Unit 4 - Practice Quiz

BSL201 60 Questions
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1 A contract of sale of goods is a contract whereby the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property in goods to the buyer for a ____.

meaning of contract of Sale Easy
A. Service
B. Barter
C. Price
D. Favour

2 Which of the following is an essential element of a contract of sale?

meaning of contract of Sale Easy
A. Transfer of ownership
B. The contract must be in writing
C. A third-party witness
D. The goods must be new

3 In a 'Sale', the transfer of ownership of the goods from the seller to the buyer is ____.

sale and Agreement to sell Easy
A. Delayed by one week
B. Immediate
C. In the future
D. Conditional

4 An 'Agreement to Sell' is a type of contract where the transfer of property in goods is to take place at ____.

sale and Agreement to sell Easy
A. The exact moment the agreement is signed
B. The time of advertisement
C. A future time or subject to some condition
D. The time of manufacturing

5 If goods are accidentally destroyed, the loss generally falls on the buyer in which scenario?

sale and Agreement to sell Easy
A. A contract of bailment
B. A Sale
C. An Agreement to Sell
D. A hire-purchase agreement

6 In the Sale of Goods Act, the term 'property in goods' primarily means ____.

transfer of property Easy
A. Physical possession of goods
B. Quality of goods
C. Location of goods
D. Ownership of goods

7 For specific goods in a deliverable state, when does the property (ownership) pass to the buyer?

transfer of property Easy
A. When the goods are delivered
B. When the price is paid
C. At the time the contract is made
D. After one week of the contract

8 A stipulation that is essential to the main purpose of the contract is known as a ____.

conditions and warranties Easy
A. Clause
B. Guarantee
C. Warranty
D. Condition

9 A stipulation that is collateral (secondary) to the main purpose of the contract is known as a ____.

conditions and warranties Easy
A. Offer
B. Promise
C. Condition
D. Warranty

10 In a sale by description, there is an implied condition that the goods must ____.

conditions and warranties Easy
A. Correspond with the description
B. Be the cheapest available
C. Have a 5-year guarantee
D. Be delivered for free

11 The Latin phrase 'Caveat Emptor' means:

doctrine of caveat emptor Easy
A. Let the buyer beware
B. Let the seller beware
C. The contract is final
D. For the good of the public

12 The rule of Caveat Emptor generally applies unless ____.

doctrine of caveat emptor Easy
A. The buyer relies on the seller's skill and judgement
B. The sale happens online
C. The buyer pays in cash
D. The goods are expensive

13 An 'unpaid seller' is a seller who has not been paid ____.

rights of an unpaid seller Easy
A. The whole of the price
B. Any interest
C. A tip
D. The delivery charges

14 The right of an unpaid seller to retain possession of the goods until the price is paid is called the right of ____.

rights of an unpaid seller Easy
A. Lien
B. Resale
C. Stoppage in transit
D. Sue for price

15 The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, replaced the earlier act of which year?

Consumer Protection Act , 2019 Easy
A. 2002
B. 1991
C. 1986
D. 1956

16 Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, a 'consumer' is a person who buys goods for ____.

definitions and rights of consumer Easy
A. Consideration, for personal use
B. A commercial purpose
C. Resale in the market
D. Free distribution

17 Which of the following is a fundamental right of a consumer under the Consumer Protection Act?

definitions and rights of consumer Easy
A. Right to Safety
B. Right to free delivery
C. Right to bargain
D. Right to a discount

18 The right to be heard and to be assured that consumer's interests will receive due consideration at appropriate forums is called the ____.

definitions and rights of consumer Easy
A. Right to Seek Redressal
B. Right to be Heard
C. Right to Choose
D. Right to Information

19 Which is the apex body in the three-tier consumer dispute redressal machinery in India?

consumer dispute redressal agencies Easy
A. Supreme Court of India
B. National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC)
C. State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (SCDRC)
D. District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (DCDRC)

20 A consumer complaint regarding goods or services valued up to ₹1 crore can be filed in the ____.

consumer dispute redressal agencies Easy
A. High Court
B. National Commission
C. District Commission
D. State Commission

21 A farmer agrees to sell his entire crop of wheat for the upcoming season to a miller at a fixed price per quintal. The wheat is yet to be grown. What type of contract is this according to the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?

sale and Agreement to sell Medium
A. A valid sale, as the price is fixed.
B. A void contract, as the subject matter is not in existence.
C. An agreement to sell, as it relates to future goods.
D. A quasi-contract, as the goods are contingent.

22 Priya buys a specific, identified laptop from an electronics store. She pays for it and is told she can pick it up the next day after the store installs some software she requested. A fire breaks out in the store overnight and the laptop is destroyed. Who bears the loss of the laptop?

transfer of property Medium
A. Both Priya and the store equally, as it was an unforeseen accident.
B. The store, because the laptop was not in a deliverable state until the software was installed.
C. The store, because the laptop was still in their physical possession.
D. Priya, because the property in the goods had passed to her at the time of the contract.

23 A customer buys a car from a dealer, who states that the car gives a mileage of "25 km/l". The customer later finds that the car's mileage is only 15 km/l. If the statement about mileage was a fundamental part of the contract, the customer can treat this breach as a:

conditions and warranties Medium
A. Breach of a collateral stipulation, allowing for a price reduction only.
B. A simple misrepresentation, with no legal remedy under the Sale of Goods Act.
C. Breach of condition, and can repudiate the contract.
D. Breach of warranty, and can only claim damages.

24 Rohan buys a used motorcycle from a private seller, Sameer. Rohan briefly inspects it but fails to notice a significant engine defect that was not actively concealed by Sameer. The engine fails a week later. Under the doctrine of Caveat Emptor, what is Rohan's legal position?

doctrine of caveat emptor Medium
A. Rohan can sue Sameer for a full refund as the motorcycle was defective.
B. Rohan has no remedy against Sameer, as he had the opportunity to inspect the goods.
C. Sameer is responsible because he sold a faulty product.
D. Rohan can claim damages for the cost of repair under an implied warranty of quality.

25 'A' sells 100 bags of cement to 'B' on credit. The goods are in transit with a carrier. Before the goods are delivered to 'B', 'A' learns that 'B' has become insolvent. What is the most appropriate right 'A' can exercise in this situation?

rights of an unpaid seller Medium
A. Right of resale of goods.
B. Right of stoppage in transit.
C. Right to sue the buyer for damages.
D. Right of lien on the goods.

26 An e-commerce platform based in the USA sells a product to a consumer in India. The product turns out to be defective. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, can the Indian consumer file a complaint against the foreign-based e-commerce platform in India?

Consumer Protection Act , 2019 Medium
A. No, because the platform is not registered in India.
B. Yes, but only in an international court of justice.
C. Yes, because the CPA, 2019 has extra-territorial jurisdiction over platforms conducting business in India.
D. No, unless the platform has a physical office in the consumer's city.

27 Mr. Sharma purchased a television for ₹75 lakhs, which turned out to be defective. He wants to file a complaint to seek a replacement. According to the pecuniary jurisdiction under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 (as per current rules), which forum should Mr. Sharma approach?

consumer dispute redressal agencies Medium
A. The Supreme Court of India directly.
B. The District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission.
C. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission.
D. The State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission.

28 A seller agrees to sell 50 tonnes of oil from a larger tank containing 500 tonnes. The buyer pays the price. The seller is supposed to separate the 50 tonnes for the buyer. Before the seller separates the oil, the entire tank is destroyed. Who bears the loss of the 50 tonnes of oil?

transfer of property Medium
A. The buyer, because they have paid the price.
B. The seller, because the goods were not ascertained.
C. The loss is shared equally between the buyer and seller.
D. The carrier, who was supposed to transport the oil.

29 Which of the following statements accurately distinguishes a 'Sale' from an 'Agreement to Sell'?

sale and Agreement to sell Medium
A. In a 'Sale', the risk of loss passes to the buyer immediately, whereas in an 'Agreement to Sell', it generally remains with the seller.
B. An 'Agreement to Sell' creates a right in rem (against the goods), while a 'Sale' creates a right in personam (against the person).
C. A 'Sale' is an executory contract, while an 'Agreement to Sell' is an executed contract.
D. A 'Sale' can be for both existing and future goods, while an 'Agreement to Sell' is only for existing goods.

30 An unpaid seller exercises his right of lien on goods. While the goods are in his possession, the buyer still fails to pay. Can the seller resell the goods to another party?

rights of an unpaid seller Medium
A. Yes, if the goods are of a perishable nature or if he gives notice to the buyer of his intention to resell.
B. Yes, but only after obtaining a court order to do so.
C. No, because exercising the right of lien terminates the contract of sale.
D. No, the seller can only retain the goods but cannot resell them.

31 A buyer purchases seeds from a seller, describing them as "early-maturing cabbage seeds." The seeds supplied are of a different, late-maturing variety. As a result, the buyer's entire crop is lost. What is the buyer's primary remedy?

conditions and warranties Medium
A. The buyer can only claim a refund for the price of the seeds, as it's a breach of warranty.
B. The buyer can repudiate the contract and also claim damages for the loss of the crop.
C. The buyer must accept the seeds as per the doctrine of caveat emptor.
D. The buyer can only ask for the correct seeds to be delivered next season.

32 Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, who among the following is NOT considered a "consumer"?

definitions and rights of consumer Medium
A. A person who buys goods for the purpose of resale in their shop.
B. A person who buys a laptop for personal use.
C. A person who obtains a service like banking for personal use.
D. A small law firm that buys a printer for use in its office.

33 Which of the following scenarios represents a valid exception to the Doctrine of Caveat Emptor?

doctrine of caveat emptor Medium
A. A buyer orders a "waterproof trekking jacket" from a reputed seller, but it leaks heavily in the rain.
B. A buyer purchases a painting at an auction without inspecting it, and it turns out to be a fake.
C. A buyer knowingly purchases a second-hand phone with a cracked screen for a lower price.
D. A buyer purchases a car after a test drive and later discovers a minor scratch he missed.

34 'S' sells his car to 'B' but is allowed to retain possession for a week. During this week, 'S' fraudulently sells and delivers the same car to 'C', who buys it in good faith and without notice of the previous sale to 'B'. Who has the legal title to the car?

transfer of property Medium
A. 'B', because he was the first buyer.
B. Both 'B' and 'C' have a joint claim against 'S'.
C. 'S', because he never delivered the car to 'B'.
D. 'C', because he is a bona fide purchaser for value from a seller in possession.

35 An unpaid seller's "right of lien" on the goods is lost under which of the following circumstances?

rights of an unpaid seller Medium
A. When the buyer becomes insolvent before paying the price.
B. When the buyer requests a delayed delivery.
C. When the seller delivers the goods to a carrier for transmission to the buyer, without reserving the right of disposal.
D. When the price of the goods is yet to be paid.

36 Which of the following transactions would be governed by the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?

meaning of contract of Sale Medium
A. The sale of standing timber which is agreed to be severed from the land before sale.
B. The transfer of a house through a sale deed.
C. A contract to paint a portrait for a fixed price.
D. A hire-purchase agreement for a refrigerator.

37 What is a key feature of 'Mediation' as introduced under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?

consumer dispute redressal agencies Medium
A. The mediator has the power to impose a penalty on the party at fault.
B. It is a mandatory first step before any complaint can be filed with a Commission.
C. Mediation can only be initiated by the National Commission.
D. Any settlement reached through mediation is legally binding on both parties and cannot be appealed.

38 A buyer informs a seller that he needs a specific type of industrial adhesive that can withstand high temperatures for a particular manufacturing process. The seller, who deals in adhesives, supplies a product that fails at high temperatures, causing damage. The seller has breached which implied stipulation?

conditions and warranties Medium
A. Implied warranty as to quiet possession.
B. Implied condition as to fitness for a particular purpose.
C. Implied warranty as to freedom from encumbrances.
D. Implied condition as to title.

39 The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, introduced the concept of "Product Liability". This means a consumer can seek compensation for harm caused by a defective product from:

definitions and rights of consumer Medium
A. The product manufacturer, product service provider, or product seller.
B. Only the manufacturer of the product.
C. Only the retailer who sold the product.
D. The government agency responsible for product standards.

40 A library agrees to give some of its old, rare books to a museum in exchange for a collection of historical artifacts. Does this transaction constitute a 'contract of sale' under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?

meaning of contract of Sale Medium
A. Yes, if the value of the books and artifacts can be ascertained in monetary terms.
B. No, because the consideration is not money, but goods (barter).
C. No, because museums and libraries are non-profit and not considered 'sellers'.
D. Yes, because there is a transfer of ownership of goods.

41 A wine merchant in Nashik agrees to sell 100 specific cases of 'Vintage 2020' wine to a buyer in Delhi. The contract requires the merchant to bottle, label, and pack the wine into these cases and then provide notice to the buyer that the goods are ready for dispatch. The merchant completes the bottling and packing and places the cases in a designated corner of his warehouse marked with the buyer's name. Before he can send the notice, a fire destroys the entire warehouse. Who bears the loss and why?

transfer of property Hard
A. The loss is shared equally between the buyer and seller as per equitable principles.
B. The carrier is liable as the goods were ready for dispatch.
C. The buyer bears the loss, as the goods were ascertained and appropriated to the contract.
D. The seller bears the loss, as the property had not passed to the buyer.

42 An unpaid seller, 'A', delivers a bill of lading for a consignment of goods to the buyer, 'B'. 'B', who is now insolvent, transfers the bill of lading to 'C' in settlement of a pre-existing debt. 'A' attempts to exercise his right of stoppage in transit. Is 'A's action valid against 'C'?

rights of an unpaid seller Hard
A. Yes, because the transfer to 'C' was for a past consideration (a pre-existing debt), not for new value.
B. No, because once the bill of lading is delivered to the buyer, the right of stoppage is permanently lost.
C. Yes, because 'B' was insolvent at the time of transfer, rendering the transfer invalid against 'A'.
D. No, because 'C' is a bona fide holder of the document of title for value.

43 A consumer files a complaint with the District Commission for a claim of ₹80 Lakhs, and the commission awards ₹40 Lakhs in compensation. The opposing party, not satisfied, wishes to appeal to the State Commission. What is the mandatory pre-condition for the State Commission to entertain the appeal?

consumer dispute redressal agencies Hard
A. A deposit of 50% of the original claim amount (₹40 Lakhs).
B. A deposit of 25% of the awarded amount (₹10 Lakhs).
C. No deposit is required if the appeal is based solely on a question of law.
D. A deposit of 50% of the awarded amount (₹20 Lakhs).

44 A buyer purchases a commercial printing machine, specifying to the seller that it must be capable of printing on a particular type of glossy paper. The contract includes an express warranty for one year against manufacturing defects. The machine works perfectly on all other paper types but fails to print on the specified glossy paper. The buyer uses the machine for two months for other jobs. What is the buyer's most effective legal remedy?

conditions and warranties Hard
A. Claim damages for breach of warranty only, as he has accepted and used the goods.
B. Force the seller to repair the machine under the express warranty.
C. No remedy, as the machine is otherwise of merchantable quality and the express warranty covers defects, not capabilities.
D. Repudiate the entire contract and claim a full refund, as there is a breach of a condition.

45 A purchases a packaged and branded health supplement from B, a chemist. A relies on the trade name 'VitaBoost' and does not specify any particular purpose. The supplement, while unadulterated and safe for consumption, is later proven to be completely ineffective for general health improvement, a fact widely known in the medical community but not to the general public. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the legal situation?

doctrine of caveat emptor Hard
A. The doctrine of Caveat Emptor applies fully, and A has no remedy whatsoever as he got what he asked for.
B. The doctrine of Caveat Emptor applies due to the sale under a trade name; hence, there is no implied condition as to its fitness for any particular purpose.
C. There is a breach of the implied condition of merchantable quality because an ineffective supplement is not commercially saleable as such.
D. There is a breach of the implied condition of fitness for purpose because A implicitly relied on B's skill.

46 'X' agrees to sell to 'Y' all the mangoes that will be produced in his orchard next year for a lump sum price of ₹5,00,000. Due to an unexpected pest infestation, which was not the fault of 'X', the crop yield is only 10% of the normal output. 'X' tenders the small harvest to 'Y'. 'Y' refuses to accept and sues 'X' for damages for non-delivery of the expected quantity. What is the likely outcome?

sale and Agreement to sell Hard
A. The contract is void as the specific goods (the expected crop) have substantially perished before the risk passed to the buyer.
B. 'X' is liable for damages because he failed to deliver the quantity implicitly promised.
C. 'Y' must accept the 10% yield and pay a proportionate amount of the price.
D. The contract is voidable at the option of 'Y', who can choose to either accept the goods or claim damages.

47 An advocate hires a junior lawyer to assist him with legal research for his professional practice by providing access to a paid online legal database account. The junior lawyer provides substandard work, causing a financial loss. The senior advocate files a complaint against the online database provider for 'deficiency in service', arguing their platform is difficult to use. Is the complaint maintainable under the CPA, 2019?

definitions and rights of consumer Hard
A. No, because legal services are exempt from the CPA, 2019.
B. Yes, but only if the advocate can prove the service was also used for personal, non-professional work.
C. Yes, because access to an online database is a service for consideration, and issues with the platform constitute a deficiency.
D. No, because the service was availed for a 'commercial purpose' as it was for his professional practice.

48 An unpaid seller exercises his right of lien on goods still in his possession. The buyer subsequently tenders the full price of the goods, but not the incidental expenses the seller incurred for storage during the lien period. The seller refuses to deliver the goods until the storage charges are also paid. Is the seller's refusal legally justified?

rights of an unpaid seller Hard
A. No, because tendering the price of the goods automatically terminates the lien.
B. No, the seller cannot claim storage charges unless there is a specific agreement to that effect.
C. Yes, the right of lien extends to cover all reasonable charges incurred in its exercise.
D. Yes, but only if the buyer has become insolvent.

49 'S' has 50 identical milling machines in his warehouse. 'B' agrees to buy 5 of them and pays the full price. The contract requires 'S' to tag the 5 machines with 'B's name before 'B' arranges for pickup. 'S' tags 3 machines. Before he can tag the other 2, a government order requisitions all untagged machines in the warehouse. Which statement accurately reflects the ownership status?

transfer of property Hard
A. Property in none of the machines passed to 'B' as the appropriation was incomplete.
B. Property in the 3 tagged machines passed to 'B'; property in the 2 untagged machines remains with 'S'.
C. Property in all 5 machines remains with 'S' until 'B' takes physical delivery.
D. Property in all 5 machines passed to 'B' upon payment.

50 The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA), upon investigation, issues an order directing a company to cease a misleading advertisement and imposes a penalty of ₹10 Lakhs. The company, aggrieved by this order, wishes to appeal. To which body must the appeal be filed?

consumer dispute redressal agencies Hard
A. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC).
B. A specially constituted Appellate Tribunal under the CPA, 2019.
C. The Supreme Court of India.
D. The High Court of the relevant jurisdiction.

51 'A' buys a painting from 'B', an art dealer, which both parties genuinely believe to be an original work by a famous artist. The sale agreement includes a clause stating "the seller warrants that the painting is an authentic work". A year later, it's proven to be a very clever fake, worth only a fraction of the price paid. Can 'A' return the painting and claim a full refund?

conditions and warranties Hard
A. No, because the mistake was mutual, the contract is voidable for mistake but not breach.
B. Yes, but only if 'A' can prove that 'B' knowingly misrepresented the painting's authenticity.
C. No, 'A' can only claim damages for breach of warranty, which is the difference in value.
D. Yes, because the authenticity is a fundamental condition, and its breach allows repudiation, regardless of the word "warrants".

52 A buyer purchases timber from a seller after inspecting it. The timber has a hidden defect (dry rot) that could not be discovered by ordinary visual inspection. The seller was unaware of the defect. The timber is later found to be unsuitable for the buyer's construction purpose. The seller claims the principle of caveat emptor applies as the buyer had inspected the goods. Is the seller's claim valid?

doctrine of caveat emptor Hard
A. Yes, because the seller was also unaware of the defect, so there was no fraud or misrepresentation.
B. Yes, inspection by the buyer negates all implied conditions and validates the caveat emptor principle.
C. No, because there is an implied condition of merchantable quality which is breached by a latent defect not discoverable by reasonable examination.
D. No, because the sale of timber always implies a condition of fitness for construction purposes.

53 'A' agrees to sell his specific vintage car to 'B' for ₹5 Lakhs. The contract is contingent upon the car winning an upcoming vintage car rally. The car wins the rally. Before 'B' can take possession or make payment, 'A' receives a higher offer of ₹7 Lakhs from 'C' and sells and delivers the car to 'C', who is unaware of the prior contract with 'B'. What is 'B's primary remedy?

sale and Agreement to sell Hard
A. 'B' can only sue 'A' for damages for non-delivery of the car.
B. 'B' can sue 'C' and recover the car, as 'B' became the owner the moment the rally was won.
C. 'B' can obtain a court order for specific performance, compelling 'A' to get the car from 'C' and deliver it to 'B'.
D. 'B' can sue both 'A' for breach and 'C' for inducing the breach of contract.

54 A housing cooperative society purchases a large water purifier for its common facilities, to be used by all its resident members. The purifier turns out to be defective. The manufacturer argues that the society is not a 'consumer' because the purchase is for a group, not an individual, and thus constitutes a commercial activity. Is the society's complaint legally valid?

definitions and rights of consumer Hard
A. The complaint is valid only if each member files an individual complaint for their share of the loss.
B. No, the complaint is invalid as the society is an artificial person, and the purpose is commercial.
C. The complaint is invalid because the Consumer Protection Act only covers goods and services for individual or household use.
D. Yes, the complaint is valid because a registered cooperative society is a 'person' and the purifier is for the collective use of its members, not for resale or profit.

55 A buyer in Mumbai orders 500 boxes of a specific brand of apples from a seller in Shimla, with the contract stating F.O.B. (Free on Board) Shimla. The seller loads the 500 boxes onto a truck arranged by the buyer. En route to Mumbai, the truck meets with an accident, and the apples are destroyed. The seller has not yet been paid. Who is legally required to bear the loss of the apples?

transfer of property Hard
A. The seller, because the payment was not made and delivery was not completed to the buyer's premises.
B. The buyer, because under an F.O.B. contract, risk and property pass to the buyer once the goods are loaded onto the carrier.
C. The loss should be shared between the buyer and seller as the transaction was incomplete.
D. The carrier, as the loss occurred while the goods were in their custody.

56 An unpaid seller, 'S', exercises his right of stoppage in transit upon learning of the buyer's insolvency. He sends a notice to the carrier company's head office. However, before the head office can communicate the instruction to the delivery driver, the driver delivers the goods to the buyer, 'B'. 'B' immediately pledges the goods to 'P' for a loan. What right does 'S' now have?

rights of an unpaid seller Hard
A. 'S' can sue 'B' for the price and also recover the goods from 'P'.
B. 'S' can only sue the carrier for damages caused by the wrongful delivery.
C. 'S' can recover the goods from 'P' because the delivery was wrongful.
D. 'S' can claim the price from 'B's insolvent estate and has no other remedy.

57 A manufacturer produces a pressure cooker with a known faulty valve design but does not issue a recall. A consumer buys this cooker from a retail store. The retailer was unaware of the hidden design defect. The cooker explodes, causing severe injury. Under the 'product liability' provisions of the CPA 2019, which of the following is true?

Consumer Protection Act , 2019 Hard
A. Only the retailer is liable as they were the direct point of sale.
B. The consumer can sue the product manufacturer directly for the harm caused, but the retailer is exempt from liability in this specific case.
C. Both the manufacturer and the retailer are jointly and severally liable for the injury.
D. No one is liable if the consumer cannot prove the retailer knew about the defect.

58 A person buys a high-end camera for ₹2 Lakhs. He uses it predominantly for his hobby of wildlife photography but occasionally sells a few photographs online to supplement his income. The camera proves to be defective. The manufacturer argues he is not a 'consumer' because the sale of photographs constitutes a commercial purpose. Is this argument valid?

definitions and rights of consumer Hard
A. No, the argument is invalid because the primary use is personal (hobby), and the occasional sale can be considered part of earning a livelihood, which is an exception.
B. The argument is valid only if the income from photographs exceeds 50% of his total income.
C. It depends on whether he is registered as a business for tax purposes.
D. Yes, any activity that generates revenue is a commercial purpose, disqualifying him as a consumer.

59 A complaint is filed with a State Commission. The opposing party, during the proceedings, makes an offer of settlement which the complainant accepts. They jointly file a settlement application. The State Commission, however, believes the settlement is unfair to the consumer and refuses to pass an order in terms of the settlement. Can the Commission legally do this?

consumer dispute redressal agencies Hard
A. No, once a settlement is reached, the Commission is bound to record it and dispose of the case.
B. No, the Commission can only suggest modifications but cannot outright reject a mutually agreed settlement.
C. Yes, under the CPA 2019, the Commission can reject a settlement if it finds the terms to be unjust and continue with the adjudication.
D. Yes, but only if the settlement involves a product that is inherently dangerous to public health.

60 A agrees to buy a specific vintage motorcycle from B for ₹2,00,000. The contract states that B will restore the motorcycle to a specific pristine condition and then A will pay and take delivery. After B spends ₹50,000 on restoration but before the work is fully complete, the motorcycle is destroyed in a fire in B's workshop, through no fault of B. What is the legal status of the contract?

sale and Agreement to sell Hard
A. The contract is valid, and B is liable to procure a similar motorcycle for A.
B. The contract is void, and B must bear the loss of the motorcycle and his restoration costs.
C. A must pay a proportionate price for the restoration work completed before the fire.
D. A must pay B the original price plus the restoration cost, as the motorcycle was specific.