Unit 3: Earth movements - Practice Quiz

GEO101 — Geomorphology 60 Questions
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1 What is folding in geomorphology?

folding Easy
A. Breaking of rock layers
B. Wearing away of rock layers
C. Melting of rock layers
D. Bending of rock layers

2 Which type of stress commonly causes folding?

folding Easy
A. Thermal stress
B. Tensional stress
C. Magnetic stress
D. Compressional stress

3 What is an upward-arching fold called?

folding Easy
A. Syncline
B. Graben
C. Horst
D. Anticline

4 What is a downward-curving fold called?

folding Easy
A. Fault
B. Dome
C. Syncline
D. Anticline

5 Fold mountains are mainly formed by the folding of rock layers due to:

folding Easy
A. Glacier melting
B. River erosion
C. Plate collision
D. Wind deposition

6 What is a fault?

faulting Easy
A. A curved mountain ridge
B. A deep ocean current
C. A crack with rock movement
D. A layer of volcanic ash

7 Which stress pulls rocks apart and commonly produces normal faults?

faulting Easy
A. Compressional stress
B. Shearing stress
C. Tensional stress
D. Gravitational pressure

8 A fault caused mainly by rocks sliding past each other horizontally is called a:

faulting Easy
A. Thrust fold
B. Normal fault
C. Strike-slip fault
D. Reverse fault

9 What is a block of land that is uplifted between two faults called?

faulting Easy
A. Syncline
B. Graben
C. Caldera
D. Horst

10 What is a down-dropped block of land between two faults called?

faulting Easy
A. Horst
B. Anticline
C. Volcanic neck
D. Graben

11 What is an earthquake?

earthquakes Easy
A. Steady ocean movement
B. Sudden ground shaking
C. Slow soil formation
D. Daily temperature change

12 The point inside Earth where an earthquake begins is called the:

earthquakes Easy
A. Crater
B. Focus
C. Ridge
D. Epicenter

13 What is the point on Earth's surface directly above the focus called?

earthquakes Easy
A. Epicenter
B. Fault plane
C. Seismic gap
D. Focus

14 Which instrument records earthquake vibrations?

earthquakes Easy
A. Seismograph
B. Thermometer
C. Barometer
D. Anemometer

15 Most earthquakes occur along:

earthquakes Easy
A. Plate boundaries
B. River valleys
C. Desert centers
D. Stable plains

16 What is a volcano?

volcanoes Easy
A. A wind-shaped sand hill
B. An opening for molten rock
C. A folded rock layer
D. A deep underground fault

17 Molten rock beneath Earth's surface is called:

volcanoes Easy
A. Magma
B. Ash
C. Lava
D. Pumice

18 Molten rock that reaches Earth's surface is called:

volcanoes Easy
A. Lava
B. Basaltic soil
C. Tephra
D. Magma

19 The bowl-shaped depression at the top of many volcanoes is called a:

volcanoes Easy
A. Syncline
B. Crater
C. Valley
D. Graben

20 Which material is commonly released during a volcanic eruption?

volcanoes Easy
A. River gravel
B. Saltwater
C. Humus
D. Ash

21 A rock layer is bent upward so that the limbs dip away from the center. Which fold has formed?

folding Medium
A. A thrust fold
B. A syncline
C. A monocline
D. An anticline

22 A sequence of sedimentary rocks has the oldest beds exposed in the center of a circular fold. Which structure is most likely present?

folding Medium
A. An anticline
B. A monocline
C. A basin
D. A syncline

23 Which tectonic force most directly produces folding when rocks are subjected to prolonged horizontal compression?

folding Medium
A. Compressional stress
B. Isostatic stress
C. Tensional stress
D. Shearing stress

24 A fold has one short, steep limb and one long, gentle limb. Which classification best describes it?

folding Medium
A. Symmetrical fold
B. Recumbent fold
C. Isoclinal fold
D. Asymmetrical fold

25 If intense compression causes both limbs of a fold to dip in nearly the same direction, which fold type is indicated?

folding Medium
A. Symmetrical fold
B. Overturned fold
C. Open fold
D. Dome

26 A rock block above an inclined fault plane moves downward relative to the block below it. What type of fault is this?

faulting Medium
A. Strike-slip fault
B. Reverse fault
C. Thrust fault
D. Normal fault

27 Two crustal blocks move horizontally past one another with little vertical displacement. Which fault is most likely involved?

faulting Medium
A. Strike-slip fault
B. Normal fault
C. Reverse fault
D. Dip-slip fault

28 A region contains a raised central block bounded by two roughly parallel normal faults. Which landform has probably developed?

faulting Medium
A. Graben
B. Syncline
C. Volcanic neck
D. Horst

29 Which combination of stress and fault movement is most consistent with a reverse fault?

faulting Medium
A. Shear and horizontal movement
B. Compression and upward movement
C. Tension and horizontal movement
D. Tension and downward movement

30 A long, down-dropped block forms between two normal faults in a region undergoing crustal stretching. What is this feature called?

faulting Medium
A. Batholith
B. Graben
C. Anticline
D. Horst

31 An earthquake's focus lies km below the surface, while its epicenter is directly above it. What does the epicenter represent?

earthquakes Medium
A. The surface point above the focus
B. The point of greatest depth
C. The zone of permanent rupture
D. The boundary of the fault

32 A station records the P-wave at 10:00:00 and the S-wave at 10:00:40. What does the time difference mainly indicate?

earthquakes Medium
A. The distance to the epicenter
B. The depth of the mantle
C. The direction of plate motion
D. The earthquake's magnitude

33 Which observation would provide the strongest evidence that an earthquake occurred along a shallow fault?

earthquakes Medium
A. A surface rupture crossing the ground
B. A gradual rise in sea level
C. A deep ocean trench offshore
D. A long period of volcanic activity

34 Why can an earthquake of moderate magnitude cause more damage in a densely populated city than a stronger earthquake in a remote area?

earthquakes Medium
A. Remote earthquakes have no ground motion
B. Urban areas receive no seismic waves
C. Damage depends on exposure and vulnerability
D. Magnitude is measured only in cities

35 An earthquake occurs beneath the ocean and suddenly displaces the seafloor upward. Which hazard is most likely to follow?

earthquakes Medium
A. A tsunami
B. A lava plateau
C. A glacial surge
D. A dust storm

36 A volcano has broad, gently sloping sides built mainly from fluid basaltic lava. Which type is most likely?

volcanoes Medium
A. Lava dome
B. Composite volcano
C. Shield volcano
D. Cinder cone

37 Why are composite volcanoes generally more explosive than shield volcanoes?

volcanoes Medium
A. Their vents are permanently underwater
B. Their magma is more viscous and gas-rich
C. They form only beneath polar ice
D. Their lava always has a lower temperature

38 A volcano produces ash, pumice, and a high column of eruptive material. Which eruption style is most consistent with these observations?

volcanoes Medium
A. Geothermal emission
B. Effusive eruption
C. Explosive eruption
D. Subglacial seepage

39 Which setting most commonly produces a chain of volcanoes on the overriding plate above a subducting oceanic plate?

volcanoes Medium
A. A divergent plate boundary
B. A convergent plate boundary
C. A stable continental interior
D. A transform plate boundary

40 A volcanic hazard map shows valleys extending from a steep volcano as high-risk zones. Which hazard is most likely being emphasized?

volcanoes Medium
A. Lava domes
B. Magnetic reversals
C. Tectonic folding
D. Lahars

41 A sedimentary sequence contains upright anticlines and synclines whose axial planes dip consistently eastward. The fold limbs are unequal, and the western limb is steeper. Which interpretation is most defensible?

folding Hard
A. The folds are symmetrical and formed under vertical compression
B. The folds are recumbent because both axial planes dip eastward
C. The folds formed by extension along a west-dipping normal fault
D. The folds are overturned toward the west by directed compression

42 On a geological map, beds dip outward from a central area, and the strata become progressively older toward the center. Which structure and erosion history best explain the pattern?

folding Hard
A. A syncline exposed by erosion of its youngest core
B. An anticline exposed by erosion of its uplifted core
C. A basin formed by subsidence around a resistant intrusion
D. A monocline produced by movement on a reverse fault

43 A fold has an axial-plane orientation of and a hinge plunging toward . Which description is most appropriate?

folding Hard
A. A non-plunging symmetrical fold
B. A gently plunging overturned fold
C. A steeply plunging recumbent fold
D. A gently plunging upright fold

44 In a fold belt, cleavage is axial-planar, mineral lineations parallel the fold hinges, and stretching lineations plunge down the dip of the cleavage. What deformation history is most likely?

folding Hard
A. Simple shear accompanying progressive horizontal shortening
B. Pure vertical shortening with no lateral transport
C. Uniform extension perpendicular to the fold hinges
D. Thermal doming followed by passive surface erosion

45 A fold pair has interlimb angles of in one area and in another, with the same fold trend. Which classification change occurs across the area?

folding Hard
A. From isoclinal to overturned folding
B. From tight to close folding
C. From tight to open folding
D. From open to gentle folding

46 A fault plane dips east. The hanging wall moved upward and eastward relative to the footwall. Which fault type and stress regime are indicated?

faulting Hard
A. A normal fault associated with horizontal extension
B. A thrust fault associated with vertical crustal stretching
C. A left-lateral strike-slip fault associated with transpression
D. A reverse fault associated with horizontal compression

47 A river is offset 2.4 km dextrally by a fault. Its valley contains four abandoned channels, each formed during a separate period of incision. What can be inferred most cautiously?

faulting Hard
A. The river formed after the fault became completely inactive
B. The average displacement per event was exactly km
C. All displacement occurred during one continuous earthquake
D. The fault has produced at least four displacement episodes

48 A seismic section shows a fault that terminates upward within a sedimentary package, while the beds thicken toward the fault and progressively onlap its footwall. Which interpretation is strongest?

faulting Hard
A. A listric normal fault active during sediment deposition
B. A blind reverse fault active during sediment deposition
C. A thrust fault that displaced only crystalline basement
D. A strike-slip fault that formed after all sedimentation

49 A fault has a rake of measured from the strike direction. The hanging wall moves m along the fault, and the fault strikes north-south. What is the approximate vertical component of displacement?

faulting Hard
A. m
B. m
C. m
D. m

50 Two faults intersect: Fault A has a steep dip and normal displacement, while Fault B has a shallow dip and reverse displacement. Offset markers show that A cuts B. Which event sequence is supported?

faulting Hard
A. Reverse faulting on B preceded normal faulting on A
B. Both faults formed simultaneously under identical stress
C. The cross-cutting relationship cannot constrain relative age
D. Normal faulting on A preceded reverse faulting on B

51 Two earthquakes have identical rupture areas and stress drops, but one has twice the average slip. Which conclusion is most justified?

earthquakes Hard
A. Its seismic moment is approximately twice as large
B. Its seismic energy must be exactly twice as large
C. Its wave amplitude must be independent of magnitude
D. Its recurrence interval must be exactly twice as long

52 A station records a wave at 10:00:00 and an wave at 10:00:40. If the assumed - and -wave speeds are km/s and km/s, respectively, what is the approximate epicentral distance?

earthquakes Hard
A. km
B. km
C. km
D. km

53 A shallow earthquake occurs beneath a soft, water-saturated alluvial basin. Which combination best explains why damage may exceed that predicted from magnitude alone?

earthquakes Hard
A. High rigidity, thin sediment, and rapid wave attenuation
B. Site amplification, basin resonance, and liquefaction
C. Low frequency, deep focus, and reduced wave duration
D. Small slip, weak shaking, and absence of surface deformation

54 After a major earthquake, the number of aftershocks decreases approximately according to the modified Omori relation. If the elapsed time is increased from day to days, what does the relation primarily predict?

earthquakes Hard
A. A tenfold increase in aftershock magnitude
B. A constant aftershock rate through both intervals
C. A complete cessation of aftershocks after one day
D. A gradual decline in aftershock rate with time

55 A coastal earthquake has a -wave first motion pattern showing compression in quadrants aligned northeast-southwest and dilatation in the perpendicular quadrants. What can be determined most reliably?

earthquakes Hard
A. The precise tsunami height at every coastline
B. A unique fault plane and exact rupture length
C. A focal mechanism with two possible nodal planes
D. The earthquake's magnitude without amplitude measurements

56 A volcano produces highly viscous, silica-rich magma with abundant dissolved gas and eruptions dominated by ash columns and pyroclastic flows. Which setting and magma behavior are most consistent?

volcanoes Hard
A. A transform boundary with passive rhyolite extrusion
B. A subduction zone with explosive fragmentation
C. A mid-ocean ridge with effusive basaltic fountains
D. A continental rift with low-viscosity lava lakes

57 A stratovolcano shows increasing seismicity, ground inflation, rising volcanic gas emissions, and a shift from sulfur dioxide toward carbon dioxide dominance. What is the most cautious interpretation?

volcanoes Hard
A. An eruption is certain to occur within one hour
B. Magma or hydrothermal fluids are migrating upward
C. The volcanic system has permanently lost its magma supply
D. The volcano is undergoing only surface erosion

58 A lava flow advances at m/min and has a front km from a settlement. If the rate remains constant, approximately how long is available before arrival?

volcanoes Hard
A. 1,800 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 9 minutes
D. 900 minutes

59 A volcano's eruption column collapses because the mass eruption rate exceeds the atmosphere's ability to support the column. Which hazard is consequently enhanced?

volcanoes Hard
A. A dense pyroclastic density current
B. A purely tectonic surface rupture
C. A widespread but dilute ash veil only
D. A slow-moving basaltic tube flow

60 A shield volcano has a broad profile, low-angle slopes, and repeated extensive flows with low silica content. Which process most directly explains its morphology?

volcanoes Hard
A. Accumulation of highly viscous rhyolitic domes
B. Repeated effusion of low-viscosity basaltic lava
C. Collapse of a composite cone during a lahar
D. Deposition of thick welded ash-flow sheets