Unit 6 - Practice Quiz

FIN213 60 Questions
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1 Which institution is the primary regulator of the banking sector in India?

regulation of financial markets and institutions Easy
A. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
B. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
C. Ministry of Finance
D. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

2 What is the primary purpose of regulating financial markets?

regulation of financial markets and institutions Easy
A. To protect investors and ensure market stability
B. To guarantee high returns for all investors
C. To control the exact prices of all stocks
D. To eliminate all financial risks

3 The capital market in India primarily deals with the trading of which type of funds?

regulation of capital market Easy
A. Foreign currencies only
B. Long-term funds
C. Short-term funds
D. Overnight loans

4 Which of the following entities is a core component of the Indian capital market?

regulation of capital market Easy
A. Cooperative credit societies
B. Commercial Banks providing savings accounts
C. Stock Exchanges like BSE and NSE
D. Local moneylenders

5 Why is insider trading strictly prohibited in the capital market?

regulation of capital market Easy
A. It allows individuals to gain an unfair advantage using non-public information
B. It makes stock prices too stable
C. It forces companies to pay higher dividends
D. It reduces the total number of shares in the market

6 What does SEBI stand for?

SEBI and it's role Easy
A. Securities and Economy Board of India
B. Stock Exchange Bureau of India
C. Securities and Exchange Board of India
D. State Enterprise Board of India

7 In which year did SEBI acquire statutory status?

SEBI and it's role Easy
A. 1992
B. 2005
C. 1988
D. 1999

8 Which of the following is a primary objective of SEBI?

SEBI and it's role Easy
A. To issue currency notes
B. To protect the interests of investors in securities
C. To provide loans to corporate houses
D. To regulate the insurance sector

9 Who regulates the stock brokers and sub-brokers in the Indian financial system?

SEBI and it's role Easy
A. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
B. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
C. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
D. State Governments

10 Which regulatory body is directly responsible for supervising mutual funds in India?

supervision of mutual fund markets Easy
A. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
B. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
C. Ministry of Commerce
D. Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI)

11 What is the primary function of a mutual fund?

supervision of mutual fund markets Easy
A. To lend money directly to the government
B. To pool money from multiple investors to invest in securities
C. To provide insurance coverage for individuals
D. To regulate the stock exchanges

12 Which indicator is widely used to assess the health of a bank's loan portfolio?

economic outlook and banking sector performance Easy
A. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
B. Consumer Price Index (CPI)
C. Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
D. Non-Performing Assets (NPAs)

13 A positive and growing economic outlook generally leads to which of the following for the banking sector?

economic outlook and banking sector performance Easy
A. A sharp increase in loan defaults
B. Decreased demand for loans
C. Higher credit growth
D. Reduction in bank branches

14 What is the main objective of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002?

prevention of money laundering act 2002 Easy
A. To promote foreign direct investment
B. To prevent money laundering and confiscate property derived from it
C. To regulate the printing of currency notes
D. To provide tax exemptions to large corporations

15 Under the PMLA, which authority is primarily responsible for investigating money laundering offenses in India?

prevention of money laundering act 2002 Easy
A. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
B. Enforcement Directorate (ED)
C. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
D. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

16 In the context of financial regulations, what does 'money laundering' generally refer to?

prevention of money laundering act 2002 Easy
A. Printing fake currency notes
B. Transferring money from one bank to another legally
C. The process of converting illegally earned money into legitimate money
D. Paying taxes on black money

17 The Forward Markets Commission (FMC) was originally the chief regulator of which market in India?

forward markets commission (India) Easy
A. Commodity futures market
B. Foreign exchange market
C. Equity market
D. Bond market

18 In 2015, the Forward Markets Commission (FMC) was merged with which regulatory body?

forward markets commission (India) Easy
A. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
B. Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA)
C. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
D. Competition Commission of India (CCI)

19 What was the immediate impact of the COVID-19 pandemic outbreak on Indian stock markets in March 2020?

impact of covid 19 on Indian capital markets Easy
A. A sharp decline and high volatility
B. Suspension of all market activities for a year
C. No noticeable impact on trading
D. A steady and stable rise in stock prices

20 During the COVID-19 pandemic, which sector saw significant growth and investor interest in the Indian capital market?

impact of covid 19 on Indian capital markets Easy
A. Pharmaceutical and Healthcare
B. Aviation and Tourism
C. Hospitality and Hotels
D. Real Estate and Construction

21 A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) starts accepting demand deposits from the public without proper authorization. Which regulatory body is responsible for taking punitive action against this institution?

regulation of financial markets and institutions Medium
A. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
B. Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA)
C. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
D. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

22 When a new hybrid financial product is introduced that has features of both an insurance policy and a mutual fund, jurisdictional overlaps may occur. Which apex body in India is tasked with resolving such inter-regulatory coordination issues?

regulation of financial markets and institutions Medium
A. Supreme Court of India
B. Ministry of Finance
C. Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT)
D. Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC)

23 An unlisted public company wishes to raise capital by issuing shares to the public for the first time. Which specific regulatory framework must the company primarily comply with to ensure transparent disclosures?

regulation of capital market Medium
A. SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations
B. Companies (Share Capital and Debentures) Rules
C. SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations
D. SEBI (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations

24 To manage severe price fluctuations, capital market regulators utilize 'circuit breakers'. What is the practical application of a circuit breaker in a stock exchange?

regulation of capital market Medium
A. It automatically executes pending limit orders when prices drop.
B. It halts trading temporarily or for the remainder of the day if an index moves beyond a prescribed limit.
C. It forces institutional investors to buy shares to stabilize the market.
D. It prevents retail investors from placing sell orders during a market crash.

25 The CEO of a listed company purchases a large volume of the company's shares two days before announcing a highly lucrative government contract. Which SEBI regulation provides the framework to prosecute this action?

SEBI and it's role Medium
A. SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices) Regulations
B. SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations
C. SEBI (Intermediaries) Regulations
D. SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations

26 If an intermediary is found guilty of siphoning investor funds, SEBI invokes Section 11B of the SEBI Act, 1992. What power does this section grant SEBI in this scenario?

SEBI and it's role Medium
A. The power to transfer the case to the Reserve Bank of India.
B. The power to criminally prosecute the intermediary in a high court.
C. The power to nationalize the intermediary's assets permanently.
D. The power to issue directions, such as impounding proceeds or ordering a refund of the money to investors.

27 A listed entity fails to submit its audited quarterly financial results within 45 days of the end of the quarter. This is a direct violation of which SEBI mandate?

SEBI and it's role Medium
A. SEBI (ICDR) Regulations
B. SEBI (LODR) Regulations
C. SEBI (SAST) Regulations
D. SEBI (PFUTP) Regulations

28 In the structure of a Mutual Fund in India, an Asset Management Company (AMC) manages the funds. Who holds the fiduciary responsibility to ensure that the AMC's operations comply with SEBI guidelines and protect unit holders' interests?

supervision of mutual fund markets Medium
A. The Sponsor of the Mutual Fund
B. The Board of Trustees
C. The Registrar and Transfer Agent (RTA)
D. The Custodian

29 SEBI strictly monitors the Total Expense Ratio (TER) of mutual funds. If an AMC wants to increase its management fee, how does the TER regulation affect this decision?

supervision of mutual fund markets Medium
A. The TER regulation only applies to debt funds, so equity funds are exempt from fee caps.
B. The AMC can increase fees indefinitely as long as it generates positive alpha.
C. The AMC must reduce its marketing expenses to zero before increasing management fees.
D. The increase must stay within the maximum TER limits prescribed by SEBI based on the scheme's Asset Under Management (AUM).

30 An investor notices that a 'Large Cap Fund' has invested 40% of its corpus in small-cap stocks, deviating from its mandate. What regulatory document is being violated in this scenario?

supervision of mutual fund markets Medium
A. The Scheme Information Document (SID)
B. The Net Asset Value (NAV) Declaration
C. The Statement of Additional Information (SAI)
D. The Key Information Memorandum (KIM)

31 A sudden increase in the Gross Non-Performing Assets (GNPA) of the banking sector usually leads to an economic slowdown. What is the primary operational reason for this relationship?

economic outlook and banking sector performance Medium
A. Higher GNPAs automatically trigger deflation by increasing the value of the domestic currency.
B. Higher GNPAs require higher capital provisioning, reducing the banks' capacity to lend to productive sectors.
C. Higher GNPAs immediately cause foreign institutional investors to withdraw all capital from the country.
D. Higher GNPAs force banks to increase deposit rates, drawing money out of the stock market.

32 To control inflation, the central bank raises the repo rate. If commercial banks completely pass on this rate hike to both depositors and borrowers, what is the most likely short-term impact on the banks' Net Interest Margin (NIM)?

economic outlook and banking sector performance Medium
A. NIM will turn negative as depositors demand immediate payouts.
B. NIM will significantly increase due to higher interest income from loans.
C. NIM will sharply decrease as borrowing costs rise.
D. NIM will remain relatively stable, but credit growth may slow down.

33 The implementation of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) aimed to improve banking sector performance. How does a faster resolution process under IBC conceptually improve a bank's balance sheet?

economic outlook and banking sector performance Medium
A. It allows banks to quickly free up trapped capital and reverse provisions, improving liquidity and profitability.
B. It guarantees a 100% recovery rate on all corporate defaults.
C. It shifts the burden of bad loans directly to the central bank's balance sheet.
D. It prevents companies from defaulting by offering them government subsidies.

34 A bank teller notices a customer making multiple cash deposits just below the PAN-card requirement threshold over a week, funneling it into an overseas account. Under the PMLA 2002 rules, what is the bank's immediate compliance obligation?

prevention of money laundering act 2002 Medium
A. File a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) with the Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU-IND).
B. Report the transaction to the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
C. Inform the customer that they are being investigated for structuring.
D. Freeze the customer's account instantly and confiscate the funds.

35 Under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002, a charge of money laundering is only applicable if the proceeds are derived from a 'Scheduled Offence'. Which of the following best represents a Scheduled Offence?

prevention of money laundering act 2002 Medium
A. Criminal conspiracy involving drug trafficking or corruption.
B. Late filing of personal income tax returns without intent to evade.
C. A minor traffic violation resulting in a fine.
D. A civil breach of contract between two private businesses.

36 The Enforcement Directorate (ED) attaches a property under the PMLA, 2002, suspecting it was bought with illicit funds. What is the judicial process required to make this attachment permanent?

prevention of money laundering act 2002 Medium
A. The property is automatically transferred to the state government after 30 days.
B. The Reserve Bank of India reviews the case and confiscates the property.
C. The Adjudicating Authority under PMLA must confirm the attachment within 180 days.
D. The ED Director signs a final confiscation order independently.

37 In 2015, the Forward Markets Commission (FMC) was merged with SEBI. Which of the following was a primary reason for this regulatory consolidation?

forward markets commission (India) Medium
A. To separate the regulation of agricultural commodities from metals.
B. To dissolve the commodities derivatives market entirely due to high volatility.
C. To bring equity, currency, and commodity derivatives under a single regulator to prevent regulatory arbitrage.
D. To transfer the oversight of the commodities market directly to the Reserve Bank of India.

38 Prior to its merger with SEBI, the Forward Markets Commission (FMC) derived its regulatory powers from which specific legislation?

forward markets commission (India) Medium
A. Essential Commodities Act, 1955
B. Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
C. Forward Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1952
D. Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956

39 During the severe market crash in March 2020 induced by the COVID-19 pandemic, SEBI introduced temporary regulatory measures. Which of the following was a key measure taken to curb extreme market volatility?

impact of covid 19 on Indian capital markets Medium
A. Banning the trading of all pharmaceutical stocks.
B. Forcing mutual funds to sell their debt holdings to retail investors.
C. Mandating a 100% tax on all intraday trading profits.
D. Increasing margin requirements for short selling and revising circuit breaker limits.

40 Post the initial COVID-19 market crash, the Indian capital market experienced a massive influx of retail investors. From a regulatory and infrastructure standpoint, what primarily facilitated this rapid surge?

impact of covid 19 on Indian capital markets Medium
A. The RBI offering interest-free loans to retail investors for stock market investments.
B. The widespread implementation of digital onboarding and e-KYC (Know Your Customer) processes approved by SEBI.
C. The suspension of all capital gains taxes by the Ministry of Finance.
D. The mandatory conversion of bank savings accounts into demat accounts.

41 In the context of the Indian financial system, which of the following accurately describes the jurisdictional overlap and regulatory resolution between the RBI and SEBI concerning Interest Rate Futures (IRFs)?

regulation of financial markets and institutions Hard
A. SEBI has exclusive jurisdiction over IRFs as they are derivative contracts traded on stock exchanges, while RBI only regulates the underlying government securities.
B. IRFs are strictly Over-The-Counter (OTC) products in India and fall exclusively under the regulatory purview of the RBI under the FEMA Act.
C. The Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) acts as the primary regulator for IRFs, overriding both RBI and SEBI guidelines.
D. RBI determines the underlying policy framework and product design for IRFs, while SEBI is responsible for the regulation of the trading platforms and exchange-level risk management.

42 Under the Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) framework applied to Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), which of the following combinations of indicators serves as the primary trigger for invoking PCA?

regulation of financial markets and institutions Hard
A. Capital to Risk-Weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR), Tier I Capital Ratio, and Net Non-Performing Assets (NNPA) ratio.
B. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), and Gross Non-Performing Assets (GNPA) ratio.
C. Return on Assets (RoA), Net Interest Margin (NIM), and Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR).
D. Leverage Ratio, Provisioning Coverage Ratio (PCR), and Credit-Deposit Ratio.

43 Under the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 2011, if an acquirer already holds 25% or more but less than the maximum permissible non-public shareholding (75%) of a target company, what is the maximum additional percentage of shares they can acquire in a single financial year without triggering a mandatory open offer? (Assuming no exemptions apply)

regulation of capital market Hard
A. 10% (Creeping Acquisition Limit)
B. 5% (Creeping Acquisition Limit)
C. They cannot acquire any additional shares without triggering an open offer.
D. 2% (Creeping Acquisition Limit)

44 Under the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, which of the following is considered a valid statutory defense for trading while in possession of Unpublished Price Sensitive Information (UPSI)?

regulation of capital market Hard
A. The trade was executed as a bulk deal on the exchange to provide liquidity.
B. The insider was unaware of the specific financial impact of the UPSI, even though they were aware of the underlying event.
C. The trade was conducted by a portfolio manager operating under a discretionary mandate without the insider's direct instruction.
D. The transaction was an off-market inter-se transfer between insiders who were both in possession of the same UPSI, without violating regulation 3.

45 SEBI invokes its powers of disgorgement to deprive a market participant of wrongful gains. If a market participant wishes to appeal a disgorgement order passed by a Whole Time Member (WTM) of SEBI, what is the correct appellate hierarchy?

SEBI and it's role Hard
A. Appeal first to the SEBI Board in a plenary session, followed by the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT).
B. Appeal first to the High Court of the respective state, followed by the Supreme Court.
C. Appeal first to the Ministry of Finance, followed by the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT).
D. Appeal first to the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT), followed by the Supreme Court of India.

46 Which of the following mechanisms did SEBI mandate to mitigate settlement risks and optimize capital efficiency among Clearing Corporations (CCs) in the Indian securities market?

SEBI and it's role Hard
A. The implementation of a unified Central Counterparty (CCP) replacing all existing exchange-specific CCs.
B. The Interoperability Framework, allowing market participants to consolidate their clearing and settlement functions at a single CC regardless of the exchange where the trade was executed.
C. The mandatory segregation of cash and derivative clearing pools within each broker's proprietary accounts.
D. The T+0 rolling settlement protocol for all highly liquid index constituents, completely eliminating the need for margin collection.

47 Consider SEBI's regulatory framework for Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs). If a REIT’s aggregate consolidated borrowings and deferred payments exceed 49% of the value of the REIT assets, what specific regulatory requirement must be met before incurring further debt?

SEBI and it's role Hard
A. The REIT is strictly prohibited from exceeding 49% leverage under any circumstances.
B. The REIT must immediately halt all dividend distributions until the leverage ratio falls below 49%.
C. Borrowing exceeding 49% requires the approval of the unitholders, and the total borrowing cannot exceed 70% of the REIT assets.
D. The REIT must obtain a credit rating of 'AAA' and approval from the Reserve Bank of India.

48 Following SEBI's 'True to Label' circular on scheme categorization, a 'Multi Cap Fund' must adhere to specific minimum asset allocation rules across market capitalizations. What is the mandatory minimum allocation required in Large, Mid, and Small Cap stocks respectively?

supervision of mutual fund markets Hard
A. There are no specific minimums; the fund manager has complete flexibility up to 65% total equity.
B. Minimum 50% in Large Cap, 15% in Mid Cap, and 15% in Small Cap.
C. Minimum 25% in Large Cap, 25% in Mid Cap, and 25% in Small Cap.
D. Minimum 35% in Large Cap, 35% in Mid Cap, and 10% in Small Cap.

49 Under SEBI's revised Risk-o-meter guidelines for mutual funds, the risk level of debt instruments is calculated based on three specific risk parameters. Which of the following correctly identifies these three parameters?

supervision of mutual fund markets Hard
A. Credit Risk, Interest Rate Risk, and Liquidity Risk.
B. Default Risk, Reinvestment Risk, and Duration Risk.
C. Credit Risk, Foreign Exchange Risk, and Volatility Risk.
D. Macaulay Duration, Yield to Maturity (YTM), and Tracking Error.

50 When a debt security held by a mutual fund defaults or is downgraded below investment grade, SEBI mandates a standardized haircut matrix for valuation. If the valuation agencies fail to provide a price, how is the security valued on the day of default for a senior, secured instrument?

supervision of mutual fund markets Hard
A. It is immediately marked down to zero to protect incoming investors.
B. It is valued at the last traded price of the security on any recognized stock exchange.
C. It is subjected to a standard haircut (e.g., 25%) applied to the face value, depending on the sector.
D. It is transferred to a side-pocket (segregated portfolio) at its pre-default valuation without any haircut.

51 In analyzing the monetary transmission mechanism in India, the RBI mandated the linking of certain retail loans to an External Benchmark Lending Rate (EBLR). During a period of surplus structural liquidity and a dovish economic outlook, why might banks still experience a lag in translating lower EBLR to reduced marginal cost of funds?

economic outlook and banking sector performance Hard
A. Because the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) rate acts as a rigid floor for all retail and wholesale deposit pricing.
B. Because a significant portion of bank liabilities (deposits) are fixed-rate and take time to reprice, creating a maturity mismatch against floating-rate EBLR assets.
C. Because the RBI strictly prohibits banks from lowering deposit rates below the prevailing repo rate.
D. Because EBLR only applies to corporate loans, leaving retail deposit costs unaffected.

52 Under the Basel III capital regulations implemented by the RBI, banks must maintain a Capital Conservation Buffer (CCB). If a bank's Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) falls within the CCB range, what is the immediate regulatory consequence?

economic outlook and banking sector performance Hard
A. The RBI automatically converts Tier 2 subordinated debt into CET1 capital.
B. The bank faces automatic constraints on the distribution of earnings, such as dividend payments and discretionary bonuses, proportional to the shortfall.
C. The bank must liquidate non-core assets within 30 days to replenish the CET1 capital.
D. The bank is placed under the Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) framework and its board is superseded.

53 When assessing banking sector performance, the RBI frequently monitors 'Divergence in asset classification and provisioning'. According to RBI norms, under what condition is a commercial bank mandatorily required to disclose this divergence in its 'Notes to Accounts'?

economic outlook and banking sector performance Hard
A. If the additional gross NPAs identified by RBI exceed 10% of the incremental gross NPAs reported during the previous quarter.
B. If the additional gross NPAs identified by the RBI exceed 10% of the reported profit before provisions and contingencies, or if the additional provisioning exceeds 10% of the reported net NPAs.
C. If the additional provisioning for NPAs assessed by RBI exceeds 10% of the reported profit before provisions and contingencies, or if the additional gross NPAs identified by RBI exceed 15% of the published incremental Gross NPAs.
D. If the additional provisioning requirements assessed by RBI exceed 5% of the reported net profits before provisions and contingencies.

54 Section 24 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002, introduces a legal principle that significantly alters conventional criminal jurisprudence. Which of the following describes this principle?

prevention of money laundering act 2002 Hard
A. It allows the Enforcement Directorate to bypass the judiciary and directly seize assets without an Adjudicating Authority order.
B. It establishes double jeopardy, allowing simultaneous prosecution under PMLA and the predicate offense.
C. It mandates a reverse burden of proof, legally presuming that the proceeds of crime are involved in money laundering unless the accused proves otherwise.
D. It provides absolute immunity to financial intermediaries if they file a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR).

55 Under the definition of 'Proceeds of Crime' in Section 2(1)(u) of the PMLA, 2002, how is the jurisdiction treated if the property derived from a scheduled offense is parked entirely outside India?

prevention of money laundering act 2002 Hard
A. The property must be physically repatriated to India before the Adjudicating Authority can initiate PMLA proceedings.
B. The PMLA does not apply; the matter must be referred entirely to Interpol and the host country's domestic laws.
C. The Enforcement Directorate can only issue a non-bailable warrant but cannot attach any equivalent domestic assets.
D. The 'Proceeds of Crime' definition includes property held abroad, allowing authorities to attach the value equivalent of that property situated in India.

56 Under Section 5 of the PMLA, 2002, an authorized officer can provisionally attach property believed to be proceeds of crime. What is the maximum statutory validity period of this provisional attachment order before it must be confirmed by the Adjudicating Authority?

prevention of money laundering act 2002 Hard
A. Until the conclusion of the criminal trial.
B. 365 days from the date of the order.
C. 180 days from the date of the order.
D. 90 days from the date of the order.

57 The merger of the Forward Markets Commission (FMC) with SEBI in 2015 was a landmark event in Indian financial regulation. What was the primary legislative mechanism used to effect this merger?

forward markets commission (India) Hard
A. The passing of a specialized 'FMC-SEBI Integration Act, 2015' by Parliament.
B. The repeal of the Forward Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1952 via the Finance Act, 2015, which concurrently amended the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 to include commodity derivatives.
C. A constitutional amendment to transfer commodity trading from the State List to the Union List.
D. An executive order issued by the Ministry of Finance utilizing the discretionary powers under the SEBI Act.

58 Prior to its merger with SEBI, the Forward Markets Commission (FMC) was fundamentally constrained in deepening the commodity markets due to the provisions of the FCRA, 1952. Which specific class of financial instruments was strictly prohibited under the FCRA, preventing the FMC from introducing them?

forward markets commission (India) Hard
A. Algorithmic trading on commodity exchanges.
B. Non-agricultural commodity futures.
C. Cash-settled forward contracts.
D. Options on commodity derivatives.

59 During the severe market dislocation caused by COVID-19 in March-April 2020, how did the RBI and SEBI collaborate to resolve the acute liquidity crisis specifically facing debt mutual funds?

impact of covid 19 on Indian capital markets Hard
A. SEBI banned redemptions in all debt funds for 90 days, while RBI provided a sovereign guarantee on all commercial paper.
B. RBI aggressively purchased corporate bonds directly from the secondary market under a Quantitative Easing program, bypassing mutual funds.
C. SEBI permitted mutual funds to directly borrow from the RBI's Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) window against their corporate bond portfolios.
D. RBI opened a Special Liquidity Facility for Mutual Funds (SLF-MF) allowing banks to borrow at the repo rate strictly to meet mutual fund liquidity requirements, while SEBI relaxed valuation norms for defaulted papers.

60 To facilitate fundraising by corporates during the COVID-19 pandemic, SEBI relaxed several pricing norms. Which of the following relaxations was temporarily granted regarding the pricing of preferential issues?

impact of covid 19 on Indian capital markets Hard
A. The lock-in period for promoters subscribing to preferential issues was completely waived to encourage promoter capital infusion.
B. Preferential issue pricing was deregulated entirely, allowing the Board of Directors to determine any arbitrary price subject to shareholder approval.
C. Companies were allowed to price preferential issues based on a 2-week average of related stock prices, as opposed to the standard 26-week average requirement.
D. Companies were allowed to issue shares below the par value of the stock, provided they were subscribed by institutional investors.