
Explanation:
This principle places the responsibility on the buyer to examine the goods carefully and make sure they are suitable for their purpose before making a purchase.
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12The rule of Caveat Emptor generally applies unless ____.
doctrine of caveat emptor
Easy
A.The buyer relies on the seller's skill and judgement
B.The sale happens online
C.The buyer pays in cash
D.The goods are expensive
Correct Answer: The buyer relies on the seller's skill and judgement
Explanation:
An important exception to 'Caveat Emptor' is when the buyer informs the seller of the purpose for the goods and relies on their expertise, creating an implied condition of fitness.
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13An 'unpaid seller' is a seller who has not been paid ____.
rights of an unpaid seller
Easy
A.The whole of the price
B.Any interest
C.A tip
D.The delivery charges
Correct Answer: The whole of the price
Explanation:
An unpaid seller is one to whom the whole of the price has not been paid or tendered, or when a bill of exchange has been dishonoured.
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14The right of an unpaid seller to retain possession of the goods until the price is paid is called the right of ____.
rights of an unpaid seller
Easy
A.Lien
B.Resale
C.Stoppage in transit
D.Sue for price
Correct Answer: Lien
Explanation:
The right of lien allows the unpaid seller, who is in possession of the goods, to hold onto them as security until the full payment is made by the buyer.
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15The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, replaced the earlier act of which year?
Consumer Protection Act , 2019
Easy
A.2002
B.1991
C.1986
D.1956
Correct Answer: 1986
Explanation:
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is a new and more comprehensive legislation that replaced the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
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16Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, a 'consumer' is a person who buys goods for ____.
definitions and rights of consumer
Easy
A.Consideration, for personal use
B.A commercial purpose
C.Resale in the market
D.Free distribution
Correct Answer: Consideration, for personal use
Explanation:
The definition of a 'consumer' requires that the goods are bought for a price (consideration) and are not intended for resale or any commercial purpose.
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17Which of the following is a fundamental right of a consumer under the Consumer Protection Act?
definitions and rights of consumer
Easy
A.Right to Safety
B.Right to free delivery
C.Right to bargain
D.Right to a discount
Correct Answer: Right to Safety
Explanation:
The Right to Safety protects consumers against goods and services that are hazardous to life and property. It is one of the six basic consumer rights.
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18The right to be heard and to be assured that consumer's interests will receive due consideration at appropriate forums is called the ____.
definitions and rights of consumer
Easy
A.Right to Seek Redressal
B.Right to be Heard
C.Right to Choose
D.Right to Information
Correct Answer: Right to be Heard
Explanation:
This right ensures that consumers' complaints and concerns are listened to and considered in the decision-making process related to consumer welfare.
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19Which is the apex body in the three-tier consumer dispute redressal machinery in India?
Correct Answer: National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC)
Explanation:
The NCDRC is the top-level consumer court in the country, handling appeals from the State Commissions and cases of the highest pecuniary jurisdiction.
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20A consumer complaint regarding goods or services valued up to ₹1 crore can be filed in the ____.
consumer dispute redressal agencies
Easy
A.High Court
B.National Commission
C.District Commission
D.State Commission
Correct Answer: District Commission
Explanation:
As per the pecuniary jurisdiction defined in the Consumer Protection Act 2019, the District Commission has the authority to hear complaints where the value of goods or services paid as consideration does not exceed one crore rupees.
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21A farmer agrees to sell his entire crop of wheat for the upcoming season to a miller at a fixed price per quintal. The wheat is yet to be grown. What type of contract is this according to the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?
sale and Agreement to sell
Medium
A.A valid sale, as the price is fixed.
B.A void contract, as the subject matter is not in existence.
C.An agreement to sell, as it relates to future goods.
D.A quasi-contract, as the goods are contingent.
Correct Answer: An agreement to sell, as it relates to future goods.
Explanation:
This is an agreement to sell. According to Section 4(3) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, a contract for the sale of future goods (goods to be manufactured, produced, or acquired by the seller after the contract is made) operates as an agreement to sell. The sale occurs only when the goods come into existence and are appropriated to the contract.
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22Priya buys a specific, identified laptop from an electronics store. She pays for it and is told she can pick it up the next day after the store installs some software she requested. A fire breaks out in the store overnight and the laptop is destroyed. Who bears the loss of the laptop?
transfer of property
Medium
A.Both Priya and the store equally, as it was an unforeseen accident.
B.The store, because the laptop was not in a deliverable state until the software was installed.
C.The store, because the laptop was still in their physical possession.
D.Priya, because the property in the goods had passed to her at the time of the contract.
Correct Answer: The store, because the laptop was not in a deliverable state until the software was installed.
Explanation:
According to Section 21 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, if the seller is bound to do something to the goods for the purpose of putting them into a deliverable state, the property does not pass until such thing is done and the buyer has notice thereof. Since the software installation was pending, the laptop was not in a deliverable state. Therefore, the property (and the risk) had not yet passed to Priya, and the store bears the loss.
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23A customer buys a car from a dealer, who states that the car gives a mileage of "25 km/l". The customer later finds that the car's mileage is only 15 km/l. If the statement about mileage was a fundamental part of the contract, the customer can treat this breach as a:
conditions and warranties
Medium
A.Breach of a collateral stipulation, allowing for a price reduction only.
B.A simple misrepresentation, with no legal remedy under the Sale of Goods Act.
C.Breach of condition, and can repudiate the contract.
D.Breach of warranty, and can only claim damages.
Correct Answer: Breach of condition, and can repudiate the contract.
Explanation:
A statement that is essential to the main purpose of the contract is a 'condition' (Section 12(2)). A breach of a condition gives the aggrieved party the right to repudiate the contract and reject the goods. A 'warranty' is a stipulation collateral to the main purpose, and its breach only gives rise to a claim for damages. Since mileage is often a fundamental factor in a car purchase, its gross misstatement would be treated as a breach of condition.
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24Rohan buys a used motorcycle from a private seller, Sameer. Rohan briefly inspects it but fails to notice a significant engine defect that was not actively concealed by Sameer. The engine fails a week later. Under the doctrine of Caveat Emptor, what is Rohan's legal position?
doctrine of caveat emptor
Medium
A.Rohan can sue Sameer for a full refund as the motorcycle was defective.
B.Rohan has no remedy against Sameer, as he had the opportunity to inspect the goods.
C.Sameer is responsible because he sold a faulty product.
D.Rohan can claim damages for the cost of repair under an implied warranty of quality.
Correct Answer: Rohan has no remedy against Sameer, as he had the opportunity to inspect the goods.
Explanation:
The doctrine of Caveat Emptor ('let the buyer beware') places the responsibility on the buyer to examine the goods for any defects. In a private sale of used goods where the buyer has the opportunity to inspect and the defect is not hidden by fraud, the risk of such defects falls on the buyer. There is no implied warranty of quality in such a private sale.
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25'A' sells 100 bags of cement to 'B' on credit. The goods are in transit with a carrier. Before the goods are delivered to 'B', 'A' learns that 'B' has become insolvent. What is the most appropriate right 'A' can exercise in this situation?
rights of an unpaid seller
Medium
A.Right of resale of goods.
B.Right of stoppage in transit.
C.Right to sue the buyer for damages.
D.Right of lien on the goods.
Correct Answer: Right of stoppage in transit.
Explanation:
The right of stoppage in transit (Section 50) is available to an unpaid seller when the buyer becomes insolvent and the goods are in the course of transit. The right of lien is lost once the seller parts with possession by handing goods to a carrier. The right of resale can be exercised after stoppage. Suing for damages is also an option, but stopping the goods is the immediate and effective remedy to mitigate loss.
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26An e-commerce platform based in the USA sells a product to a consumer in India. The product turns out to be defective. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, can the Indian consumer file a complaint against the foreign-based e-commerce platform in India?
Consumer Protection Act , 2019
Medium
A.No, because the platform is not registered in India.
B.Yes, but only in an international court of justice.
C.Yes, because the CPA, 2019 has extra-territorial jurisdiction over platforms conducting business in India.
D.No, unless the platform has a physical office in the consumer's city.
Correct Answer: Yes, because the CPA, 2019 has extra-territorial jurisdiction over platforms conducting business in India.
Explanation:
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, has broadened its scope significantly. It has extra-territorial jurisdiction, meaning it can apply to e-commerce platforms located outside India if they systematically conduct business in India or offer goods/services to consumers in India. This makes them liable under the Act for defective products or services.
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27Mr. Sharma purchased a television for ₹75 lakhs, which turned out to be defective. He wants to file a complaint to seek a replacement. According to the pecuniary jurisdiction under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 (as per current rules), which forum should Mr. Sharma approach?
consumer dispute redressal agencies
Medium
A.The Supreme Court of India directly.
B.The District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission.
C.The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission.
D.The State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission.
Correct Answer: The State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission.
Explanation:
Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the pecuniary jurisdictions have been revised. Currently, the District Commission handles cases where the value of goods or services paid as consideration does not exceed ₹50 lakhs; the State Commission handles cases from above ₹50 lakhs up to ₹2 crores; and the National Commission handles cases above ₹2 crores. Since the value is ₹75 lakhs, the complaint should be filed with the State Commission.
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28A seller agrees to sell 50 tonnes of oil from a larger tank containing 500 tonnes. The buyer pays the price. The seller is supposed to separate the 50 tonnes for the buyer. Before the seller separates the oil, the entire tank is destroyed. Who bears the loss of the 50 tonnes of oil?
transfer of property
Medium
A.The buyer, because they have paid the price.
B.The seller, because the goods were not ascertained.
C.The loss is shared equally between the buyer and seller.
D.The carrier, who was supposed to transport the oil.
Correct Answer: The seller, because the goods were not ascertained.
Explanation:
This contract is for unascertained goods. According to Section 18 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, the property in unascertained goods does not pass to the buyer until the goods are ascertained and appropriated to the contract. Since the 50 tonnes were never separated from the bulk, they were not ascertained. Therefore, the property (and the risk) remained with the seller.
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29Which of the following statements accurately distinguishes a 'Sale' from an 'Agreement to Sell'?
sale and Agreement to sell
Medium
A.In a 'Sale', the risk of loss passes to the buyer immediately, whereas in an 'Agreement to Sell', it generally remains with the seller.
B.An 'Agreement to Sell' creates a right in rem (against the goods), while a 'Sale' creates a right in personam (against the person).
C.A 'Sale' is an executory contract, while an 'Agreement to Sell' is an executed contract.
D.A 'Sale' can be for both existing and future goods, while an 'Agreement to Sell' is only for existing goods.
Correct Answer: In a 'Sale', the risk of loss passes to the buyer immediately, whereas in an 'Agreement to Sell', it generally remains with the seller.
Explanation:
A 'Sale' is an executed contract where property and risk pass immediately to the buyer. An 'Agreement to Sell' is an executory contract where property and risk pass at a future time or on fulfillment of a condition. Thus, the risk of loss (res perit domino) remains with the seller until the agreement becomes a sale. Option A and C are reversed. Option D is incorrect; a sale is for existing goods, while an agreement to sell can be for future or contingent goods.
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30An unpaid seller exercises his right of lien on goods. While the goods are in his possession, the buyer still fails to pay. Can the seller resell the goods to another party?
rights of an unpaid seller
Medium
A.Yes, if the goods are of a perishable nature or if he gives notice to the buyer of his intention to resell.
B.Yes, but only after obtaining a court order to do so.
C.No, because exercising the right of lien terminates the contract of sale.
D.No, the seller can only retain the goods but cannot resell them.
Correct Answer: Yes, if the goods are of a perishable nature or if he gives notice to the buyer of his intention to resell.
Explanation:
According to Section 54 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, an unpaid seller who has exercised his right of lien can resell the goods. This is permissible if the goods are perishable or if the seller gives reasonable notice to the original buyer of his intention to resell, and the buyer does not pay within a reasonable time.
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31A buyer purchases seeds from a seller, describing them as "early-maturing cabbage seeds." The seeds supplied are of a different, late-maturing variety. As a result, the buyer's entire crop is lost. What is the buyer's primary remedy?
conditions and warranties
Medium
A.The buyer can only claim a refund for the price of the seeds, as it's a breach of warranty.
B.The buyer can repudiate the contract and also claim damages for the loss of the crop.
C.The buyer must accept the seeds as per the doctrine of caveat emptor.
D.The buyer can only ask for the correct seeds to be delivered next season.
Correct Answer: The buyer can repudiate the contract and also claim damages for the loss of the crop.
Explanation:
This is a breach of a condition as to description (Section 15). The goods must correspond with the description. Since the seeds did not match the description and this was fundamental to the contract, it constitutes a breach of condition. The buyer can not only reject the goods but can also claim damages for the loss suffered as a direct consequence of the breach, which includes the loss of the expected crop.
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32Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, who among the following is NOT considered a "consumer"?
definitions and rights of consumer
Medium
A.A person who buys goods for the purpose of resale in their shop.
B.A person who buys a laptop for personal use.
C.A person who obtains a service like banking for personal use.
D.A small law firm that buys a printer for use in its office.
Correct Answer: A person who buys goods for the purpose of resale in their shop.
Explanation:
Section 2(7) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, explicitly excludes a person who obtains goods for resale or for any commercial purpose from the definition of a "consumer". While a firm buying a printer might seem commercial, the Act clarifies that "commercial purpose" does not include using goods exclusively for earning one's livelihood by means of self-employment. Buying for resale is a clear exclusion.
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33Which of the following scenarios represents a valid exception to the Doctrine of Caveat Emptor?
doctrine of caveat emptor
Medium
A.A buyer orders a "waterproof trekking jacket" from a reputed seller, but it leaks heavily in the rain.
B.A buyer purchases a painting at an auction without inspecting it, and it turns out to be a fake.
C.A buyer knowingly purchases a second-hand phone with a cracked screen for a lower price.
D.A buyer purchases a car after a test drive and later discovers a minor scratch he missed.
Correct Answer: A buyer orders a "waterproof trekking jacket" from a reputed seller, but it leaks heavily in the rain.
Explanation:
An important exception to Caveat Emptor is the 'Condition as to Merchantable Quality' (Section 16(2)). When goods are bought by description from a seller who deals in goods of that description, there is an implied condition that the goods shall be of merchantable quality. A waterproof jacket that is not waterproof is not of merchantable quality, thus invoking this exception. The other options represent cases where the doctrine would likely apply.
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34'S' sells his car to 'B' but is allowed to retain possession for a week. During this week, 'S' fraudulently sells and delivers the same car to 'C', who buys it in good faith and without notice of the previous sale to 'B'. Who has the legal title to the car?
transfer of property
Medium
A.'B', because he was the first buyer.
B.Both 'B' and 'C' have a joint claim against 'S'.
C.'S', because he never delivered the car to 'B'.
D.'C', because he is a bona fide purchaser for value from a seller in possession.
Correct Answer: 'C', because he is a bona fide purchaser for value from a seller in possession.
Explanation:
This situation is covered by Section 30(1) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 (Sale by seller in possession after sale). It states that if a person has sold goods but continues to be in possession of them, the delivery of the goods to a subsequent buyer who receives them in good faith and without notice of the previous sale has the same effect as if the seller were expressly authorized by the original owner. Therefore, 'C' gets a good title, and 'B's remedy is to sue 'S' for damages.
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35An unpaid seller's "right of lien" on the goods is lost under which of the following circumstances?
rights of an unpaid seller
Medium
A.When the buyer becomes insolvent before paying the price.
B.When the buyer requests a delayed delivery.
C.When the seller delivers the goods to a carrier for transmission to the buyer, without reserving the right of disposal.
D.When the price of the goods is yet to be paid.
Correct Answer: When the seller delivers the goods to a carrier for transmission to the buyer, without reserving the right of disposal.
Explanation:
According to Section 49(1)(a) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, the unpaid seller's lien is lost when he delivers the goods to a carrier or other bailee for the purpose of transmission to the buyer without reserving the right of disposal of the goods. In this case, possession is lawfully transferred from the seller, and the lien, which depends on possession, is terminated.
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36Which of the following transactions would be governed by the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?
meaning of contract of Sale
Medium
A.The sale of standing timber which is agreed to be severed from the land before sale.
B.The transfer of a house through a sale deed.
C.A contract to paint a portrait for a fixed price.
D.A hire-purchase agreement for a refrigerator.
Correct Answer: The sale of standing timber which is agreed to be severed from the land before sale.
Explanation:
The Sale of Goods Act, 1930, applies to 'goods'. Section 2(7) defines goods as every kind of movable property. It explicitly includes 'things attached to or forming part of the land which are agreed to be severed before sale or under the contract of sale.' Standing timber agreed to be severed fits this definition. A contract for skill and labor (A), transfer of immovable property (B), and a hire-purchase agreement (C) are not contracts of sale under this Act.
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37What is a key feature of 'Mediation' as introduced under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
consumer dispute redressal agencies
Medium
A.The mediator has the power to impose a penalty on the party at fault.
B.It is a mandatory first step before any complaint can be filed with a Commission.
C.Mediation can only be initiated by the National Commission.
D.Any settlement reached through mediation is legally binding on both parties and cannot be appealed.
Correct Answer: Any settlement reached through mediation is legally binding on both parties and cannot be appealed.
Explanation:
Chapter V of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, introduces mediation as an Alternate Dispute Resolution mechanism. A key feature, as per Section 81, is that if a settlement is reached between the parties, it is recorded and signed, and it becomes final and binding. No appeal can be made against such a settlement. It is not mandatory (a commission refers the matter to mediation), the mediator facilitates (does not impose penalties), and it can be initiated at any level (District, State, or National).
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38A buyer informs a seller that he needs a specific type of industrial adhesive that can withstand high temperatures for a particular manufacturing process. The seller, who deals in adhesives, supplies a product that fails at high temperatures, causing damage. The seller has breached which implied stipulation?
conditions and warranties
Medium
A.Implied warranty as to quiet possession.
B.Implied condition as to fitness for a particular purpose.
C.Implied warranty as to freedom from encumbrances.
D.Implied condition as to title.
Correct Answer: Implied condition as to fitness for a particular purpose.
Explanation:
This is a classic example of a breach of the implied condition as to fitness for a particular purpose under Section 16(1) of the Sale of Goods Act. The buyer expressly made known the purpose for which the goods were required and relied on the seller's skill and judgment. The goods supplied were not reasonably fit for that purpose; hence, the seller is liable for the breach.
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39The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, introduced the concept of "Product Liability". This means a consumer can seek compensation for harm caused by a defective product from:
definitions and rights of consumer
Medium
A.The product manufacturer, product service provider, or product seller.
B.Only the manufacturer of the product.
C.Only the retailer who sold the product.
D.The government agency responsible for product standards.
Correct Answer: The product manufacturer, product service provider, or product seller.
Explanation:
"Product Liability" under the CPA, 2019 (Section 2(34)) holds the product manufacturer, product service provider, and product seller jointly or severally responsible for any harm caused to a consumer by a defective product. This creates a chain of responsibility, making it easier for the consumer to seek compensation from various entities in the supply chain.
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40A library agrees to give some of its old, rare books to a museum in exchange for a collection of historical artifacts. Does this transaction constitute a 'contract of sale' under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?
meaning of contract of Sale
Medium
A.Yes, if the value of the books and artifacts can be ascertained in monetary terms.
B.No, because the consideration is not money, but goods (barter).
C.No, because museums and libraries are non-profit and not considered 'sellers'.
D.Yes, because there is a transfer of ownership of goods.
Correct Answer: No, because the consideration is not money, but goods (barter).
Explanation:
According to Section 4(1) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, a contract of sale requires a 'price' as consideration. Section 2(10) defines 'price' as the money consideration for a sale of goods. Since the consideration here is goods for goods (an exchange or barter), it does not meet the essential requirement of a money consideration and is therefore not a contract of sale governed by the Act, even if the goods are valued in money for accounting purposes.
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41A wine merchant in Nashik agrees to sell 100 specific cases of 'Vintage 2020' wine to a buyer in Delhi. The contract requires the merchant to bottle, label, and pack the wine into these cases and then provide notice to the buyer that the goods are ready for dispatch. The merchant completes the bottling and packing and places the cases in a designated corner of his warehouse marked with the buyer's name. Before he can send the notice, a fire destroys the entire warehouse. Who bears the loss and why?
transfer of property
Hard
A.The loss is shared equally between the buyer and seller as per equitable principles.
B.The carrier is liable as the goods were ready for dispatch.
C.The buyer bears the loss, as the goods were ascertained and appropriated to the contract.
D.The seller bears the loss, as the property had not passed to the buyer.
Correct Answer: The seller bears the loss, as the property had not passed to the buyer.
Explanation:
According to Section 23 of the Sale of Goods Act, for unascertained or future goods, property passes when goods of that description and in a deliverable state are unconditionally appropriated to the contract. Here, the appropriation was not 'unconditional' because a key condition of the contract – giving notice to the buyer – had not yet been fulfilled. Therefore, the property in the goods had not passed to the buyer, and the risk remained with the seller. The loss falls on the owner, which was still the seller.
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42An unpaid seller, 'A', delivers a bill of lading for a consignment of goods to the buyer, 'B'. 'B', who is now insolvent, transfers the bill of lading to 'C' in settlement of a pre-existing debt. 'A' attempts to exercise his right of stoppage in transit. Is 'A's action valid against 'C'?
rights of an unpaid seller
Hard
A.Yes, because the transfer to 'C' was for a past consideration (a pre-existing debt), not for new value.
B.No, because once the bill of lading is delivered to the buyer, the right of stoppage is permanently lost.
C.Yes, because 'B' was insolvent at the time of transfer, rendering the transfer invalid against 'A'.
D.No, because 'C' is a bona fide holder of the document of title for value.
Correct Answer: Yes, because the transfer to 'C' was for a past consideration (a pre-existing debt), not for new value.
Explanation:
This is a nuanced application of the proviso to Section 53(1) of the Sale of Goods Act. The right of stoppage in transit is defeated by a transfer of the bill of lading to a bona fide purchaser 'for value'. While a pre-existing debt is valid consideration to form a contract, a long-standing legal interpretation holds that for defeating the seller's right of stoppage, the transfer must be for new or present consideration. Transferring it for a past debt does not qualify 'C' as a transferee for value in this specific context, so 'A's right of stoppage remains intact.
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43A consumer files a complaint with the District Commission for a claim of ₹80 Lakhs, and the commission awards ₹40 Lakhs in compensation. The opposing party, not satisfied, wishes to appeal to the State Commission. What is the mandatory pre-condition for the State Commission to entertain the appeal?
consumer dispute redressal agencies
Hard
A.A deposit of 50% of the original claim amount (₹40 Lakhs).
B.A deposit of 25% of the awarded amount (₹10 Lakhs).
C.No deposit is required if the appeal is based solely on a question of law.
D.A deposit of 50% of the awarded amount (₹20 Lakhs).
Correct Answer: A deposit of 50% of the awarded amount (₹20 Lakhs).
Explanation:
According to Section 41 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, an appeal can be filed from the order of the District Commission to the State Commission. The proviso to this section mandates that no appeal by a person who is required to pay any amount in terms of an order of the District Commission shall be entertained by the State Commission unless the appellant has deposited fifty per cent of that amount. Here, the amount awarded is ₹40 Lakhs, so the required deposit is 50% of that, which is ₹20 Lakhs.
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44A buyer purchases a commercial printing machine, specifying to the seller that it must be capable of printing on a particular type of glossy paper. The contract includes an express warranty for one year against manufacturing defects. The machine works perfectly on all other paper types but fails to print on the specified glossy paper. The buyer uses the machine for two months for other jobs. What is the buyer's most effective legal remedy?
conditions and warranties
Hard
A.Claim damages for breach of warranty only, as he has accepted and used the goods.
B.Force the seller to repair the machine under the express warranty.
C.No remedy, as the machine is otherwise of merchantable quality and the express warranty covers defects, not capabilities.
D.Repudiate the entire contract and claim a full refund, as there is a breach of a condition.
Correct Answer: Claim damages for breach of warranty only, as he has accepted and used the goods.
Explanation:
The machine's capability to print on the specified paper was an implied condition as to fitness for a particular purpose under Section 16(1). A breach of condition normally allows the buyer to repudiate the contract. However, under Section 13(2), once the buyer has accepted the goods (by using them for two months without rejection), he loses the right to repudiate the contract. The breach of condition is then treated as a breach of warranty, for which the only remedy is to claim damages, not rejection of the goods.
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45A purchases a packaged and branded health supplement from B, a chemist. A relies on the trade name 'VitaBoost' and does not specify any particular purpose. The supplement, while unadulterated and safe for consumption, is later proven to be completely ineffective for general health improvement, a fact widely known in the medical community but not to the general public. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the legal situation?
doctrine of caveat emptor
Hard
A.The doctrine of Caveat Emptor applies fully, and A has no remedy whatsoever as he got what he asked for.
B.The doctrine of Caveat Emptor applies due to the sale under a trade name; hence, there is no implied condition as to its fitness for any particular purpose.
C.There is a breach of the implied condition of merchantable quality because an ineffective supplement is not commercially saleable as such.
D.There is a breach of the implied condition of fitness for purpose because A implicitly relied on B's skill.
Correct Answer: The doctrine of Caveat Emptor applies due to the sale under a trade name; hence, there is no implied condition as to its fitness for any particular purpose.
Explanation:
The proviso to Section 16(1) of the Sale of Goods Act is a key exception to the implied condition of fitness. It states that for a sale of a specified article under its patent or trade name, there is no implied condition as to its fitness for any particular purpose. The buyer is assumed to be relying on the brand's reputation, not the seller's judgment. While there might be an argument for a breach of merchantable quality, it's weaker because the product isn't defective, just ineffective. The most direct and applicable principle is the trade name exception, which supports the doctrine of caveat emptor in this specific context.
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46'X' agrees to sell to 'Y' all the mangoes that will be produced in his orchard next year for a lump sum price of ₹5,00,000. Due to an unexpected pest infestation, which was not the fault of 'X', the crop yield is only 10% of the normal output. 'X' tenders the small harvest to 'Y'. 'Y' refuses to accept and sues 'X' for damages for non-delivery of the expected quantity. What is the likely outcome?
sale and Agreement to sell
Hard
A.The contract is void as the specific goods (the expected crop) have substantially perished before the risk passed to the buyer.
B.'X' is liable for damages because he failed to deliver the quantity implicitly promised.
C.'Y' must accept the 10% yield and pay a proportionate amount of the price.
D.The contract is voidable at the option of 'Y', who can choose to either accept the goods or claim damages.
Correct Answer: The contract is void as the specific goods (the expected crop) have substantially perished before the risk passed to the buyer.
Explanation:
This scenario falls under Section 8 of the Sale of Goods Act, which deals with goods perishing before sale but after an agreement to sell. The contract was for specific goods (the crop from a particular orchard), which have, for commercial purposes, 'perished' or ceased to match the contract description due to the infestation. As this happened without any fault of the seller or buyer, the agreement becomes void. 'X' is not liable for non-delivery, and 'Y' is not obligated to accept the diminished yield.
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47An advocate hires a junior lawyer to assist him with legal research for his professional practice by providing access to a paid online legal database account. The junior lawyer provides substandard work, causing a financial loss. The senior advocate files a complaint against the online database provider for 'deficiency in service', arguing their platform is difficult to use. Is the complaint maintainable under the CPA, 2019?
definitions and rights of consumer
Hard
A.No, because legal services are exempt from the CPA, 2019.
B.Yes, but only if the advocate can prove the service was also used for personal, non-professional work.
C.Yes, because access to an online database is a service for consideration, and issues with the platform constitute a deficiency.
D.No, because the service was availed for a 'commercial purpose' as it was for his professional practice.
Correct Answer: No, because the service was availed for a 'commercial purpose' as it was for his professional practice.
Explanation:
Under Section 2(7) of the CPA 2019, a person who avails services for any 'commercial purpose' is not a consumer. The Explanation to Section 2(7) exempts services used 'exclusively for the purpose of earning his livelihood by means of self-employment'. While a lawyer's profession is a form of self-employment, courts have interpreted that running a professional practice with the intent of profit on a larger scale, such as hiring juniors and using extensive tools, goes beyond merely earning a livelihood and falls into the category of a commercial purpose, thus excluding them from the definition of a consumer in this context.
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48An unpaid seller exercises his right of lien on goods still in his possession. The buyer subsequently tenders the full price of the goods, but not the incidental expenses the seller incurred for storage during the lien period. The seller refuses to deliver the goods until the storage charges are also paid. Is the seller's refusal legally justified?
rights of an unpaid seller
Hard
A.No, because tendering the price of the goods automatically terminates the lien.
B.No, the seller cannot claim storage charges unless there is a specific agreement to that effect.
C.Yes, the right of lien extends to cover all reasonable charges incurred in its exercise.
D.Yes, but only if the buyer has become insolvent.
Correct Answer: No, the seller cannot claim storage charges unless there is a specific agreement to that effect.
Explanation:
Section 47 of the Sale of Goods Act grants the seller a lien for the 'price' of the goods. Section 55(1) allows a suit for the price. However, the Act does not grant the seller the right to claim damages or charges for the custody of the goods during the exercise of the lien. While the seller can sue for such charges separately under a different contractual claim (if agreed upon), he cannot hold onto the goods under the right of lien for non-payment of these additional charges once the actual price has been tendered.
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49'S' has 50 identical milling machines in his warehouse. 'B' agrees to buy 5 of them and pays the full price. The contract requires 'S' to tag the 5 machines with 'B's name before 'B' arranges for pickup. 'S' tags 3 machines. Before he can tag the other 2, a government order requisitions all untagged machines in the warehouse. Which statement accurately reflects the ownership status?
transfer of property
Hard
A.Property in none of the machines passed to 'B' as the appropriation was incomplete.
B.Property in the 3 tagged machines passed to 'B'; property in the 2 untagged machines remains with 'S'.
C.Property in all 5 machines remains with 'S' until 'B' takes physical delivery.
D.Property in all 5 machines passed to 'B' upon payment.
Correct Answer: Property in the 3 tagged machines passed to 'B'; property in the 2 untagged machines remains with 'S'.
Explanation:
This is a sale of unascertained goods. According to Section 23, property passes when goods matching the contract description are in a deliverable state and are unconditionally appropriated to the contract, either by the seller with the buyer's assent or vice versa. The act of tagging the machines with the buyer's name is a clear and final act of unconditional appropriation. This was only done for 3 machines. For the other 2, no such act occurred. Therefore, property passed only for the 3 tagged machines, and they belong to 'B', while the other 2 still belong to 'S' and are subject to the government order.
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50The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA), upon investigation, issues an order directing a company to cease a misleading advertisement and imposes a penalty of ₹10 Lakhs. The company, aggrieved by this order, wishes to appeal. To which body must the appeal be filed?
consumer dispute redressal agencies
Hard
A.The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC).
B.A specially constituted Appellate Tribunal under the CPA, 2019.
C.The Supreme Court of India.
D.The High Court of the relevant jurisdiction.
Correct Answer: The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC).
Explanation:
Section 24(1) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, clearly specifies the appellate authority for orders passed by the Central Authority (CCPA). It states that 'Any person aggrieved by any order passed by the Central Authority under sections 20 and 21 may file an appeal to the National Commission within a period of thirty days from the date of receipt of such order.' Therefore, the correct forum for appeal is the NCDRC, not a High Court or the Supreme Court directly.
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51'A' buys a painting from 'B', an art dealer, which both parties genuinely believe to be an original work by a famous artist. The sale agreement includes a clause stating "the seller warrants that the painting is an authentic work". A year later, it's proven to be a very clever fake, worth only a fraction of the price paid. Can 'A' return the painting and claim a full refund?
conditions and warranties
Hard
A.No, because the mistake was mutual, the contract is voidable for mistake but not breach.
B.Yes, but only if 'A' can prove that 'B' knowingly misrepresented the painting's authenticity.
C.No, 'A' can only claim damages for breach of warranty, which is the difference in value.
D.Yes, because the authenticity is a fundamental condition, and its breach allows repudiation, regardless of the word "warrants".
Correct Answer: Yes, because the authenticity is a fundamental condition, and its breach allows repudiation, regardless of the word "warrants".
Explanation:
In contract law, the courts look to the substance and importance of a term, not just the label used by the parties. A term that goes to the very root or identity of the subject matter is a condition, even if the parties call it a warranty. The authenticity of a specific painting by a famous artist is fundamental to the contract. Its falsity constitutes a total failure of consideration. Therefore, it is a breach of a condition, entitling the buyer to repudiate the contract, return the painting, and claim a full refund.
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52A buyer purchases timber from a seller after inspecting it. The timber has a hidden defect (dry rot) that could not be discovered by ordinary visual inspection. The seller was unaware of the defect. The timber is later found to be unsuitable for the buyer's construction purpose. The seller claims the principle of caveat emptor applies as the buyer had inspected the goods. Is the seller's claim valid?
doctrine of caveat emptor
Hard
A.Yes, because the seller was also unaware of the defect, so there was no fraud or misrepresentation.
B.Yes, inspection by the buyer negates all implied conditions and validates the caveat emptor principle.
C.No, because there is an implied condition of merchantable quality which is breached by a latent defect not discoverable by reasonable examination.
D.No, because the sale of timber always implies a condition of fitness for construction purposes.
Correct Answer: No, because there is an implied condition of merchantable quality which is breached by a latent defect not discoverable by reasonable examination.
Explanation:
This is a classic exception to the doctrine of caveat emptor. Section 16(2) provides an implied condition that goods must be of 'merchantable quality'. The proviso to this section states that if the buyer has examined the goods, there is no implied condition as regards defects which such examination ought to have revealed. However, this proviso does not apply to latent defects, i.e., those which a reasonable examination would not have revealed. Since the dry rot was a hidden defect, the implied condition of merchantable quality was breached, and the seller is liable.
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53'A' agrees to sell his specific vintage car to 'B' for ₹5 Lakhs. The contract is contingent upon the car winning an upcoming vintage car rally. The car wins the rally. Before 'B' can take possession or make payment, 'A' receives a higher offer of ₹7 Lakhs from 'C' and sells and delivers the car to 'C', who is unaware of the prior contract with 'B'. What is 'B's primary remedy?
sale and Agreement to sell
Hard
A.'B' can only sue 'A' for damages for non-delivery of the car.
B.'B' can sue 'C' and recover the car, as 'B' became the owner the moment the rally was won.
C.'B' can obtain a court order for specific performance, compelling 'A' to get the car from 'C' and deliver it to 'B'.
D.'B' can sue both 'A' for breach and 'C' for inducing the breach of contract.
Correct Answer: 'B' can only sue 'A' for damages for non-delivery of the car.
Explanation:
The agreement to sell became a sale the moment the contingency occurred (winning the rally). At this point, the property in the car passed to 'B' in principle. However, Section 30 of the Sale of Goods Act protects a subsequent bona fide purchaser. Since 'A' was a seller in possession of the goods after the sale and sold them to 'C', who bought them in good faith and without notice of the previous sale, 'C' gets a good title to the car. Therefore, 'B' cannot recover the car from 'C'. 'B's only remedy is against the seller, 'A', for breach of contract, and the usual remedy is damages for non-delivery.
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54A housing cooperative society purchases a large water purifier for its common facilities, to be used by all its resident members. The purifier turns out to be defective. The manufacturer argues that the society is not a 'consumer' because the purchase is for a group, not an individual, and thus constitutes a commercial activity. Is the society's complaint legally valid?
definitions and rights of consumer
Hard
A.The complaint is valid only if each member files an individual complaint for their share of the loss.
B.No, the complaint is invalid as the society is an artificial person, and the purpose is commercial.
C.The complaint is invalid because the Consumer Protection Act only covers goods and services for individual or household use.
D.Yes, the complaint is valid because a registered cooperative society is a 'person' and the purifier is for the collective use of its members, not for resale or profit.
Correct Answer: Yes, the complaint is valid because a registered cooperative society is a 'person' and the purifier is for the collective use of its members, not for resale or profit.
Explanation:
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, provides a broad definition of who can be a complainant. Section 2(31) defines a 'person' to include 'a co-operative society'. Section 2(7) defines a 'consumer'. A cooperative society can be a consumer if it buys goods or avails services for its members' collective use. This is not considered a 'commercial purpose' because the ultimate aim is not to generate profit from the use of the purifier but to provide a common amenity to its members. Therefore, the society is a valid consumer and can maintain the complaint.
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55A buyer in Mumbai orders 500 boxes of a specific brand of apples from a seller in Shimla, with the contract stating F.O.B. (Free on Board) Shimla. The seller loads the 500 boxes onto a truck arranged by the buyer. En route to Mumbai, the truck meets with an accident, and the apples are destroyed. The seller has not yet been paid. Who is legally required to bear the loss of the apples?
transfer of property
Hard
A.The seller, because the payment was not made and delivery was not completed to the buyer's premises.
B.The buyer, because under an F.O.B. contract, risk and property pass to the buyer once the goods are loaded onto the carrier.
C.The loss should be shared between the buyer and seller as the transaction was incomplete.
D.The carrier, as the loss occurred while the goods were in their custody.
Correct Answer: The buyer, because under an F.O.B. contract, risk and property pass to the buyer once the goods are loaded onto the carrier.
Explanation:
An F.O.B. (Free on Board) contract is a specific type of sale contract where the seller's responsibility ends once the goods are placed 'on board' the transport arranged by the buyer at the agreed location (here, Shimla). At this point, both the property in the goods and the risk of loss pass to the buyer. The delivery to the carrier is treated as delivery to the buyer. Therefore, even though the goods were destroyed before reaching Mumbai and before payment, the buyer is the owner and bears the loss.
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56An unpaid seller, 'S', exercises his right of stoppage in transit upon learning of the buyer's insolvency. He sends a notice to the carrier company's head office. However, before the head office can communicate the instruction to the delivery driver, the driver delivers the goods to the buyer, 'B'. 'B' immediately pledges the goods to 'P' for a loan. What right does 'S' now have?
rights of an unpaid seller
Hard
A.'S' can sue 'B' for the price and also recover the goods from 'P'.
B.'S' can only sue the carrier for damages caused by the wrongful delivery.
C.'S' can recover the goods from 'P' because the delivery was wrongful.
D.'S' can claim the price from 'B's insolvent estate and has no other remedy.
Correct Answer: 'S' can only sue the carrier for damages caused by the wrongful delivery.
Explanation:
The right of stoppage is exercised by giving notice to the carrier. Once a valid notice is given, the carrier is obligated not to deliver the goods to the buyer. Delivering them after receiving notice is a wrongful act (conversion). However, the seller's right is against the goods in transit. Once delivery occurs (even if wrongful) and the goods are further transferred to a bona fide pledgee ('P') for value, the seller cannot recover the goods from 'P'. The seller's primary remedy shifts from the goods to the party that committed the wrong - the carrier who failed to act on the stoppage notice. S can sue the carrier for the loss suffered.
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57A manufacturer produces a pressure cooker with a known faulty valve design but does not issue a recall. A consumer buys this cooker from a retail store. The retailer was unaware of the hidden design defect. The cooker explodes, causing severe injury. Under the 'product liability' provisions of the CPA 2019, which of the following is true?
Consumer Protection Act , 2019
Hard
A.Only the retailer is liable as they were the direct point of sale.
B.The consumer can sue the product manufacturer directly for the harm caused, but the retailer is exempt from liability in this specific case.
C.Both the manufacturer and the retailer are jointly and severally liable for the injury.
D.No one is liable if the consumer cannot prove the retailer knew about the defect.
Correct Answer: The consumer can sue the product manufacturer directly for the harm caused, but the retailer is exempt from liability in this specific case.
Explanation:
The CPA, 2019, introduces specific provisions for 'product liability'. While a product seller (the retailer) can be liable, Section 86 lays down several exceptions. Section 86(1) states a product seller shall not be liable if, at the time of harm, the product was sold in a sealed container or the product seller did not alter or modify the product, and the product manufacturer is identified. Since this is a manufacturing design defect and the retailer is merely a seller who did not alter the product, the liability falls squarely on the product manufacturer under Section 84. The retailer would be exempt.
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58A person buys a high-end camera for ₹2 Lakhs. He uses it predominantly for his hobby of wildlife photography but occasionally sells a few photographs online to supplement his income. The camera proves to be defective. The manufacturer argues he is not a 'consumer' because the sale of photographs constitutes a commercial purpose. Is this argument valid?
definitions and rights of consumer
Hard
A.No, the argument is invalid because the primary use is personal (hobby), and the occasional sale can be considered part of earning a livelihood, which is an exception.
B.The argument is valid only if the income from photographs exceeds 50% of his total income.
C.It depends on whether he is registered as a business for tax purposes.
D.Yes, any activity that generates revenue is a commercial purpose, disqualifying him as a consumer.
Correct Answer: No, the argument is invalid because the primary use is personal (hobby), and the occasional sale can be considered part of earning a livelihood, which is an exception.
Explanation:
The 'commercial purpose' exclusion under Section 2(7) of the CPA, 2019, has been interpreted by courts to mean activity on a large scale for the purpose of making a profit. The Explanation to the section also provides an exception for goods used 'exclusively for the purpose of earning his livelihood by means of self-employment'. Here, the predominant use is for a hobby, and the occasional sale of photos does not transform the user into a large-scale commercial enterprise. It is more akin to earning a livelihood or a supplementary income, which does not disqualify him from being a consumer.
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59A complaint is filed with a State Commission. The opposing party, during the proceedings, makes an offer of settlement which the complainant accepts. They jointly file a settlement application. The State Commission, however, believes the settlement is unfair to the consumer and refuses to pass an order in terms of the settlement. Can the Commission legally do this?
consumer dispute redressal agencies
Hard
A.No, once a settlement is reached, the Commission is bound to record it and dispose of the case.
B.No, the Commission can only suggest modifications but cannot outright reject a mutually agreed settlement.
C.Yes, under the CPA 2019, the Commission can reject a settlement if it finds the terms to be unjust and continue with the adjudication.
D.Yes, but only if the settlement involves a product that is inherently dangerous to public health.
Correct Answer: Yes, under the CPA 2019, the Commission can reject a settlement if it finds the terms to be unjust and continue with the adjudication.
Explanation:
The CPA, 2019, introduced mediation as a formal process. Section 37 allows the commissions to refer matters to mediation. However, Section 81(2), which deals with the recording of settlement, gives the commission discretionary power. It states that where an agreement is reached, the parties shall reduce it to writing, and the commission shall pass a suitable order. The term 'suitable order' implies that the commission is not a mere rubber stamp. If it perceives the settlement to be coercive, unjust, or against public policy, it has the inherent power to refuse to endorse it and may decide to proceed with the hearing of the complaint on its merits to ensure justice is done.
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60A agrees to buy a specific vintage motorcycle from B for ₹2,00,000. The contract states that B will restore the motorcycle to a specific pristine condition and then A will pay and take delivery. After B spends ₹50,000 on restoration but before the work is fully complete, the motorcycle is destroyed in a fire in B's workshop, through no fault of B. What is the legal status of the contract?
sale and Agreement to sell
Hard
A.The contract is valid, and B is liable to procure a similar motorcycle for A.
B.The contract is void, and B must bear the loss of the motorcycle and his restoration costs.
C.A must pay a proportionate price for the restoration work completed before the fire.
D.A must pay B the original price plus the restoration cost, as the motorcycle was specific.
Correct Answer: The contract is void, and B must bear the loss of the motorcycle and his restoration costs.
Explanation:
This scenario is governed by Section 7 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930. The contract was for the sale of specific goods. However, for the property to pass, the goods needed to be put into a deliverable state as per the contract (fully restored). Since the goods perished without any fault of the seller or buyer before they were in a deliverable state and thus before the property and risk could pass to the buyer, the contract becomes void. The loss falls on the owner at the time of destruction, which was still B.