Unit 5: Disaster management - Practice Quiz

CHE110 — Environmental Studies 60 Questions
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1 Which of the following is an example of a natural disaster?

Natural disasters Easy
A. Terrorist attack
B. Earthquake
C. Oil spill
D. Factory explosion

2 Which of the following is classified as a water-related disaster?

Water-related disasters Easy
A. Flood
B. Volcanic eruption
C. Earthquake
D. Landslide

3 A drought is best described as a prolonged period of:

Floods and drought Easy
A. Abnormally low rainfall
B. Heavy rainfall
C. Rising sea levels
D. Strong winds

4 Which condition most commonly causes a flood?

Floods and drought Easy
A. Falling groundwater
B. Heavy or prolonged rainfall
C. Cold temperatures
D. Long dry spells

5 Which of the following is an air-related disaster?

Air-related disasters Easy
A. Landslide
B. Cyclone
C. Earthquake
D. Flood

6 A cyclone is characterized by:

Cyclones and storms Easy
A. Sliding of rock and soil down a slope
B. Flowing of molten rock
C. Sudden shaking of the ground
D. Strong rotating winds around a low-pressure centre

7 Which of the following is an Earth-related disaster?

Earth-related disasters Easy
A. Drought
B. Cyclone
C. Earthquake
D. Flood

8 The instrument used to measure the intensity of an earthquake is called a:

Earthquakes Easy
A. Thermometer
B. Barometer
C. Seismograph
D. Anemometer

9 The point on the Earth's surface directly above the origin of an earthquake is called the:

Earthquakes Easy
A. Focus
B. Magnitude
C. Epicentre
D. Fault line

10 A landslide refers to the:

Landslides Easy
A. Rotation of winds around a centre
B. Overflow of a river onto land
C. Melting of glaciers
D. Downward movement of rock and soil on a slope

11 An avalanche is the sudden downhill movement of:

Avalanches Easy
A. Sand dunes
B. River water
C. Snow and ice
D. Molten lava

12 The molten rock that flows out during a volcanic eruption is called:

Volcanic eruptions Easy
A. Ash cloud
B. Tremor
C. Magma chamber
D. Lava

13 Which of the following is a manmade disaster?

Manmade disasters Easy
A. Earthquake
B. Cyclone
C. Volcanic eruption
D. Industrial gas leak

14 A nuclear disaster mainly involves the release of harmful:

Nuclear disasters Easy
A. Sand particles
B. Rainwater
C. Sound waves
D. Radiation

15 The Bhopal Gas Tragedy of 1984 is an example of a:

Chemical disasters Easy
A. Biological disaster
B. Nuclear disaster
C. Chemical disaster
D. Water-related disaster

16 Which of the following is an example of a biological disaster?

Biological disasters Easy
A. Oil tanker leak
B. Power plant explosion
C. Outbreak of an epidemic
D. Building collapse

17 Which of the following is considered a transport accident?

Transport accidents Easy
A. A forest fire from lightning
B. A river flood
C. A snow avalanche
D. A major train collision

18 The apex body for disaster management in India is the:

National disaster management framework Easy
A. Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
B. National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
C. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
D. Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)

19 During a disaster, NGOs most commonly help by:

Role of NGOs in disaster response Easy
A. Enforcing national laws
B. Providing relief supplies and rehabilitation
C. Collecting income taxes
D. Issuing currency notes

20 One key role of the media during a disaster is to:

Role of media in disaster response Easy
A. Provide medical surgery
B. Control military forces
C. Build houses for victims
D. Spread timely warnings and information

21 A region experiences a sudden, uncontrollable release of energy from within the planet, causing widespread ground shaking without any human trigger. This event is best classified as a:

Natural disasters Medium
A. Chemical disaster of industrial origin
B. Natural disaster of endogenous origin
C. Manmade disaster of technological origin
D. Biological disaster of natural origin

22 A coastal town is hit by a series of huge sea waves generated by an undersea earthquake. Which water-related disaster classification fits this event?

Water-related disasters Medium
A. Tsunami
B. Storm surge
C. Cloudburst
D. Flash flood

23 A farming district receives less than 25% of its normal rainfall for two consecutive years, leading to crop failure and water scarcity. This condition is an example of:

Floods and drought Medium
A. Riverine flooding
B. Flash flooding due to poor drainage
C. Hydrological surplus
D. Meteorological drought leading to agricultural drought

24 Which of the following is the primary factor distinguishing air-related disasters from other natural disaster types?

Air-related disasters Medium
A. They are caused by radioactive material release
B. They result from contamination of water bodies
C. They arise mainly from atmospheric disturbances and pressure differences
D. They are triggered by tectonic plate movement

25 In a tropical cyclone, the calm central region with clear skies and light winds is called the:

Cyclones and storms Medium
A. Rain band
B. Eyewall
C. Storm surge
D. Eye

26 A cyclone approaching the coast pushes a large abnormal rise of seawater onto low-lying land, causing coastal flooding. This deadly effect is known as the:

Cyclones and storms Medium
A. Tidal bore
B. Cloudburst
C. Tsunami wave
D. Storm surge

27 An earthquake measures 6.0 on the Richter scale, while another measures 4.0. Approximately how much greater is the amplitude of the seismic waves of the stronger quake?

Earthquakes Medium
A. times
B. times
C. times
D. times

28 The point on the Earth's surface directly above the location where an earthquake originates is called the:

Earthquakes Medium
A. Seismic zone
B. Epicenter
C. Fault line
D. Focus (hypocenter)

29 Which combination of factors is MOST likely to trigger a landslide on a hilly slope?

Landslides Medium
A. Gentle gradient with stable bedrock
B. Heavy rainfall combined with deforestation on a steep slope
C. Low humidity with dense forest cover
D. Dry climate with minimal vegetation loss

30 Avalanches are most commonly associated with which of the following geographic and climatic conditions?

Avalanches Medium
A. Flat coastal plains
B. Arid desert regions
C. Low-lying river deltas
D. Steep snow-covered mountain slopes

31 During a volcanic eruption, which hazard involves a fast-moving mixture of hot gas, ash, and volcanic debris capable of destroying everything in its path?

Volcanic eruptions Medium
A. Lava dome collapse
B. Ashfall cloud
C. Pyroclastic flow
D. Lahar

32 Which of the following events would be classified as a manmade (anthropogenic) disaster rather than a natural one?

Manmade disasters Medium
A. A magnitude 7 earthquake
B. A landslide after heavy rain
C. A monsoon flood
D. An industrial gas leak from a chemical plant

33 In a nuclear disaster, which immediate protective action is generally recommended for populations near the affected reactor to reduce thyroid radiation exposure?

Nuclear disasters Medium
A. Taking potassium iodide tablets
B. Removing all clothing outdoors
C. Drinking large amounts of untreated water
D. Staying outdoors to disperse fallout

34 The 1984 Bhopal Gas Tragedy, one of the world's worst chemical disasters, was caused by the leak of which gas?

Chemical disasters Medium
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Chlorine
C. Ammonia
D. Methyl isocyanate (MIC)

35 A rapidly spreading infectious disease that affects populations across multiple countries and continents is classified as a:

Biological disasters Medium
A. Epizootic
B. Sporadic outbreak
C. Endemic
D. Pandemic

36 Which measure would most effectively reduce the disaster potential of transporting hazardous chemicals by road?

Transport accidents Medium
A. Avoiding any documentation to save time
B. Increasing vehicle speed to reduce transit time
C. Transporting during peak traffic hours
D. Proper labeling, trained drivers, and designated safe routes

37 In India, which apex body is chaired by the Prime Minister and is responsible for laying down policies for disaster management?

National disaster management framework Medium
A. National Disaster Response Force (NDRF)
B. District Disaster Management Authority (DDMA)
C. National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
D. State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA)

38 Which specialized Indian force is primarily deployed for on-ground search, rescue, and relief operations during disasters?

Role of governmental agencies in disaster response Medium
A. National Disaster Response Force (NDRF)
B. National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
C. Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)
D. Central Water Commission (CWC)

39 During the recovery phase of a disaster, what is a typical and vital role played by NGOs?

Role of NGOs in disaster response Medium
A. Setting national disaster policy
B. Enforcing evacuation laws with legal authority
C. Providing relief supplies, rehabilitation, and community rebuilding support
D. Declaring official disaster emergencies

40 Why are community-based organizations (CBOs) considered crucial as first responders during a disaster?

Role of community-based organizations in disaster response Medium
A. They have local knowledge and can act immediately before external help arrives
B. They replace the need for government agencies
C. They alone control national relief funds
D. They possess the largest financial resources

41 An earthquake measuring on the Richter scale releases how much more energy than one measuring , given that each whole-number increase corresponds to roughly a -fold increase in energy?

Earthquakes Hard
A. About times more energy
B. About times more energy
C. About times more energy
D. About times more energy

42 Under India's Disaster Management Act, 2005, which body is chaired by the Prime Minister and holds the apex position for laying down policies on disaster management?

National disaster management framework Hard
A. National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
B. National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM)
C. National Disaster Response Force (NDRF)
D. National Executive Committee (NEC)

43 A tropical cyclone in the Northern Hemisphere shows counter-clockwise rotation while its Southern Hemisphere counterpart rotates clockwise. This difference is best explained by which factor?

Cyclones and storms Hard
A. Deflection of moving air by the Coriolis effect, which reverses direction across the equator
B. Change in the direction of prevailing trade winds near the equator
C. Difference in sea surface temperatures between the two hemispheres
D. Variation in atmospheric pressure gradients at different latitudes

44 In the Chernobyl (1986) and Fukushima Daiichi (2011) accidents, both were rated Level on the INES scale. What primarily distinguished the underlying trigger of each event?

Nuclear disasters Hard
A. Chernobyl was caused by a coolant loss from a tsunami and Fukushima by a reactor test failure
B. Both resulted primarily from deliberate sabotage of reactor safety systems
C. Both were caused by earthquakes damaging the reactor core containment structures
D. Chernobyl stemmed from a flawed reactor design and operator error during a test, whereas Fukushima resulted from an earthquake-triggered tsunami disabling cooling

45 A river gauge shows discharge rising sharply within hours after intense rainfall in a small, steep, urbanised catchment. This hydrological response is most characteristic of which flood type?

Floods and drought Hard
A. Coastal flood, driven by storm surge
B. Riverine flood, from prolonged basin-wide rainfall
C. Groundwater flood, from a slowly rising water table
D. Flash flood, driven by rapid runoff and short lag time

46 The 1984 Bhopal gas tragedy involved the release of methyl isocyanate (MIC). Which combination of factors most directly worsened the catastrophe?

Chemical disasters Hard
A. Water entering an MIC storage tank triggering a runaway exothermic reaction while safety systems were non-functional
B. An earthquake rupturing the tank while the flare tower operated normally
C. A slow leak over several weeks that went undetected by working alarm systems
D. A deliberate detonation of the tank combined with functional scrubbers being overwhelmed

47 A slope's stability is often expressed as a Factor of Safety (FoS) = resisting forces / driving forces. Which change would most directly reduce the FoS and increase landslide likelihood?

Landslides Hard
A. A reduction in slope angle through terracing
B. Increased pore water pressure from heavy rainfall reducing effective shear strength
C. Construction of retaining walls at the slope toe
D. Afforestation on the slope increasing root cohesion

48 During a rapidly evolving disaster, media coverage can produce both benefits and harms. Which scenario best illustrates a negative but unintended consequence of media behaviour?

Role of media in disaster response Hard
A. Facilitating communication between separated families through helplines
B. Amplifying unverified rumours that trigger panic and hamper coordinated evacuation
C. Highlighting relief gaps that mobilise additional donor support
D. Broadcasting official early warnings to accelerate timely evacuation

49 The Volcanic Explosivity Index (VEI) is a logarithmic scale where each step (above VEI 2) represents roughly a tenfold increase in erupted tephra volume. A VEI 5 eruption ejects approximately how much more tephra than a VEI 3 eruption?

Volcanic eruptions Hard
A. About times more
B. About times more
C. About times more
D. About times more

50 In epidemiology, the basic reproduction number determines outbreak potential. To achieve herd immunity for a disease with , the minimum fraction of the population that must be immune is closest to which value?

Biological disasters Hard
A.
B.
C.
D.

51 A tsunami warning is issued after a large undersea earthquake. In deep open ocean, tsunami waves may travel at speeds comparable to a jet aircraft yet be barely noticeable to ships. Which principle best explains why they become devastating near shore?

Earth-related disasters Hard
A. The waves accelerate near shore, gaining kinetic energy that raises their height
B. Coastal winds amplify the wave amplitude as it approaches land
C. As water depth decreases, wave speed drops and energy compresses, increasing wave height (shoaling)
D. The Coriolis effect focuses wave energy onto the coastline

52 Slab avalanches, the most dangerous type, typically release when a cohesive snow layer slides over a weak buried layer. On which slope angle range are they most frequently triggered?

Avalanches Hard
A. to
B. to
C. to
D. to

53 Which of the following best captures the fundamental distinction between a natural hazard becoming a "disaster" and remaining merely a hazard?

Manmade disasters Hard
A. A disaster occurs only when the hazard is of high magnitude regardless of population
B. A disaster occurs when a hazard intersects with exposed, vulnerable communities exceeding their coping capacity
C. A disaster occurs whenever a hazard is triggered by human activity rather than nature
D. A disaster occurs only when government agencies formally declare an emergency

54 In India's institutional structure, which agency is the specialised, multi-disciplinary force constituted specifically for on-ground search, rescue and relief operations during disasters?

Role of governmental agencies in disaster response Hard
A. National Disaster Response Force (NDRF)
B. National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
C. State Executive Committee (SEC)
D. National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM)

55 A tanker carrying flammable liquefied gas is involved in a road accident and catches fire, raising fears of a BLEVE. What does a BLEVE specifically refer to?

Transport accidents Hard
A. A slow leak of vapour that disperses without ignition
B. Corrosion-induced structural collapse of the tanker over time
C. Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapour Explosion, when a pressurised liquid rapidly vaporises and ignites
D. A chemical reaction between two incompatible cargoes mixing inside the tank

56 The Saffir-Simpson scale classifies hurricanes primarily by sustained wind speed, but the deadliest impacts often come from a different factor. Which factor is responsible for the majority of hurricane-related fatalities historically?

Air-related disasters Hard
A. Direct wind damage to structures
B. Lightning strikes during the storm
C. Storm surge and associated flooding
D. Hail accompanying the storm bands

57 Community-Based Disaster Risk Management (CBDRM) is increasingly emphasised in modern frameworks. What is the strongest rationale for its effectiveness in the immediate aftermath of a disaster?

Role of community-based organizations in disaster response Hard
A. Local communities are the first responders and can act within the critical "golden hours" before external help arrives
B. Community groups can override national laws to speed relief efforts
C. Communities eliminate the need for any governmental coordination
D. Communities have superior technical equipment compared to national agencies

58 Meteorological, hydrological and agricultural droughts are distinct. A region receives normal rainfall over a season, yet crops fail due to poor timing and distribution of that rain. This situation is best classified as which type of drought?

Water-related disasters Hard
A. Socioeconomic drought, from failure of water supply to meet demand
B. Agricultural drought, arising from soil moisture deficits at critical crop stages
C. Meteorological drought, from a total rainfall deficit
D. Hydrological drought, from depleted reservoirs and groundwater

59 A common criticism of poorly coordinated NGO involvement in disaster relief is the "second disaster." What does this term most accurately describe?

Role of NGOs in disaster response Hard
A. A secondary natural hazard such as an aftershock following the main event
B. The financial collapse of NGOs after depleting their funds
C. The spread of disease among relief workers in camps
D. An influx of unsolicited, inappropriate donations and duplicated efforts that overwhelm local logistics

60 The Disaster Risk equation is often expressed as . Two regions face an identical hazard and equal vulnerability, but Region A has double the coping capacity of Region B. How does Region A's risk compare with Region B's?

Natural disasters Hard
A. Region A's risk is four times that of Region B
B. Region A's risk is half that of Region B
C. Region A's risk is equal to Region B's
D. Region A's risk is double that of Region B